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ACC 564 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
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Week 11 Discussion 1
"Looking Back" Please respond to the following:
The AICPA would like for you to deliver a speech at one of its upcoming conferences on the future of accounting information systems. From the first e-Activity, select one conference and formulate the takeaway message and key points that you would want your audience to remember from your speech.
After delivering your speech, you have been approached by representatives from Oracle (Oracle Financials) and Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics) regarding your key points. From the second e-Activity, evaluate how your message can be used to enhance their product line and vision
Week 11 Discussion 2
"Looking Ahead" Please respond to the following:
Evaluate the top-three concepts covered in this course that provided the most value to you and how you might incorporate those concepts or processes into your current job or future endeavors.
Evaluate the top-three concepts in this course that you found difficult to comprehend. Propose a recommendation to the author of the textbook on how he / she could have made that process or concept easier to understand.
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ACC 571 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
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Week 11 DQ
"The Role of the Forensic Accountant" Please respond to the following:
• The role of the forensic accountant is important to fraud investigations. Give your opinion on the most important characteristics and qualities of successful forensic accountants / investigators.
• Assess your preparedness for a forensic accountant position based on what you have learned in this course.
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ACC 576 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
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Week 11 DQ
"Course Wrap-Up" Please respond to the following:
· Discuss the way in which the concepts of this course can be applied to your current or future work position.
· Determine to what extent you feel prepared to enter the accounting profession in the area of public accounting as a Certified Public Accountant.
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BUS 230 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
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Quiz Chapter 16 and 17
Other Supply Responsibilities
113. Investment recovery is often assigned to:
a. supply managers because they have knowledge supply markets and price trends.
b. salespeople because they have contact with buyers who may use the material.
c. marketing managers because they have information on internal users.
d. engineers who can suggest possible uses of the material within the organization.
e. financial analysts because they set the target return on all investments.
114. Efforts to deal with hazardous waste include a focus on:
a. highly visible sources of pollution, e.g. smoke stacks.
b. less visible uncontrolled sites, e.g. buried waste.
c. recycling.
d. substitution of non-hazardous materials for hazardous materials.
e. all of the above.
115. The potential benefits of having accounts payable report to the same executive as supply include:
a. familiarity with the supplier
b. familiarity with the order.
c. opportunities to reduce transaction costs and headcount.
d. the ability for supply to ensure that payments for suppliers are made on time.
e. all of the above.
116. Reducing the obsolescence and waste of maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supplies through better materials and inventory management will:
a. reduce the costs of disposing of MRO items that are obsolete or waste.
b. reduce carrying cost by lowering inventory levels, especially of obsolete items.
c. improve environmental performance by reducing waste that goes into landfills or incinerators.
d. simultaneously reduce costs and improve environmental performance.
e. have little impact because MRO is a small percentage of annual spend and the items usually have low environmental low-impact.
117. Warehousing and inventory storage:
a. can either be an internal function or outsourced to a third-party logistics firm.
b. typically has little communication with supply management.
c. may have direct responsibility for organizational purchasing decisions.
d. outsourcing decisions typically are made by the finance department.
e. is seldom outsourced.
118. One of the reasons why companies are paying more attention to the effective, efficient, and profitable recovery and disposal of scrap, surplus, obsolete, and waste materials is that:
a. consumers overwhelmingly demand environmental responsibility.
b. it is easy to administer and highly profitable.
c. most organizations generate little scrap, surplus, obsolete and waste materials.
d. disposal costs are rising and environmental legislation is strengthening.
e. disposal is a fairly simple problem that is easily resolved.
119. The role and importance of investment recovery in an organization is driven in large part by the:
a. CEO’s perspective on environmental issues.
b. Chief Purchasing Officer’s clout or leverage with other executives.
c. projected dollar value of the potential revenue recovery or cost reduction.
d. salespeople who encourage the inclusion of buy-back programs of key materials.
e. internal level of knowledge about disposal channels and suppliers.
120. Coordinating inbound and outbound transportation:
a. has little application in an effective and efficient supply organization.
b. is done by cross-functional teams in most organizations.
c. helps to reduce costs and improve utilization of related assets and resources.
d. provides the basic elements of a global supply network.
e. is used extensively in Europe, but has not migrated to the U.S.
121. Production planning:
a. focuses on long-term schedules to control inventory and production.
b. requires coordinating the delivery and storage of key raw materials.
c. cannot involve supply because of fears of undue influence from suppliers.
d. relies heavily on forecasts from purchasing and supply management.
e. is a discrete activity with little coordination with other functions.
122. Supply can contribute to the organization’s environmental management program by:
a. developing sourcing and usage alternatives for hazardous materials.
b. focusing on substitution of non-hazardous materials for hazardous materials.
c. encouraging and participating in designing products that do not use or generate hazardous waste.
d. a and b.
e. a, b and c.
True and False
1. Production planning relies heavily on forecasts from operations to anticipate demand for products and services..
2. To ensure maximum return for its investment, the process and procedures for selling scrap and surplus must cover a broad range of activities including segregation and storage, weighing and measuring, delivery, negotiation, supplier selection, and payment.
3. If material has been declared surplus, the only option is to sell it.
4. Obsolete is in the eyes of the beholder. Something that has been declared obsolete in one organization may be perfectly acceptable and useable in another.
5. It makes no sense to assign responsibility for disposal to the supply management function because the personnel usually have no selling experience.
6. The total cost of hazardous waste for a company does not include the costs of new plant and equipment to reduce waste and deal with contaminated plants.
7. Escalator clauses in contracts for scrap disposal are necessary because the prices of primary metals fluctuate.
8. An organization’s Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system may be used to develop a national or global database for company personnel at different locations to post and purchase spare parts, obsolete materials, and surplus.
9. Waste is created when a change in the production process occurs, or when a better material is substituted for the material originally used.
10. As more people come to believe that it makes economic sense to practice environmentally sound operations, business and government may be able to work together for common goals.
CHAPTER 17
SUPPLY FUNCTION EVALUATION AND TRENDS
123. Research on the supply management process focuses on:
a. developing a strategy to reduce cost or ensure supply.
b. improving buyer-seller relationships.
c. deciding whether to single or multiple source.
d. conducting cost analysis to identify unnecessary costs.
e. increasing efficiency by automating where possible.
124. Purchasing performance benchmarking attempts to:
a. analyze a firm's own internal trends.
b. provide industrywide standards for overall firm performance.
c. determine what results have been achieved by purchasing and supply activities.
d. determine how an organization achieves results in purchasing and supply.
e. provide baseline metrics to compare companies’ supply performance.
125. The budget which begins with an estimate of expected operations, based on sales forecasts and plans, is called the:
a. operating budget.
b. capital budget.
c. cash flow budget.
d. materials purchase budget.
e. organizational budget.
126. When cross-functional teams are used to conduct research, it is best if:
a. the team has strong leadership.
b. the team has total autonomy to decide objectives and set expectations.
c. team members are randomly selected from departments.
d. performance evaluation and reward systems foster individual contributions.
e. each team member develops time management skills to handle the assignment.
127. In terms of measuring and validating supply savings:
1. information systems easily capture savings.
2. static markets, technologies, and volumes facilitate the process.
3. in many cases there is an inability to convert savings into profit.
4. management usually recognizes cumulative savings.
5. there is a universal definition of supply savings.
128. Supply can play a leadership role in corporate social responsibility (CSR) by:
1. instituting third party workplace audits of suppliers in developing countries.
2. knowing the providence of products in the supply chain.
3. considering the organization’s carbon footprint in supply decisions.
4. designing closed loop supply chains.
5. all of the above.
129. The assessment of a supplier’s financial capacity:
1. enables the development of risk minimization strategies.
2. predicts the probability of the supplier encountering financial problems.
3. is done primarily to ensure the supplier has the cash to pay its bills.
4. usually is unnecessary if the supplier has been in business for more than 5 years.
5. is required before a contract can be ratified.
130. A comprehensive commodity study should result in a(n):
a. thorough analysis of sources used over time.
b. strategy to lower cost and assure supply.
c. review of past predictions and variances from actual prices paid.
d. assessment of the performance of the commodity manager.
e. trend analysis of volume requirements over time.
131. Trends in supply organization and leadership include:
a. more chief purchasing officers with extensive supply experience.
b. less emphasis on teams.
c. global projects requiring cross-cultural skills.
d. merging of strategic and tactical roles in supply.
e. emphasis on “hard skills” such as finance.
132. An efficiency-oriented performance metric:
a. evaluates the quality of supplier relationships.
b. measures end customer satisfaction.
c. measures direct contributions to profit.
d. calculates the average dollar cost of a purchase order.
e. measures number of defects caused by poor incoming quality.
True and False
1. The perceptions that non-supply managers have of supply are shaped by interactions with and observations of supply, tangible experiences with supply on a day-to-day basis, and the extent to which supply is seen as contributing to the firm's mission.
2. Value engineering is done on purchased items used in the ongoing production process, while value analysis is done in the design stage where items are being specified.
3.Triple bottom line reporting refers to an organization’s social, environmental, and financial performance.
4. Effectiveness metrics which emphasize price may lead to behavior that drives up total cost of ownership.
5. The supply planning process is initiated by the supply manager’s assessment of the supply base.
6. Industry benchmarking allows an individual company to compare itself to its major competitor.
7. Financial efficiency is indicated by the asset and inventory turnover ratios.
8. Supplier performance management systems should be designed to capture and communicate the failures of suppliers so penalties can be assessed.
9. Supply management’s contribution may be measured along three dimensions: revenue enhancement, asset management, and cost management.
10. Internal validation of supply’s financial contribution increases joint ownership of goals and outcomes.
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BUS 309 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
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Quiz 10 Chapter 11
Job Discrimination
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is true based on documented evidence of discrimination?
a.
African Americans have the third highest standard of living in the world.
b.
Today, men are just as likely as women to be in so-called "pink collar" occupations.
c.
There is little statistical evidence of job discrimination today.
d.
Relatively few women and minorities have made it to the very top of their professions.
2. A historical view indicates which of the following is correct?
a.
Statistical evidence is irrelevant to proving discrimination.
b.
Women and blacks are sometimes victimized by stereotypes.
c.
The idea that women may have difficulties fitting into a "male" work environment is outdated.
d.
On average women earn between 1/3 and 1/2 of what men make for doing the very same work.
3. Which of these statements is true concerning court cases about discrimination?
a.
Brown v. Board of Education upheld the principle of "separate but equal."
b.
The Bakke case outlawed affirmative action across the board.
c.
In the 2004 Holtz case, the Supreme Court ruled that "race-conscious" admissions policies are unconstitutional.
d.
In the recent University of Michigan cases (Gratz and Grutter), the Supreme Court upheld a moderate, flexible affirmative action program and rejected a rigid one.
4. Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument FOR affirmative action?
a.
It evens the score with young white men, who have had it good for too long.
b.
It is necessary to break the cycle that keeps minorities and women locked into low-paying, low-prestige jobs.
c.
It ignores the principle of equality.
d.
It is a color-blind policy.
5. Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument AGAINST affirmative action?
a.
Compensatory justice forbids affirmative action.
b.
Blacks and whites are already equal in socioeconomic terms.
c.
Affirmative action violates the rights of white men to equal treatment.
d.
Affirmative action is the same thing as fixed numerical quotas.
6. Advocates of "comparable worth"
a.
say that all women do their job just as well as men.
b.
base their doctrine on the free-market determination of wages.
c.
believe it is necessary for getting rid of sexual harassment.
d.
want women to be paid as much as men for jobs involving equivalent skill, effort, and responsibility.
7. Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?
a.
Unwelcome sexual offers a female employer gives to a male employee.
b.
A female employee hugging a co-worker when he announces his engagement.
c.
A manager enforcing a dress code for a work environment.
d.
An employee pinning up comic strips in an office cubicle.
8. Sexual comments that one woman appreciates might distress another women. Who decides when such behavior is inappropriate?
a.
The person to whom the comments are directed.
b.
The person accused of harassment.
c.
The hypothetical "reasonable person."
d.
The common law as modified by legislation.
9. The 1984 Supreme Court decision in Memphis Firefighters v. Stotts
a.
treated sexual harassment as a form of discrimination.
b.
upheld seniority over affirmative action.
c.
upheld the legality of hiring quotas.
d.
upheld the legality of mandatory drug testing.
10. In 1987, the Supreme Court affirmed, in the case of Johnson v. Transportation Agency, that
a.
affirmative action is unconstitutional.
b.
quotas based on considerations of race are unconstitutional.
c.
considerations of sex are permissible as one factor in deciding whom to promote.
d.
racially segregated schooling is unconstitutional.
11. Which of the following statements is accurate?
a.
Men cannot be victims of sexual harassment.
b.
The Supreme Court has established a hard and fast line between permissible and impermissible affirmative action plans.
c.
The law treats sexual harassment as a form of sexual discrimination.
d.
Differences in levels and types of education explain why, on the average, men earn more than women.
12. When investigators sent equally qualified young white and black men—all of them articulate and conventionally dressed—to apply for entry-level jobs in Chicago and Washington, D.C., the results clearly showed
a.
sexual discrimination against young African-American men.
b.
racial discrimination against young African-American men.
c.
sexual discrimination against young white men.
d.
racial discrimination against young white men.
13. What quality is more important in predicting who gets fired than job-performance ratings or even prior disciplinary history?
a.
race
b.
sexual orientation
c.
age
d.
gender
14. Male managers frequently assume that women
a.
will not place family demands above work considerations.
b.
possess the necessary drive to succeed in business.
c.
take negative feedback professionally rather than personally.
d.
are too emotional to be good managers.
15. What do affirmative action programs involve?
a.
Firms should prepare an oral equal-employment policy and an affirmative action commitment.
b.
Firms should appoint an administrative assistant to direct and implement their program and to publicize their policy and affirmative action commitment.
c.
Firms are expected to survey current
female and minority employment by department and job classification.
d.
Whenever underrepresentation of females or minorities is evident, firms are to try a little harder.
16. Fill in the blank. Today most large corporations not only accept the necessity of affirmative action but also find that _______________ benefits when they make themselves more diverse?
a.
the morale of the company
c.
the law department
b.
the bottom line
d.
the managers
17. Many Americans oppose what issue because they fear it will lead to illegal quotas, preferential treatment of African Americans and women, and even reverse discrimination against white men?
a.
affirmative action
c.
sexual harassment
b.
sexual diversity
d.
age discrimination
18. Over the last two decades, how many sexual-harassment claims have emerged?
a.
over 12,000 annually.
c.
over 25,000 annually.
b.
over 15,000 annually.
d.
over 50,000 annually.
19. There are two legal types of sexual harassment:
a.
male to female, female to male.
b.
male to male, female to female.
c.
boss to worker, worker to boss.
d.
“quid pro quo’’ and “hostile work environment.’’
20. To answer the question of who determines what is objectionable or offensive in sexual harassment, the courts use what kind of hypothetical person?
a.
reasonable person
c.
hysterical person
b.
sensual person
d.
management person
21. One message that sexual harassment conveys is that managers view women as
a.
assets.
b.
equals.
c.
high potentials.
d.
playthings.
22. What should a female employee do if she encounters sexual harassment?
a.
She must decide if she likes the attention.
b.
She should try to document it by keeping a record of what has occurred, who was involved, and when it happened.
c.
Keep it to herself and never tell a soul.
d.
Go on a talk show and tell her story.
23. According to Shaw and Barry, companies clearly have what kind of obligation to provide a work environment in which employees are free from sexual harassment?
a.
legal
b.
moral
c.
environmental
d.
personal
24. Opponents of comparable worth insist which one of these ideas support their position?
a.
Most women want a rigid schedule.
b.
Most women want the most challenging job.
c.
Most women have chosen the higher paying occupations.
d.
Most women have freely chosen the lower paying occupations.
25. Affirmative action, comparable worth, and sexual harassment are connected to
a.
job performance.
b.
job discrimination.
c.
job analysis.
d.
job description.
TRUE/FALSE
1. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin.
2. Experts distinguish two types of sexual harassment. "Hostile work environment" is one of them.
3. The Supreme Court has ruled that sexual favoritism is a form of sexual harassment and is therefore illegal.
4. To discriminate in employment is to make an adverse decision against an employee or job applicant based solely on his or her membership in a certain class.
5. The Supreme Court, in its 1978 ruling in the case of Bakke v. Regents of the University of California, upheld the University's right to reserve entrance places in its medical school for minorities.
6. The terms "affirmative action" and "reverse discrimination" are synonymous.
7. Kantians would repudiate sexual or racial job discrimination as disrespectful to our humanity.
8. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 allowed sexual and racial discrimination at work until overturned by the Supreme Court.
9. "Affirmative action" refers to programs taking the race and sex of employees and job candidates into account as part of an effort to correct imbalances in employment that exist as a result of past discrimination, either in the company itself or in the larger society.
10. The issue of comparable worth pits against each other two cherished American values: the ethic of nondiscrimination verses the free enterprise system.
11. The only true form of job discrimination is intentional and individual.
12. Catherine A. MacKinnon describes sexual harassment as sexual attention imposed on someone who is not in a position to refuse it.
13. An isolated or occasional remark or innuendo inevitably constitutes sexual harassment.
14. According to the Supreme Court, men cannot be the victims of sexual harassment.
15. The courts view sexual harassment as a kind of sexual discrimination.
16. The 1995 case Adarand Constructors v. Pena shows that, after years of disagreement, the Supreme Court is now unanimous on the issue of affirmative action.
17. Job discrimination involves prejudice, inaccurate stereotypes, or the assumption that a certain group is inferior and deserves unequal treatment.
18. Some companies view diversity in the workplace as a competitive advantage.
19. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all employers, both public and private, with twenty five or more employees.
20. Executive Order 10925 decreed that federal contractors should “make rigid quotas to ensure that applicants are employed without regard to their race, creed, color, or national origin.’’
21. Women entering male turf, or minority workers of either sex going into a predominantly white work environment, can find themselves uncomfortably being measured by a white male value system.
22. Statistics by themselves do not prove discrimination.
23. A survey shows that three out of four whites believe that African Americans and Hispanics are more likely than whites to prefer living on welfare, and a majority of whites also believe that African Americans and Hispanics are more likely to be lazy, unpatriotic, and prone to violence.
24. Anti-discrimination laws do not address the present-day effects of past discrimination.
25. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (later amended by the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972) prohibits all forms of discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin.
SHORT ANSWER
1. Job discrimination occurs if three conditions are met. What are they?
2. Job discrimination can be individual or intentional. What are two other forms that job discrimination can take?
3. What is some of the statistical evidence of job discrimination?
4. What is some of the attitudinal evidence of job discrimination?
5. What did the Supreme Court decide in 1954 in the case of Brown v. Board of Education?
6. What does Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act say?
7. EEOC lists steps to affirmative action. Name two of them.
8. Explain the importance of the 1978 case, Bakke v. Regents of the University of California.
9. What is the Supreme Court's current view of affirmative action (as evidenced by the Michigan cases Gratz and Grutter)?
10. Affirmative action should be distinguished from reverse discrimination. What is the difference?
11. What is the doctrine of comparable worth? On what grounds do opponents of comparable worth criticize it?
12. What evidence do we have that sexual harassment is harmful to people?
13. What is an example of strong evidence that racial or sexual discrimination exists?
14. What steps should a male or female employee take when encountering sexual harassment?
ESSAY
1. Explain in your own words the pros and cons of the against affirmative action that “affirmative action injures white men and violates their rights.”
2. Explain why sexual harassment is unethical considering two moral theories.
3. Explain why job discrimination is unethical considering two moral theories.
4. Is it unrealistic to imagine that there will be no sexual interaction between men and women in the workplace? Produce the reasoning on both sides of the argument.
5. Should the sexual orientation of gays and lesbians be protected against discrimination? Justify your answer.
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BUS 310 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer
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Week 11 Discussion 1
"Summary" Please respond to the following:
· Imagine you are at a party where you have to describe what human resource management is all about. Provide a brief summary to your fellow partygoers.
· Persuade a fellow business major why taking this course is in his/her best interest. What would you say to be persuasive?
Week 11 Discussion 2
Top of Form
"Course Wrap-Up" Please respond to the following:
· Describe what elements are most valuable to your learning in this course, such as reading the textbook, listening to lectures, discussions, writing papers, etc.
· Describe what you remember most about this course.
Bottom of Form
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BUS 322 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
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Week 11 DQ 1
"Looking Back" Please respond to the following:
• Create a simile or metaphor for what it is like to manage organizational behavior – one that would help someone with no knowledge of the field better understand what it is all about.
• Assess how what you have learned in this class could be used most effectively by someone with no professional connection to organizational behavior.
Week 11 DQ 2
"Looking Ahead" Please respond to the following:
• Determine the single most important lesson learned and how you will apply it in your current (or future) career.
• Predict the major challenges business will be facing in terms of organization behavior 20 years from now. Provide specific examples to support your response.
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BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz– StrayerBUS 335 Week 11 Quiz– Strayer
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Quiz 10 Chapter 14
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover.
True False
2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment.
True False
3. An employee's perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job.
True False
4. An employee's overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee.
True False
5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs.
True False
6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover.
True False
7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job.
True False
8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches.
True False
9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed.
True False
10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent.
True False
11. The types of employee turnover include ___________.
A. voluntary
B. discharge
C. downsizing
D. all of the above
12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________.
A. a site or plant closing
B. permanent layoff
C. poor employee performance
D. none of the above
13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______.
A. voluntary
B. involuntary
C. supplemental
D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing
14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________.
A. poor person/organization match
B. favorable labor market conditions
C. general, transferable KSAOs
D. none of the above
15. An employee's intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________.
A. perceived desirability of movement
B. perceived ease of movement
C. alternatives available to the employee
D. all of the above
16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____.
A. employees are highly embedded
B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs
C. labor markets are loose
D. all of the above
17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________.
A. overstaffing
B. understaffing
C. an appropriate staffing level
D. none of the above
18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations.
True False
19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys.
True False
20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy.
True False
21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee's immediate supervisor whenever possible.
True False
22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization.
True False
23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee's last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences.
True False
24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage.
True False
25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs.
True False
26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements.
True False
27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly.
True False
28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases.
True False
29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities.
True False
30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills.
True False
31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force.
True False
32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees.
A. rehiring rights
B. benefits
C. confidentiality agreements
D. all of the above
33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview?
A. The interviewer should be the employee's immediate supervisor.
B. There should be an unstructured interview format.
C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee's personnel file.
D. None of the above
34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?
A. Position analysis
B. Job rotation
C. Exit interview
D. Discharge notification
35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.
A. hiring inducements
B. rehiring costs
C. manager's time
D. more than one of the above
36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________.
A. HR staff induction costs
B. mentoring
C. severance pay
D. contagion
37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?
A. lowered replacement costs
B. savings from not replacing an employee
C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed
D. all of the above
38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover?
A. Accrued paid time off
B. Possibility of a lawsuit
C. Staffing costs for a new hire
D. Formal training
39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________.
A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations
B. decreased employee morale
C. higher unemployment insurance premiums
D. difficulty in attracting new employees
40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing?
A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones
B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations
C. lower payroll and benefit costs
D. all of the above
41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services.
True False
42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees.
True False
43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors.
True False
44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors.
True False
45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects.
True False
46. Of the factors that influence an employee's desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations.
True False
47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates.
True False
48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace.
True False
49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication.
True False
50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings.
True False
51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs.
True False
52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover.
True False
53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave.
True False
54. The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________.
A. redesign employee jobs
B. increase pay
C. improve job satisfaction
D. none of the above
55. Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________.
A. establish a lag pay policy for all employees
B. link rewards to retention behaviors
C. keeping core operations information secret
D. none of the above
56. Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving?
A. low training investment
B. strong KSAOs
C. retirement
D. low seniority
57. Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving?
A. little intellectual capital
B. high seniority
C. high performance
D. all of the above
58. Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____.
A. provide team-building
B. convince employees that there are few alternatives
C. offer "bundles" of HR practices that complement one another
D. demonstrate executive commitment to outreach
59. Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization?
A. Poor social environment at work
B. Low levels of job satisfaction
C. Employee shocks
D. All of these can be addressed by organizational policy
60. Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____.
A. providing deferred compensation
B. giving specific rewards for seniority
C. increasing pay levels to surpass the market
D. all of the above
61. Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____.
A. turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases
B. turnover is increased across the board
C. turnover is decreased across the board
D. turnover rates are largely unaffected
62. Work-life balance programs are an example of _____.
A. communal distribution
B. intrinsic rewards
C. instrumentality
D. a completely ineffective retention strategy
63. Research on organizational justice suggests that ____.
A. justice only influences turnover in highly industrialized Western countries
B. communication has little impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions
C. employees are typically well-informed about organizational policies
D. none of the above
64. To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____.
A. reduce headcount
B. provide deferred compensation
C. increase workloads
D. provide free stock to employees
65. Performance management systems enable organizations to ensure that an initial person/job match yields an effectively performing employee.
True False
66. One recommendation for an effective performance appraisal or management system is that appraisal criteria should be job-related, specific, and communicated in advance to the employee.
True False
67. Performance management systems are used primarily to detect individuals whose performance is unsatisfactory and should be terminated.
True False
68. Poor task performance is the result of insufficient ability, knowledge, skills, or motivation.
True False
69. In progressive discipline, termination is seen as a viable early option to avoid having to work through a potentially fruitless cycle of improving a low-ability worker.
True False
70. Employee termination is the final step in progressive discipline, and ideally it would never be necessary.
True False
71. As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____.
A. performance planning
B. performance appraisal
C. performance execution
D. progressive discipline
72. Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________.
A. evaluations should be in writing
B. the employee should receive timely feedback about the evaluation and an explanation for any outcome decision
C. there should be agreement among different raters in their evaluation of the employee's performance
D. all of the above
73. ______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description.
A. Citizenship
B. Task performance
C. (Low) Counterproductivity
D. All of the above
74. Which of the following is not a part of normal progressive discipline?
A. Give employees notice of the rules of conduct
B. Provide employees with alternative employment if performance problems persist
C. Allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct
D. Give employees the right to appeal a decision
75. Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense?
A. sabotage
B. theft
C. drug/alcohol abuse at work
D. all of the above
76. The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is _____________.
A. suspension or discharge
B. written reprimand
C. verbal reprimand
D. none of the above
77. Discharge turnover targets groups of employees and is also known as reduction in force. (RIF).
True False
78. Data shows dramatic decreases in organizational stock price following a downsizing, especially if the downsizing organization restructures assets during downsizing.
True False
79. Research shows that downsizing has negative impacts on employee morale and health, workgroup creativity and communication, and workforce quality.
True False
80. No-layoff policies cannot be implemented effectively by organizations.
True False
81. One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____.
A. increased payroll costs
B. decreases in employee health and motivation
C. most companies fail to downsize sufficiently
D. insufficient attention to issues of seniority
82. Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels?
A. Attrition
B. Retraining
C. Benefits reductions
D. Job sharing
83. In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____.
A. reductions in trust of management
B. stress among those who remain
C. reductions in workforce quality
D. all of the above
84. Legal experts usually advise organizations to avoid documenting performance problems because the "paper trail" is likely to just lead to problems in court.
True False
85. From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____.
A. organizationally relevant
B. sufficiently general to cover a variety of situations
C. communicated in advance to the employee
D. all of the above
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BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
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Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14
Business Process Management and Systems Development
Multiple Choice
1. __________ are the building blocks of each functional area, e.g., accounts receivable (A/R) and accounts payable (A/P)
a) IT procedures
b) Business processes
c) Business strategies
d) Competitive forces
3
2. __________ is a technology approach to implementing a business process, but it’s only part of the technology required to implement business processes.
a) MIS
b) BPM
c) SaaS
d) SOA
3
3. Microsoft International’s lack of standardized business processes and process documentation had a number of adverse impacts on the HR team. Which is not one of those adverse impacts?
a) Decrease in errors by new hires
b) Increased the time and cost to train new employees
c) Limited ability to review their business processes
d) Decreased business process efficiency
4. Which is not one of the benefits that Microsoft International achieved through the use of Visio and business process modeling?
a) Significant savings in labor hours through increased process efficiency
b) Decrease in the training time of newly hired employees
c) Improved decision making through visual process analysis
d) Improved relationships with supply chain partners
5. When you break it down, you see that a business process is actually __________.
a) a project of known scope with an assigned budget
b) a loosely defined approach to solving an unstructured problem
c) a series of individual tasks executed in a specific order
d) clearly defined and automated by software
6. A process has inputs and outputs that are __________, which is necessary so it can be managed.
a) qualitative
b) measurable
c) visual
d) summary metrics
7. Business processes integrate __________.
a) software and hardware
b) ISs and people
c) data and models
d) dashboards and scoreboards
8. The __________ spec, also called the technical spec, is important to managers because it identifies how the business process will be implemented in as much detail as possible.
a) evaluation
b) implementation
c) project
d) design
9. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because they determine whether the process is designed well from users’ perspective.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration
10. A(n) __________ is a set of technologies used for exchanging data between applications and for connecting processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners.
a) ERP
b) mashup
c) SOA
d) Web service
11. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because that is when analysts test whether the process performs its functions.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) technical acceptance
12. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are conducted by technical experts who attest that the process is integrated correctly with inputs and outputs of other processes and data sources and data stores
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration acceptance
13. In the short term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above
14. In the long term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above
15. After decades of business process reengineering attempts, organizations still have problems with their business operations. What are those problems?
a) They duplicate processes
b) They perform hundreds of non-core tasks that should be outsourced
c) They spend vast amounts on proprietary process-management software that's difficult to update
d) All of the above
16. British Telecom, United Airlines, and other companies that focused their BPM initiatives on process automation and cost savings had achieved significant operational efficiencies __________.
a) and higher market share
b) but lost their competitive edge and fell short of their performance targets
c) but only for a short time as competitors copied their efforts
d) because they were linked to their business strategies.
17. Changes to business apps that were needed prior to year 2000 were tedious and time-consuming because they were tightly coupled programs written in __________.
a) COBOL
b) Java
c) Visio
d) Flash
18. __________ components have minimal dependence on each other, which simplifies testing, maintenance and troubleshooting because problems are easy to isolate and unlikely to spread.
a) Tightly coupled
b) Hardwired
c) Loosely connected
d) COBOL
19. The advantage of the __________ is that any tier can be upgraded or replaced independently as business requirements or technology change.
a) tightly coupled architecture
b) middleware and graphical user-interface
c) three-tier software architecture
d) four-module tiered architecture
20. What was the underlying reason for the failure of the 2010 U.S. Census Bureau’s Handheld Project?
a) Failure of top management in the bureau to assess and mitigate risks of such a major project
b) Technical and database failures
c) Poor project management approach
d) Insufficient training of the census takers on how to use the handheld devices
21. Options for the acquisition of complex IT applications are all of the following except:
a) Built in-house
b) Custom-made by a vendor
c) Leased from an application service provider (ASP)
d) Out-of-the-box
22. For in-house development, the __________ option should be considered only for specialized IT apps for which components are not available because this option is expensive and slow.
a) build from components
b) build from scratch
c) integrating applications
d) prototyping
23. End-user development has risks and limitations, which include each of the following except:
a) End users may not be skilled enough in computers, so quality and cost may be jeopardized.
b) End users may not take time to document their work
c) End users may neglect proper security measures.
d) There may be an endless loop of prototype revisions.
24. Projects are managed by managing the triple constraints. Which is not one of those constraints?
a) approval
b) scope
c) time
d) budget
25. A project plan is specified in a __________.
a) resource pool
b) Gantt chart
c) work breakdown structure (WBS)
d) critical path
26. Project managers need to recognize the risk of __________, which is the piling up of small changes that by themselves are manageable, but collectively can cause significant project growth.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep
27. Project management includes three basic operations. Which is not one of those operations?
a) planning
b) budgeting
c) organizing
d) controlling
28. Project managers must manage the __________, which consists of tasks that must start and finish on schedule or the project will be delayed unless corrective action is taken.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep
29. The success of a project manager depends on all of the following except:
a) use of the critical path method and Gantt charts
b) clear, open, and timely communication
c) accurate, timely, and complete information
d) commitment from team members
30. The __________ is the traditional systems development method used by organizations for large IT projects such as IT infrastructure.
a) prototyping method
b) systems development life cycle (SDLC)
c) critical path method
d) sourcing method
31. Systems development involves __________, which is the revising of results of any development process when new information makes revision the smart thing to do.
a) iteration
b) scope creep
c) constraints
d) prototyping
32. The first stage of the SDLC is __________ to understand the business problem or opportunity.
a) systems analysis
b) systems investigation
c) prototyping
d) systems design
33. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to determine if the hardware, software, and communications components can be developed and/or acquired to solve the business problem.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) ROI
d) NPV
34. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to assess the skills and the training needed to use the new IS.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) organizational feasibility
d) behavioral feasibility
35. Covert resistance to a new IS from employees may take the form of __________.
a) sabotaging the new system by entering data incorrectly
b) continuing to do their jobs using their old methods
c) complaining about the new system for extended time
d) All of the above
36. __________ specifications include the design of outputs, inputs, processing, databases, telecommunications, controls, security, and IS jobs.
a) Physical design
b) Logical design
c) End-user
d) Systems analysis
37. When the system’s logical and physical designs specifications are agreed upon and approved by all participants, they __________.
a) should not be changed
b) should be flexible to changes
c) are used to develop the prototype
d) determine the budget and timeline for development
38. To add rigor to the programming process, programmers use __________ that improve the flow of the program by decomposing the computer code into modules.
a) GOTO statements
b) flowcharts
c) structured programming techniques
d) All of the above
39. Which is not a characteristic of program testing?
a) Testing verifies that computer code works correctly under various conditions.
b) Syntax errors are easier to find than logic errors because they prevent the program from running.
c) Logic errors are difficult to detect because they permit the program to run but result in incorrect output.
d) Proper testing can be done quickly and with little effort.
40. __________ conversion is the least expensive and highest risk IS conversion strategy because the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in time.
a) Parallel
b) Direct
c) Pilot
d) Phased
True/False
41. A business process, such as the credit approval process, accomplishes or produces something of value to the organization.
42. In order to manage a process, the process needs to have outputs that are measurable.
43. Process design is typically mapped and documented using a modeling tool, such as Microsoft Excel.
44. Not only is the development of the process important, the testing is equally as critical.
45. The BPM approach has its roots in just-in-time (JIT), which is the radical redesign of an organization's business processes.
46. The BPR and JIT approaches were both based on assumptions. And if those assumptions are not met, then they will fail to achieve the great expected results.
47. Many JIT implementations in the U.S. actually increased inventory costs because JIT is based on the assumption that warehousing costs are extremely high, as they were in Japan where JIT was initiated by Toyota.
48. When applying business process reengineering (BPR), managers first attempt to automate or semi-automate an organization's business processes.
49. An advantage of JIT is that it significantly decreases transportation and ordering costs.
50. In the 1990s, most organizations failed to achieve fundamental business process improvements because they attended a BPR seminar and then made mistakes in the implementation.
51. After decades of reengineering attempts, organizations no longer duplicate processes or perform non-core tasks that should be outsourced.
52. If organizations focus exclusively on automation and cost savings, they might achieve significant operational efficiencies but lose their competitive edge.
53. SOA is a confusing concept, even for practitioners, because SOA is mistakenly described like BPM or the definition is incomprehensible.
54. . An important aspect of SOA is the separation of the service interface (the what) from its implementation (the how).
55. SOA and BPM both focus on creating a more flexible IT architecture and optimizing the way actual work gets done.
56. Web services can connect processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners. The resulting integrated BPM systems are BPM mashups.
57. The goal of loose coupling of apps is to reduce dependencies between systems to improve flexibility and agility.
58. Project resources must be managed according to the Gantt chart.
59. The SDLC is a structured framework that consists of sequential processes by which information systems are developed.
60. For many organizations, custom software is more expensive than packaged applications. However, if a package does not closely fit the company‘s needs, the savings are often diluted when the information systems staff or consultants must extend the functionality of the purchased packages.
Short Answer
61. A __________ is the smallest unit of work and management accountability that is not split into more detailed steps.
62. __________ are pre-configured, ready-to-go integrations between different business software packages. They streamline information sharing among systems.
63. __________ refers to a broad range of software or services that enable communication or data exchange between applications across networks.
64. __________ testing is important because it determines whether the app meets the original business objectives and vision.
65. Large IT projects, especially ones that involve infrastructure, are developed according to the __________ methodology using several tools.
66. A __________ is a type of bar chart that shows a project schedule.
67. __________ is the growth of the project after the scope has been defined and is a serious issue because it can cause the project to fail.
68. The purpose of the __________ is to recognize which activities are on the critical path so that managers know where to focus their efforts.
69. __________ are information systems professionals who specialize in analyzing and designing information systems.
70. In a __________ conversion, the old system and the new system operate simultaneously for a period of time, which is the most expensive, but also the least risky approach.
Essay
71. Sketch or list the four stages of the business process lifecycle.
72. List and briefly describe the four tests performed on modules that have been installed before going live.
73. Identify the tiers of the Three-tier architecture. Describe or give an example of each tier.
74. List and describe the triple constraints of project management.
75. Select a standard business process, such as payroll. Draw a flowchart of an app for that business process.
Chapter 14 Global Ecology, Ethics, and Social Responsibility
Multiple Choice
1. Carbon footprintrefers to the amount of __________ emitted by a particular activity, industry, or value chain.
a) CO
b) CO2
c) CO2 and other GHGs
d) coal and biofuels
2. Carbon footprint is typically measured in __________.
a) metric tonne (ton) carbon dioxide equivalent
b) carbon dioxide equivalent per year
c) GHG
d) carbon monoxide emissions
3. The IT sector is responsible for an estimated __________ of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.
a) 0.10 to 0.20 percent
b) 0.50 percent
c) 2 to 3 percent
d) 10 percent
4. The IT sector can cut its carbon footprint cut in half by _____.
a) switching to low emission data centers
b) buying eco-friendly hard drives with considerably reduced power consumption
c) placing data center in cold climates
d) all of the above
5. What is global warming?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere's global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth's atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.
6. What is the greenhouse effect?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere's global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth's atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.
7. Better use of IT to shift away from energy-intensive work habits and lifestyles to low carbon habits and lifestyles depends on _____.
a) mobile technologies
b) commitment of senior managers
c) government policy, incentives for companies, and active participation of consumers
d) cloud computing
8. In environmental terms, a process or industry is __________ when it uses up natural resources faster than they can be replenished.
a) low carbon
b) unsustainable
c) green
d) renewable
9. The GSMA’s Green Power for Mobile (GPM) program has the goal of helping the mobile industry use renewable energy sources, such as __________ to power over 100,000 off-grid base stations in developing countries by 2012.
a) solar, wind, and sustainable biofuels
b) nuclear and solar
c) hydro, coal and wind
d) diesel and solar
10. MTN Group is the mobile telecom company operating in Africa and the Middle East. MTN has reduced GHG emissions and costs by using __________ to run mobile base stations.
a) diesel
b) soybean biofuel
c) wind energy
d) hydro power
11. Routers, switches, and modems operated by end users have been inefficient power guzzling machines mostly because __________.
a) they are built at the lowest possible cost
b) eco-friendly manufacturing did not exist
c) performance speeds were higher than green ones
d) such machines were more reliable than green ones
12. Why are mobile handsets a threat to the environment?
a) They consume a lot of electric power.
b) They emit infrared radiation.
c) The renewal rates of mobiles tend to be very slow.
d) Millions of phones are disposed of, but recycling practices are very poor.
13. The Internet is composed of huge numbers of power-consuming, heat-generating __________ running 24x7x365 worldwide and __________ that direct data packets over networks to their destination.
a) servers; routers
b) firewalls; switches
c) Web sites; databases
d) proxies; wireless access points
14. Which is not one of the characteristics or challenges associated with green IT?
a) Trying to quantify the cost savings of green IT may be impossible or non-applicable if cloud computing is used because the beneficiary of energy-efficient servers is not the company, but their outsourcer.
b) The Society for Information Management (SIM) surveyed CIOs and IT executives about their top IT and business priorities for 2010. Green IT was their top concern.
c) Green IT is a continuous process and requires long-term operating policies.
d) Green IT initiatives should be described in terms of reducing waste and inefficiency to get management’s attention.
15. Industry standards __________ change. Those standards keep ramping up and will again.
a) EPEAT and ENERGY STAR
b) Green STAR
c) SIM
d) EPA
16. The “Next Generation Data Center” strategy is based on the ability to deliver and support secure IT applications through __________.
a) mobile devices
b) wireless networks
c) green IT
d) virtualization
17. Data center virtualization means that servers are __________.
a) integrated so that they can be shared
b) condensed to increase processing power
c) consolidated so they are more secure
d) distributed to reduce cost
18. As part of RoHS sustainability regulations, EU members agreed that new __________ put on the market cannot contain six banned substances—including lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium—in quantities exceeding maximum concentration values.
a) automobile parts
b) packaging and building materials
c) electrical and electronic equipment
d) computers
19. Opponents of social media monitoring define it as __________.
a) an unfair advantage or exploitation
b) environmentally harmful
c) spying and intolerable invasions of privacy
d) a business security risk
20. Despite the challenges and lack of clear answers, ethics is important because it has become clear that relying on __________ alone to safeguard the community is insufficient.
a) corporate policy
b) the law
c) audit trails
d) moral behavior
21. Blogging to influence financial markets may be deemed by the FTC or SEC as a(n) __________, particularly when done by the CEO hiding his identity.
a) federal crime
b) invasion of privacy
c) insider trading
d) money laundering
22. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.
a) digital divide
b) Net neutrality
c) large carbon footprint
d) information overload
23. Bloomberg BusinessWeek (2008) reported that knowledge workers are distracted __________ at work—answering the phone, checking e-mail, responding to a text, or checking YouTube or Facebook.
a) every three minutes
b) every 15 minutes
c) every hour
d) at least twice a day
24. Which does not describe issues or characteristics of information quality?
a) Information quality is mandated by several legislations.
b) Information quality is a subjective measure of the utility, objectivity, and integrity of gathered information.
c) The most common problem that plagues online information sources is aged or outdated content.
d) Millions of individuals face information quality issues on a daily basis as they try to find information online.
25. Reduction in the total number of employees, reengineering of business processes, and the ability of lower-level employees to perform higher-level jobs may result in __________.
a) an increase in the number of special units
b) increased spans of control
c) centralization of authority
d) flatter organizational hierarchies
26. There is a trend toward __________ because the adaptable IT framework makes it much easier to manage issues of cost, scale and agility.
a) cloud computing
b) social media
c) fluid collaboration
d) service oriented architecture
27. New capabilities that are paving the way for new classes of Web apps include each of the following except:
a) location-awareness
b) online/offline modes
c) green IT
d) social connectivity
28. Which is not one of the trends in the future of IT in organizations?
a) Move into cloud computing
b) The new Web as a turning point
c) Devices become more specialized in the content they deliver
d) Conversation economy
29. As analytics become a commodity, the real differentiators are __________ and the ability to make productive decisions.
a) data quality
b) location-based services
c) social media
d) fluid collaboration
30. Technological and economic forces are prompting fresh approaches to systems development using __________ for competitive advantage.
a) in-house development
b) proprietary apps
c) open source software
d) fourth-generation languages or software
True/False
31. Tackling global warming by reducing emissions of greenhouse gases is high on the list of global challenges.
32. Carbon footprintrefers to the amount of infrared, CO2 and other GHGs emitted per day by a computing or mobile device.
33. Global warming is typically measured in MtCO2e, which stands for metric tonne carbon dioxide equivalent.
34. Annual emissions are generally measured in gigatonnes (billions of tonnes) of carbon dioxide equivalent per year (GtCO2e/y).
35. All carbon emissions worldwide make up the global carbon footprint.
36. The IT sector, including computing and telecommunications, is responsible for an estimated 10 percent of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.
37. IT can play a significant role in reducing GtCO2e/y in the transportation industries.
38. Innovative IT solutions can provide both a better quality of life and contribute to dramatically reduced emissions. That is, quality of life and reduced emissions do not require a tradeoff.
39. Business associations continue to fight against initiatives to reduce energy consumption and carbon emissions.
40. Warnings from the scientific community point to dangers from the ongoing buildup of CO2 and greenhouse gases mostly from the burning of fossil fuels and forests.
41. The greenhouse effect refers to the holding of heat within Earth's atmosphere by certain GHGs such as CO2, methane, and nitrous oxide that absorb infrared radiation.
42. Scientists predict that the increased temperature and sea level rise from global warming adversely affect the Earth’s biodiversity.
43. Scientists have determined that we should aim to stabilize the concentration of GHGs in the atmosphere in the range 450 to 550 parts per million (ppm), which is much lower than our present level.
44. The Keeling Curve tracks changes in the concentration of CO2 in the Earth's atmosphere at a Mauna Loa research station.
45. The Keeling curve has become the symbol of the ever-changing chemistry of the earth’s atmosphere and the associated global warming.
46. In 2008, The Climate Group found that the information and communications technology (ICT) is a minor sector in the struggle to reduce climate warming.
47. Transforming the way people and businesses use IT could reduce annual human-caused global emissions by 15 per cent by 2020.
48. IT sector’s own footprint of 10 per cent of global emissions could decrease by 2020 despite increased demand for smartphones and other hardware, software, and services.
49. IT has the unique ability to monitor and maximize energy efficiency both within and outside of its own industry sector to cut CO2 emissions.
50. From smart meters to smart grids, the Climate Group is working with members and partners, such as Google and Cisco, to build on the enormous potential and economic opportunities of IT in the low carbon economy.
51. The role of IT includes emission reduction and energy savings only in the IT sector itself.
52. “Smart” as in smart buildings means that wasted-energy and materials are minimized; and procurement, manufacturing, distribution, service, and recycling are done in an environmentally friendly manner.
53. Green,whether applied to energy, technology, or consumption of resources in general, refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.
54. Sustainability, the study and practice of eco-friendly computing resources, may be in companies’ best financial interests.
55. Questions about data access and capture, tracking and monitoring, privacy and profiling are examples of IT capabilities that have ethical considerations. And there are no easy or agreed to answers to these dilemmas.
56. Globalization, the Internet, and connectivity have the power to undermine moral responsibility because it becomes relatively easy to ignore the harm that might be done to others.
57. IT decreases span of control,increases productivity, and increases the need for technical experts.
58. The trend toward cloud computing allows any part of the IT to be sourced from the Internet, ultimately offering a more flexible model that aligns better with business objectives.
59. Collaboration across time zones and geographies cannot become a business norm until language and cultural differences are minimized.
60. With IT creating organizations that have the characteristics of elasticity—scalable, infinitely flexible, and adaptive—companies and your job will be defined by IT.
Short Answer
61. __________ refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.
62. __________ technology optimizes the capacity and processing power of servers so that fewer servers are needed to provide the necessary processing power.
63. __________ qualified products use less energy.
64. __________ or virtual work, offers many green benefits, including reducing rush-hour traffic, improving air quality, improving highway safety, and even improving healthcare.
65. __________ may be considered an integral component of social media strategies because it gives marketers the ability to discover public conversations about their brands and, if necessary, respond to posters directly or to their posts.
66. Free speech and __________ collide in a world populated by anonymous critics, vengeful people, those with personal agendas, and malcontents.
67. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.
68. The Web is undergoing its most significant overhaul since the emergence of __________, and will emerge as an increasingly attractive enterprise platform.
69. __________ are emerging as a rich source of information about consumer sentiment, preferences and desires.
70. As analytics become a commodity, data and decision quality will provide the real competitive __________ .
Essay
71. List two financial benefits associated with becoming a sustainable company, including green IT.
72. Identify and explain two myths about green IT.
73. What are the benefits of telework to individuals, organizations, and the community/society? Give two benefits to each.
74. Discuss the competing interests and tradeoffs at work when the issue is privacy.
75. Discuss the impacts of IT on each of the following: organizational structure, authority, power, and job content.
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BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
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Week 11 DQ 1
Summation
Please respond to the following:
• Reflecting back on everything you have learned in this course, discuss the single most important lesson any entrepreneur should apply in order to be successful. Explain your rationale.
• Summarize the lessons learned in this course in 140 characters or less (something you could post on Twitter).
Week 11 DQ 2
My Dream Business
Please respond to the following:
• Discuss the most innovative idea you can dream up for a new business. Explain why you think it would be successful.
• Discuss the major challenges you would face in running such a business and how you would expect to overcome them. Provide specific examples to support your response.
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BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer
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Week 11 DQ 1
"Operations Management Applications" Please respond to the following:
· Evaluate different operations management principles and techniques that can make businesses more profitable today.
· Select one service company of your choice and discuss at least three operations management challenges the company is facing.
· Suggest ways to confront the challenges and provide suggestions that can untimely improve sustainability in its value chain.
Week 11 DQ 2
"The Value Chain Concept" Please respond to the following:
· Describe a customer experience you have personally encountered where the goods or service or both were unsatisfactory (such as defective products, mistakes, poor service, and so on).
· Suggest ways for the organization to improve its goods / service. Determine the element(s) of operations management that must be reevaluated.
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BUS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
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Week 11 DQ 1
"Looking Back" Please respond to the following:
• Thinking back on everything you have learned in this course, what single lesson learned was the most surprising or interesting. Explain what made it so.
• Describe the most difficult concept or process addressed in this course. Create an analogy that would help someone encountering that concept or process for the first time to better understand what it is about.
Week 11 DQ 2
"Looking Ahead" Please respond to the following:
• Discuss how you can effectively apply what you have learned in this class even if you wind up in a position that has absolutely nothing to do with contracting with the federal government.
• Imagine yourself five years from now working for a firm (or perhaps head of your own firm) that gets 100% of its business from the federal government. Discuss what you would like the most and what you would like the least of being in such a position.
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BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer New
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"Transfer It" Please respond to the following:
• Propose two (2) applications of knowledge that you have learned in this course to your current or a future position.
• Create a list of three (3) best practices to follow in the field of contemporary business.
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BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
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Week 11 DQ 1
"Operations Management" Please respond to the following:
· Explain how this course has impacted your knowledge in operations management, and then determine which areas significantly affected your understanding on how operations strategy supports the business strategy.
Week 11 DQ 2
"Operations Manager" Please respond to the following:
· Explain three challenges that are present in an operations manager’s role, and then determine key methods in which you would mitigate those challenges. Provide specific examples to support your rationale.
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BUS 517 Final Exam – Strayer New
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Final Exam, Part 1: Chapters 6-8
Final Exam, Part 2, Chapters 9-12
Final Exam, Part 3: Chapters 13-14 and Chapter 16
Ch6
1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix
2. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
3. Arrows on an AON project network represent:
A. An activity
B. Project flow
C. Dependency
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct
4. When translated into a project network, a work package will become
A. A single activity
B. One or more activities
C. A milestone
D. A critical path
E. An arrow
5. Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure?
A. Dependencies
B. Sequencing
C. Interrelationships
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
6. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work packages
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix
7. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n)
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone
8. An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n)
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity
9. The critical path in a project network is the
A. Shortest path through the network
B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with the most difficult activities
D. Network path using the most resources
E. Network path with the most merge activities
10. A/an _________ activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it.
A. Parallel
B. Critical path
C. Burst
D. Merge
E. Independent
11. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n)
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone
12. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity
13. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n)
A. Critical path
B. Parallel path
C. Activity chain
D. Path
E. Dependent chain
14. An AON project network uses which of the following basic building blocks?
A. Arrows
B. Bars
C. Nodes
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
15. Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks?
A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed
B. Each activity must have a unique identification number
C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed
D. An activity identification number must be larger that that of any preceding activities
E. Networks flow from left to right
16. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical
17. ________ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity.
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical
18. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the
A. Earliest time's activities can begin
B. Earliest time's activities can be finished
C. Duration of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
19. The backward pass in project network calculations determines the
A. Latest time's activities can begin
B. Earliest time's activities can be finished
C. Critical path
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
20. Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity?
A. LS + DUR
B. ES + DUR
C. LF + DUR
D. ES + SL
E. LF + SL
21. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?
A. EF - DUR
B. ES - DUR
C. LF - DUR
D. ES - SL
E. LF - SLACK
22. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed
A. Total slack
B. Free slack
C. Critical float
D. Float pad
E. Slip pad
23. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?
A. LS - ES
B. LF - EF
C. LS - LF
D. LF - ES
E. Both A and B are correct
24. The laying pipe example in the text illustrates the concept of
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass
25. Using a special color copy machine for a tradeshow publication illustrates the concept of
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass
26. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first?
A. Check to see which activities cost the least
B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration
C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path
D. Check to see which activities have the most slack
E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk
27. Typically an activity on a project network represents
A. A single work package
B. One or more tasks from a work package
C. Several work packages
D. A sub-deliverable
E. A cost account
28. Project network logic errors include which of the following?
A. Activities with less than 1 day duration
B. Sequences such as "if test successful build prototype, if failure redesign"
C. A sequence such as B succeeds A, C succeeds B, A succeeds C
D. Both B and C are network logic errors
E. A, B, and C are all network logic errors
29. Which company utilized concurrent engineering to design a new line of cars and in the process completed its development six months ahead of schedule?
A. General Motors
B. Chrysler
C. Ford
D. Nissan
E. Toyota
30. The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as:
A. Hammock
B. Laddering
C. Lag
D. Cushion
E. Buffer
31. The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of which of the following type of lag?
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct
32. Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of
A. Start to Start lags
B. Start to Finish lags
C. Finish to Finish lags
D. Finish to Start lags
E. Any of these could be correct
33. If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype is built, which of the following type of lag exists?
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct
34. Which of the following represents an activity on an AOA project network?
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
35. Nodes on an AON project network represent:
A. An activity
B. An event
C. Responsibility
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct
36. A(n) ________ is an element in the project that consumes time.
________________________________________
37. The activity time estimates used to build a project network are derived from ________.
________________________________________
38. A ________ is an activity that has more than one predecessor.
________________________________________
39. In a ________ the delaying of any activity will delay the completion of the project by the same amount.
________________________________________
40. Activities that can take place at the same time if the manager wishes them to are called ________.
________________________________________
41. A (n) ________ represents a point in time when an activity is started or completed and does not consume time.
________________________________________
42. A (n) ________ has more than one successor activity.
________________________________________
43. The ________ approach to creating project networks has come to dominate most projects.
________________________________________
44. In a project network, ________ (recycling through a set of activities) is not permitted.
________________________________________
45. In a project network, ________ indicate precedence and flow.
________________________________________
46. The ________ method for creating project networks is sometimes called the Precedence Diagram Method.
________________________________________
47. Activities that must occur immediately before a given activity are called ________ activities.
________________________________________
48. Activities that must immediately follow a given activity are called ________ activities.
________________________________________
49. Activities that can occur while an activity is taking place are called ________ activities.
________________________________________
50. The ________ calculates the earliest times that activities can be started or finished.
________________________________________
51. The ________ calculates the critical path and determines how long an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
________________________________________
52. An activity is on the critical path if its ________ is the lowest in the network.
________________________________________
53. ________ can never be negative and applies only to the last activity in a single chain of activities.
________________________________________
54. A(n) ________ is the minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end.
________________________________________
55. In the ________ technique, an activity with a long duration is broken into smaller segments so that the following activities can begin sooner.
________________________________________
56. ____________ is defined as the difference between the EF of an activity and the ES of the activity that follows it.
________________________________________
57. ___________ reflects the likelihood the original critical path(s) will change once the project is initiated.
________________________________________
58. A ____________ lag exists if debug cannot begin until two days after coding has started and that coding must be completed four days before debug can be completed.
________________________________________
59. The _________ lag is the most typical type of lag that is encountered in developing networks.
________________________________________
60. A __________ activity is frequently used to identify the use of fixed resources or costs over a segment of the project.
________________________________________
61. An activity includes only one work package.
True False
62. Project networks are built using nodes and arrows.
True False
63. The WBS identifies dependencies, the sequencing of activities, and the timing of activities.
True False
64. The critical path is the shortest path through a network and indicates activities that cannot be delayed without delaying the project.
True False
65. An activity is an element of the project that always requires time but may or may not require resources.
True False
66. The two approaches used to develop project networks are AOA and AON.
True False
67. In an AOA network an activity is represented by a box.
Refer to Appendix 6.1
True False
68. In developing a project network, each activity should have a unique identification number that is smaller than the identification numbers of activities that follow it.
True False
69. In developing a project network, neither looping statements nor conditional statements are permitted.
True False
70. Experience suggests that when there are multiple starts, a common start node should not be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Similarly, a single project end node can be used to indicate a clear ending.
True False
71. Burst activities have more than one activity immediately following it (more than one dependency arrow flowing from it).
True False
72. It is acceptable for arrows to cross one another in a network diagram.
True False
73. The forward pass through a project network determines the critical path.
True False
74. The backward pass though a project network determines how long an activity can be delayed without impacting the completion date of the project.
True False
75. Different activities along the same path can have different total slack.
True False
76. By definition, the critical path always has zero slack.
True False
77. It is possible to have more than one critical path at the same time.
True False
78. Free slack applies to an entire project network.
True False
79. Gantt charts are popular because they represent an easy-to-understand, clear picture on a time-scaled horizon.
Refer to Figure 6.12
True False
80. Lags are used to break larger activities into smaller segments so that activities that follow can be started earlier.
True False
81. Only activities that occur at the end of a chain of activities can have free slack.
True False
82. Lags can be use to constrain the start and finish of an activity.
True False
83. Identify and discuss the two major reasons for the integration of work packages into the project network failing in actual practice.
84. What are the two approaches used to develop project networks and identify the differences between them?
85. What are the eight rules to follow in developing project networks?
86. In the network computation process what is a forward pass and what three things does it determine?
87. In the network computation process what is a backward pass and what four things does it determine?
88. What is total slack and how do you determine it?
89. What is a Gantt chart and what advantages does it have over project networks?
90. What is the laddering approach to project networks and why would you use this approach?
91. What is a lag and why would you need to use one?
92. What is a hammock activity and give an example?
93. What is the Concurrent Engineering Approach and why should project managers be aware of it?
94. Identify and briefly describe the four types of lags giving an example for each type.
ch7
1. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objectives is termed.
A. Random chance
B. A disaster
C. Risk
D. Hazard
E. Bad luck
2. The chances of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop
3. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop
4. The attempt to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots that may occur when a project is implemented is known as
A. Risk forecasting
B. Risk management
C. Contingency planning
D. Scenario analysis
E. Disaster protection
5. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?
A. Risk response development
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk identification
D. Risk tracking
E. Risk response control
6. The initial step in the risk management process is to
A. Determine the level of acceptable risk
B. Assess the risk potential
C. Identify the risks
D. Set aside budget funds for managing the risks
E. Appoint a risk manager
7. One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is to
A. Not all possibilities are considered
B. Participants are over-optimistic
C. Participants are over-pessimistic
D. Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce consequences.
E. Too much attention is given to past events
8. In the beginning the focus of risk management should be on risks that
A. Impact the whole project
B. Impact the critical path
C. Are known
D. Have the greatest cost impact
E. Have the greatest schedule impact
9. The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of
A. Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management
B. Murphy's Law
C. Proper use of critical thinking
D. Mismanaged risk control
E. Using historical records to assess risk
10. Which of the following would not be considered a threat?
A. Inflation
B. Meeting the project schedule
C. International disruptions
D. Economic conditions
E. Competition
11. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk
A. Risk profile
B. Questionnaire
C. Research
D. Query
E. Checklist
12. Which of the following is typically included in risk profiles?
A. Management aspects
B. Market aspects
C. Technical aspects
D. Both A and C are included
E. A, B, and C are all included
13. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except
A. Customers
B. Subcontractors
C. Competitors
D. Vendors
E. None of these are included
14. One of the keys to success in risk identification is
A. Critical thinking
B. Optimism
C. Pessimism
D. A "can do" attitude
E. All of these are correct
15. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____ analysis.
A. Probability
B. Scenario
C. Payback
D. Risk/reward
E. Impact
16. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project that answers developed from:
A. When the event might occur in the project
B. Chances of the event occurring
C. Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects
D. From previous, similar projects
E. Magnitude or severity of the event's impact
17. The risk management tool that is divided into three color-coded zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks is the risk
A. Assessment form
B. Responsibility matrix
C. Scenario assessment
D. Impact assessment
E. Risk severity matrix
18. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except
A. Likelihood of the risk event occurring
B. Potential impact of the risk event
C. Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event.
D. Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event
E. When the risk event may occur
19. The two scales of a risk severity matrix measure
A. Time, cost
B. Cost, schedule
C. Impact, cost
D. Time, impact
E. Likelihood, impact
20. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?
A. Ratio/range analysis
B. Decision tree
C. PERT simulation
D. PERT
E. All of these are probability analysis tools
21. This risk assessment tool is a variation of the risk severity matrix that includes the ease of detection for each of the identified risks.
A. PERT simulation
B. FMEA analysis
C. Ratio/range analysis
D. Probability analysis
E. Semi-quantitative analysis
22. Which of the following is not included in a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis?
A. Impact
B. Probability
C. Detection
D. Risk value
E. All of these are included
23. Which of the following is used to review activity and project risk?
A. NPV
B. S-curves
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
E. All of these can be used
24. Which of the following is not one of the potential responses to a specific risk event?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
25. A Risk Response Matrix contains all of the following except
A. Contingency plan
B. Trigger
C. Who is responsible?
D. Response
E. All of these are included in the matrix
26. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example of which of the following?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
27. The risk associated with one of the key members being stuck by lightning would most likely be handled by which of the following?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
28. Funds that are for identified risks that have a low probability of occurring and that decrease as the project progresses are called ______ reserves.
A. Management
B. Budget
C. Contingency
D. Padded
E. Just in case
29. Technical risks are:
A. Can often be the kind that cause the project to be shut down.
B. Problematic
C. Imposed duration dates
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
30. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called:
A. Management reserves
B. Change control
C. Contingency reserves
D. Risk register
E. Risk profiles
31. Which of the following is identified to cover major unforeseen risks and, hence, are applied to the total project?
A. Budget reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Time buffers
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
32. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except:
A. Track all changes that are to be implemented
B. Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally
C. Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget
D. Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures
E. All of the above are correct
33. The ________ impact of a risk event in a project is less if the event occurs earlier rather than later.
________________________________________
34. The likelihood of a risk event occurring ________ as a project goes through its life cycle.
________________________________________
35. The first step in the Risk Management process is ________.
________________________________________
36. Risk events such as inflation, market acceptance, and government regulations are referred to as ________.
________________________________________
37. A ________ is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project.
________________________________________
38. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is ________.
________________________________________
39. The ________ form identifies each risk event, the likelihood of it occurring, the potential impact, when it may occur, and the degree of difficulty in detecting it.
________________________________________
40. The ________ matrix is divided into red, yellow, and green zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks.
________________________________________
41. The vertical scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event.
________________________________________
42. The horizontal scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event.
________________________________________
43. In __________ the Risk Severity Matrix is extended by including the ease of detecting a risk event occurring.
________________________________________
44. In a ________, three different estimates of activity times are used to statistically predict the time an activity will take to complete.
________________________________________
45. The "Snapshot from Practice" case where Ellipsus Systems developed parallel prototype systems (WAP and JAVA) is an example of _________ a risk.
________________________________________
46. Testing a new project on a smaller isolated area prior to installing it for the entire organization is an example of ________ a risk.
________________________________________
47. Performance bonds, warranties, and insurance are examples of ________ a risk.
________________________________________
48. When the entertainment industry formed a consortium to define a common operating format for DVD it was ________ the risk.
________________________________________
49. If a risk event is very unlikely to occur the project owner would probably ________ the risk.
________________________________________
50. A ________ identifies what to do if a potential risk event actually occurs.
________________________________________
51. ________ reserves are identified for specific work packages and cover risks that have a low probability of occurring.
________________________________________
52. ________ reserves are controlled by the project manager and used to cover major unforeseen risks to the entire project.
________________________________________
53. A ____________ is an alternative that will be used if a possible foreseen risk event becomes a reality.
________________________________________
54. A ____________ is useful for summarizing how the project team plans to manage risks that have been identified.
________________________________________
55. The probability that a risk event will occur is higher during the initial stages of a project.
True False
56. Due to the impact over a long period of time, risk events that occur in the early stages of a project will have a greater cost impact than those that occur in later stages.
True False
57. During risk identification the smaller risks should be identified first because they will naturally lead to identifying the larger risks.
True False
58. One common mistake that is made early on in the risk identification process is to focus on consequences and not on the events that could produce consequences.
True False
59. Risks such as inflation and monetary exchange rates are not usually included in a project's risk assessment.
True False
60. The first step in the risk management process is Risk Assessment.
Refer to Figure 7.2
True False
61. A risk profile is a list of questions that have been developed and refined from previous, similar projects.
True False
62. The risk identification process should be limited to just the core project team.
True False
63. Since the goal is to find problems before they happen, the project manager should encourage critical thinking when it comes to risk identification.
True False
64. The Risk Severity Matrix rates risk events based upon schedule and cost.
Refer to Figure 7.7
True False
65. In a Risk Severity Matrix a green zone risk is considered inconsequential and ignored unless their status changes.
True False
66. The quality and credibility of the risk analysis process requires that different levels of risk probabilities and impacts be defined.
True False
67. Adopting proven technology instead of experimental technology is an example of mitigating a risk.
True False
68. The FMEA method calculates a risk value by assigning ease of detection ratings to the key risk elements.
True False
69. Performance bonds, warranties, and guarantees are financial instruments used to share risk.
True False
70. Fixed price contracts are an example of transferring risk from an owner to a contractor.
True False
71. Scheduling outdoor work in the summer, investing in up front safety training, and choosing high quality materials are examples of retaining a risk.
True False
72. Budget reserves are setup to cover identified risks associated with specific segments of a project while management reserves are set up to cover unidentified risks associated with the total project.
True False
73. Change management systems involve reporting, controlling, and recording changes to the project baseline.
True False
74. Project managers need to establish an environment in which participants feel comfortable raising concerns and admitting mistakes.
True False
75. Contingency funding is made up of budget reserves and management reserves.
True False
76. Describe the relationship between the likelihood of a risk event occurring and the cost of fixing the risk event as a project proceeds through its life cycle.
77. Identify and briefly describe the four steps in risk management.
78. Describe the process for identifying project risks.
79. What is a risk profile and what benefits does it provide to risk management?
80. Identify at least six items that may be included on a Risk Profile.
81. How should a risk assessment be conducted?
82. What is a Risk Severity Matrix and what does it do?
83. Identify and briefly describe the five ways to respond to identified risks.
84. What is the difference between budget reserves and management reserves?
85. What is Change Control Management and what function does it perform?
86. Identify and briefly describe the parts of a Risk Response Matrix and explain how one would be used.
87. Compare and contrast budget reserves and management reserves.
ch8
1. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand on resources is known as resource
A. Shifting
B. Effectiveness
C. Manipulating
D. Resource smoothing
E. Allocation
2. If resources are not adequate to meet peak demands, the resulting reschedule is termed
A. Resource-constrained scheduling
B. Time-constrained scheduling
C. Mandatory leveling
D. Project resource adjustment
E. Allocation
3. Which of the following is a potential consequence of failing to schedule limited resources?
A. Costly activity delays
B. Costly project delays
C. Difficulty in taking quick corrective action
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
4. When developing a new software package, the software must be designed, the code must be written, and the code must be tested. This is an example of a ______ constraint.
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Schedule
E. Time
5. Which of the following is not one of the types of project constraints?
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Time
E. All of these are types of project constraints
6. Sam the project engineer has been scheduled to run the product system test at the same time he is to build a marketing prototype. This is an example of a ______ constraint.
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time
7. Susan is to conduct environmental testing but the chamber cannot hold all the equipment that she wants to test. This is an example of a _________ constraint.
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time
8. All of the following are kinds of resource constraints except
A. Materials
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. All of the above are resource constraints
9. Sam is trying to order the concrete needed to continue his project. However, the supplier won't be able to deliver it until next week. This is an example of a _______ constraint.
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials
10. A special truck that George needs on his project has been scheduled on another project. This is a ______ constraint.
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials
11. Most of the scheduling methods available today require the project manager to classify the project as either _______ constrained or ______ constrained.
A. Time, quality
B. Quality, resource
C. Cost, time
D. Quality, cost
E. Time, resource
12. Regina's boss has told her that her project is very important. If the critical path is delayed, she will be given whatever she needs to get it back on schedule. Her project is ________ constrained.
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource
13. In reviewing the status of her project with top management, Shirley was told that there only were two programmers that she could use for her project. Her project is __________ constrained.
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource
14. All resource leveling techniques involve
A. Delaying noncritical activities
B. Delaying critical activities
C. Using negative slack
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
15. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource
A. Demands
B. Increases
C. Assumptions
D. Utilization
E. All are correct
16. The most widely used approach to apply heuristics, which have been found to consistently minimize project delay over a large variety of projects is the
A. Parallel method
B. Resource method
C. Materials
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
17. Resource leveling can provide
A. Lower peak demand
B. Reduced resource need over the life of the project
C. Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
18. Jan is trying to reallocate resources in a time-constrained project to create smoother resource utilization with a low level of risk. She should move to activities with the
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost
19. In a resource-constrained project, which of the following is most likely to be changed?
A. The completion date
B. The budget
C. Project quality
D. Both A and B are equally likely
E. A, B, and C are all equally likely
20. In a resource-constrained project, the first priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost
21. In a resource-constrained project the second priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost
22. The word Heuristics means
A. Resource constraints
B. Flexibility
C. The critical path changed
D. Parallel activities become sequential
E. Rule of thumb
23. Splitting an activity creates the following situation:
A. More people working on the same activity
B. There are possible startup and shutdown costs
C. A resource may be moved from one activity to another and then back
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
24. The U.S. Forest Service "snapshot from practice" illustrated the importance of
A. Time constraints
B. Resource constraints
C. Cost constraints
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
25. More common problems associated with managing multiproject resources include all of the following except
A. Inefficient resource utilization
B. Delays in one project cause delays in other projects
C. Reducing "downtime" created by lack of tasks to perform
D. Resource bottlenecks
E. All of these are common problems
26. When a company will reduce the number of projects they have to manage internally to only core projects and send noncritical projects to contractors and consulting firms this is called
A. Outsourcing
B. Redistribution of projects
C. Project allocation
D. Task sharing
E. Both B and D are correct
27. Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multiproject resources?
A. Overall schedule slippage
B. Inefficient resource utilization
C. Resource bottlenecks
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
28. In a resource-constrained project the third priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost
29. In the Botanical Garden example, which of the following was used to solve the resource problem?
A. Resource allocation
B. Smoothing resource demand
C. The parallel method
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
30. Project budgets are developed by time-phasing which of the following?
A. Resource schedules
B. Work packages
C. The network diagram
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
31. A project budget report is showing our project as spending $35,000 against a budgeted amount of $40,000. Which of the following is true?
A. We are spending less than we should for the project
B. We are doing a good job managing the project
C. We should check to see if all the bills have been paid
D. Both A and B are correct
E. We can't be sure how the project is going
32. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand and, thus, increase resource utilization is called _______ leveling.
________________________________________
33. A(n) ________ constraint addresses the sequence in which project activities must occur.
________________________________________
34. Having one person responsible for performing several activities, all due at the same time, is an example of a(n) ________ constraint.
________________________________________
35. Trying to renovate a ship compartment that is too small for more than one person is an example of a(n) ________ constraint.
________________________________________
36. A shortage of programmers to write software is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint.
________________________________________
37. The shortage of computer chips to produce a circuit board is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint.
________________________________________
38. If three copiers are needed to produce a final report on time and only two are available, the project is facing a(n) ________ type of resource constraint.
________________________________________
39. Hector wants to bring on another programmer to work on the project but the company does not have anyone who has the needed skills. Hector's project is facing a(n) ________ constraint.
________________________________________
40. In order that the new product is on the shelf for the Christmas buying season, the development of the new product would be classified as a(n) ________ constrained project.
________________________________________
41. Beth has two engineers assigned to her project and cannot get any more even if it means slipping the due date on her project. She is managing a(n) ________ constrained project.
________________________________________
42. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using ________ to reduce peak demand.
________________________________________
43. Scheduling activities in a constrained project typically has ________ as the top heuristic rule.
________________________________________
44. The ________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristic rules to scheduling activities in a constrained project.
________________________________________
45. When using the ________ scheduling technique, the work in an activity is interrupted to work on another activity and is then resumed at a later point in time.
________________________________________
46. In scheduling resource-constrained projects, _________ are typically used rather than optimum mathematical solutions.
________________________________________
47. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that project duration is fixed and resources are flexible.
________________________________________
48. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that a specific resource is fixed and the duration of the project is flexible.
________________________________________
49. Start-up and shutdown costs are major considerations when using the ________________ scheduling technique.
________________________________________
50. To deal with problems related to having several concurrent projects, companies are creating ________ to oversee the scheduling of resources across multiple projects.
________________________________________
51. Many companies are using ________ from contractors and consultants as a means of dealing with the peaks and valleys of resource allocation among projects.
________________________________________
52. The ______________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristics in resource-constrained projects.
________________________________________
53. The ability to more efficiently manage the ebbs and flows of project work is one of the major driving forces behind ____________ today.
________________________________________
54. Without a time-phased __________ good project schedule and cost control are impossible.
________________________________________
55. A project cost baseline is also called __________.
________________________________________
56. The sequence of (1) pour foundation, (2) build frame, and (3) cover roof is a type of physical constraint.
True False
57. Too many parallel activities for one individual are an example of a resource constraint.
True False
58. A project that is not resource-constrained is time-constrained.
True False
59. Resource leveling is only used on projects which are resource-constrained.
True False
60. Resource Bottlenecks are one of the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules.
True False
61. The inability to get more than two earth movers on a construction site at the same time is an example of a physical constraint.
True False
62. The most obvious and important kind of resource constraint is a lack of materials.
True False
63. Having too few programmers and too many engineers is an example of a people resource constraint.
True False
64. If a project needs one earth-mover six months from now and the organization has four such machines, there is no equipment resource constraint.
True False
65. A lack of readily available engineers is a technical constraint.
True False
66. All projects are usually either time-constrained or resource-constrained.
True False
67. To determine if a project is time-constrained or resource-constrained you would consult the project priority matrix.
True False
68. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on the optimal utilization of resources.
True False
69. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using positive slack to smooth out the resource requirements.
True False
70. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource utilization.
True False
71. Scheduling resource-constrained projects focuses on completing the project as soon as possible under the given constraints.
True False
72. Heuristics are used in resource-constrained projects to develop the optimal schedule.
True False
73. The top priority in using heuristics to allocate scare resources is those activities with the smallest duration.
True False
74. The critical path in a resource-constrained schedule can be a group of disjointed, unconnected activities.
True False
75. Splitting is a scheduling technique used to get a better schedule or better resource utilization.
True False
76. Without a time-phased budget good project schedule and cost control are impossible.
True False
77. Many companies are using outsourcing as a means for dealing with their resource allocation problems associated with managing multiproject resources.
True False
78. Identify and briefly describe the three types of project constraints.
79. What is the difference in project goals when using resource leveling on time-constrained projects and using it on resource-constrained projects?
80. Identify the potential impacts of project constraints.
81. Identify and give an example of the three types of resource constraints.
82. Identify and briefly describe the two classifications of scheduling problems.
83. What are the disadvantages of resource leveling?
84. Why would a project manager use heuristics rather than a mathematical solution to level resources?
85. What are the three most common heuristics (in order of priority) used to allocate resources to project activities?
86. Describe the parallel method for applying heuristics to the allocation of project resources.
87. Why should project managers be cautious about using the splitting scheduling technique?
88. Identify and briefly discuss the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules.
89. Identify and briefly describe the potential impacts of resource-constrained scheduling.
90. If your project has spent $50,000 versus a budget of $45,000 and it is a week ahead of schedule, is it a certainty that your project is doing well?
ch9
1. The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically advanced software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by:
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts
2. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances create pressure on developing projects rapidly. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by:
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts
3. A contractor finished a bridge across a lake 18 months early and received more than $6 million for the early completion. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by:
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts
4. Adverse weather, design flaws, and equipment breakdown can create negative slack. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by:
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts
5. Total project costs include all of the following except:
A. Supervision
B. Administration
C. Project manager's salary
D. Interest
E. All of these are included in total project costs
6. Which of the following is not considered a project indirect cost?
A. Supervision
B. Consultants
C. Equipment
D. Interest
E. All of these are considered project indirect costs
7. Project costs are generally classified as ____ costs.
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
8. Low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing an activity under normal conditions are supported by ____ time.
A. Normal
B. Budget
C. Optimized
D. Expected
E. Target
9. The shortest possible time an activity can be completed realistically is called ___ time.
A. Expedited
B. Accelerated
C. Crash
D. Optimistic
E. Optimal
10. The most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines is to
A. Reduce or scale back the scope of the project.
B. Decrease the critical paths
C. Crash all elements of the project
D. Change the time to market statement
E. B, and C are correct
11. ____ costs are incurred when completing an activity in its realistically shortest time.
A. Normal
B. Reserve
C. Crash
D. Accelerated
E. Expedited
12. An activity's crash costs include ____ costs.
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
13. Cost slope can be determined by dividing the
A. Run by the rise
B. Rise by the run
C. Crash cost by the normal cost
D. Normal cost by the crash cost
E. Both B and C are correct
14. The less steep the cost slope of an activity, the
A. Less it costs to shorten one time period
B. More it costs to shorten one time period
C. Smaller the crash time
D. Larger the crash time
E. Cannot be determined by the information given
15. Which of the following correctly calculates an activity's cost slope?
A. (normal cost-crash cost)/(normal time-crash time)
B. (crash cost-normal cost)/(normal time-crash time)
C. (normal time-crash time)/(crash cost-normal cost)
D. (normal time-crash time)/(normal cost-crash cost)
E. (crash cost-normal cost)/(crash time-normal time)
16. An activity's cost slope represents an activity's
A. Total cost per unit of time
B. Cost per unit of time
C. Indirect cost per unit of time
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
17. In selecting the best activity to reduce you would first select the activity with the
A. Earliest start time
B. Steepest slope
C. Least steep slope
D. Longest duration
E. Largest crash time
18. The optimum duration for a project is at the point where:
A. Direct costs are the lowest
B. Indirect costs are the lowest
C. Direct costs equal indirect costs
D. Total project costs are the lowest
E. The project changes from time-constrained to resource-constrained
19. Creating a Project Cost-Duration graph is useful:
A. During the pre-project planning phase
B. After the project has begun
C. After the completion of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
20. Crashing a project should occur:
A. As early as possible
B. As late as possible
C. Midway through the project
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Cannot be determined with the information given
21. If a network has several critical or near-critical paths it is deemed to be:
A. Well planned
B. The lowest cost alternative
C. Resource-constrained
D. Sensitive
E. Insensitive
22. The project direct-cost line near the normal point is usually:
A. Sloped steeply
B. Relatively flat
C. Rising
D. Falling
E. Gently sloped
23. The relationship between cost and time for various durations is assumed to be:
A. Linear
B. Curvilinear
C. Variable
D. Conversely related
E. Exponentially related
24. A common method for shortening the project time is to:
A. Adding resources
B. Schedule overtime
C. Subcontract an activity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
25. A positive situation where moving toward the optimum time can result in very real, large savings—this occurs when the network is:
A. Insensitive
B. Sensitive
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Shifting to the critical chain
E. Implementing a fast-tracking system
26. Which of the following is/are included in a Project Cost-Duration Graph?
A. Total indirect cost
B. Total direct cost
C. Total project cost
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
27. One way of reducing project costs is identifying tasks that _________ can do themselves.
A. Vendors
B. Suppliers
C. Customers
D. Company employees
E. Project teams
28. The most common method for shortening project time is to
A. Subcontract activities
B. Compromise the quality
C. Add additional staff and equipment
D. Work overtime
E. Reduce the project scope
29. Which of the following is not one of the more commonly used options for cutting project costs?
A. Reduce project scope
B. Have owner take more responsibility
C. Moving the completion date further out
D. Brainstorming cost savings options
E. Outsourcing project activities
30. Which of the following is the most common method for shortening project time?
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality
31. According to Brooks' Law, adding more people to a late project is most likely to have which of the following impact?
A. Keep the project from slipping any further
B. Get the project back on schedule
C. Make the project slips further
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of these relate to Brooks' Law
32. Which of the following is the easiest method for shortening project time?
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality
33. Which of the following is not one of the techniques for accelerating project completion?
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Establish a core team
C. Do it twice—fast and correctly
D. Reduce project scope
E. All of these are acceptable techniques
34. When the project team is salaried, which of the following is the preferred choice for accelerating project completion?
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Work longer hours
E. Both C and D are preferred choices
35. The Snapshot from Practice "Cell-Phone Wars" is an excellent example of reducing project duration due to:
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts
36. When a politician makes a public statement that a new building will be available in two years, a(n) ________ duration has reduced the project duration.
________________________________________
37. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances combine to create a(n) ________ imposed project duration date.
________________________________________
38. The Snapshot from Practice which detailed the Northridge earthquake demonstrated the importance of reducing a project's ______.
________________________________________
39. Sometimes very high ________ costs are recognized before a project begins and reducing these costs through shorter project durations becomes a high priority.
________________________________________
40. The ________ project cost is the sum of the indirect and direct costs.
________________________________________
41. Costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest are examples of ________ project costs.
________________________________________
42. Costs such as labor, materials, equipment, or contractors are examples of ________ project costs.
________________________________________
43. Direct costs are assignable directly to a project ________.
________________________________________
44. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should ________ the cost of the activity.
________________________________________
45. To shorten the duration of a project the project manager should limit the choices of activities to just those which ________.
________________________________________
46. The ________ time for an activity represents low-costs, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under typical conditions.
________________________________________
47. Shortening an activity is called ________.
________________________________________
48. The direct costs for completing an activity as early as possible is called its ________.
________________________________________
49. An activity's ________ is calculated by dividing the rise by the run.
________________________________________
50. Subtracting an activity's normal cost from the crash cost will calculate an activity's ________.
________________________________________
51. Subtracting an activity's crash time from the normal time will calculate an activity's ________.
________________________________________
52. When considering whether to move the project to its optimum cost-time position, the manager should also consider ________.
________________________________________
53. A network is considered to be ________ if it has a predominate critical path with no other path close in terms of slack.
________________________________________
54. The easiest way to add more resources to a project is not to add more people, but to schedule ________.
________________________________________
55. According to ________, adding more manpower to a late software project makes it later.
________________________________________
56. The easiest way to add more labor to a project is not to add more people, but to add ___________.
________________________________________
57. ____________ is the rearranging of the project network logic so that critical activities are done in parallel rather than sequentially.
________________________________________
58. ___________ is probably the most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines.
________________________________________
59. In the "I'll Bet You..." Snapshot from Practice, the draftsman won ___________ for making a very difficult deadline.
________________________________________
60. A rule of thumb for moderate- to high-technology firms is that a six-month delay in bringing a product to market can result in a gross profit loss of about 35 percent.
True False
61. Imposed project durations almost always leads to a higher-cost project than one planned with detailed scheduling of all the project's activities.
True False
62. Managers have several effective methods for crashing specific project activities when resources are not constrained.
True False
63. Indirect costs generally represent overhead costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest.
True False
64. The total cost for each possible duration of a project is the sum of labor, materials, and equipment.
True False
65. Direct costs are so named because they can be assigned directly to a work package and activity.
True False
66. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should add to the costs of the activity.
True False
67. The sum of the costs of all the work packages represents the total direct costs for the project.
True False
68. Incentive contracts can make reduction of project time rewarding—usually for both the project contractor and owner.
True False
69. Shortening an activity's duration is termed crashing.
True False
70. Expected time for an activity represents low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under anticipated conditions.
True False
71. Crash cost is the incremental cost incurred when an activity is reduced in duration.
True False
72. The cost slope of an activity is calculated by dividing the run by the rise.
True False
73. Crash time is the greatest time reduction possible under realistic conditions.
True False
74. The higher the slope of an activity the greater the cost to reduce its duration.
True False
75. Creating a Project Cost-Duration Graph in the pre-project planning phase without an imposed duration is the best time to use this tool.
True False
76. Crashing a more expensive activity may be wise if fewer inherent risks are involved.
True False
77. A project network is classified as sensitive if it has a large number of interacting paths.
True False
78. Collecting crash times for a moderate-size project is relatively easy.
True False
79. While the relationship between normal and crash times is really curvilinear, the assumption that it is linear is seldom a concern for practicing managers.
True False
80. The accuracy of crash times and costs is frequently rough at best, when compared with normal time and cost.
True False
81. One of the advantages of using a Project Cost-Duration Graph is that it keeps the importance of indirect costs in the forefront of decision making.
True False
82. Identify and briefly describe five reasons for attempting to reduce the duration of a project.
83. Identify and give an example for both of the major categories that make up project costs.
84. Draw a typical Project Cost-Duration Graph and label the key elements.
85. Why is the project duration with the lowest direct costs seldom the optimum duration for a project?
86. Given an equal level of risk and the need to reduce overall project duration, why would you not select the activity with the lowest slope in the entire project network to crash first?
87. What is crashing and include a discussion of crash time and crash cost?
88. How would you calculate an activity's slope and what does it represent?
89. Given that an activity's normal time and cost are ten days and $400, and its crash time is five days and $800, what is the activity's slope?
90. What do we mean when we say that a project network is sensitive and why is that important to a project manager?
91. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are not constrained.
92. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are constrained or the budget is severely constrained.
93. What are the benefits to using a Project Cost-Duration Graph to assist in comparing any proposed alternative or change with the current baseline?
94. What is Critical-chain (C-C) project management and why can it be of benefit to project managers?
ch10
1. Project success or failure often depends upon the contributions of all of the following except:
A. Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Contractors
D. Competitors
E. Top management
2. Project leadership is about coping with:
A. Formulating plans and objectives
B. Monitoring results against plans
C. Change
D. Taking corrective action when necessary
E. All of these are part of leadership
3. The difference between project management and project leadership is that project management includes:
A. Recognizing the need to alter direction
B. Aligning people to meet new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Motivating people to meet new objectives
E. All of these are leadership functions
4. Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
E. All of these are only required to a minor extent
5. Which of the following requires more management rather than leadership?
A. Taking corrective action
B. Changes in project scope
C. Technological stalemates
D. Breakdowns in coordination between people
E. All of these require the same level of management
6. In conducting meetings an effective project manager will take the role of a:
A. Parliamentarian
B. Master of ceremonies
C. Conductor
D. Cattle herder
E. Teacher
7. Project managers often find themselves negotiating with all the following except:
A. Vendors
B. Functional managers
C. Consultants
D. Competitors
E. All of these are correct
8. Groups such as human resources, information systems, purchasing agents, and maintenance are typically classified as:
A. Project managers
B. Administrative support
C. Functional managers
D. Project sponsors
E. Customers
9. The closest relationships in a project network of relationships are with:
A. Other project managers
B. Project sponsors
C. Top management
D. Customers
E. Project team members
10. The second ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except:
A. Other project managers
B. Customers
C. Functional managers
D. Top management
E. Project sponsors
11. The outer ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except:
A. Other organizations
B. Customers
C. Contractors
D. Government agencies
E. Administrative support
12. The old-fashion view of managing projects emphasized which of the following?
A. Planning
B. Directing
C. Controlling
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
13. The new perspective of project management emphasizes which of the following?
A. Financial control
B. Managing project stakeholders
C. Schedule/cost tradeoffs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
14. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of:
A. Supply-demand
B. Brooks's law
C. Reciprocity
D. A squeaky wheel
E. Risk-reward
15. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical correctness are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
16. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, resources, assistance, cooperation, and information are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
17. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, acceptance, personal support, and understanding are part of _______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
18. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, advancement, recognition, visibility, and networks are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
19. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, learning, ownership, and gratitude are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
20. In mapping dependencies for a project, the project manager should:
A. Overestimate
B. Underestimate
C. Precisely estimate
D. Either B or C are correct
E. None of these are correct
21. Which of the following is used at Hewlett-Packard for building relationships with key players that will determine a project's success?
A. MBO
B. MBA
C. GIGO
D. MBWA
E. PMI
22. In the Snapshot from Practice "Managing Expectations", one of the key aspects to project success was stated to be the managing of stakeholder:
A. Relations
B. Expectations
C. Involvement
D. Influence
E. Input
23. In the Research Highlight, Ancona and Caldwell identified key patterns of activity which contribute to creating a high performance team. Which of the following is not one of those?
A. Negotiator
B. Ambassador
C. Task coordinator
D. Scouts
E. Guard
24. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of leading by example?
A. Priorities
B. Ethics
C. Urgency
D. Cooperation
E. Power
25. The traits of successful project managers include all of the following except:
A. Pessimist
B. Proactive
C. Skillful politician
D. Effective time management
E. Personal integrity
26. Unlike project leadership, project management is about coping with:
A. Change
B. Aligning people to any new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Recognizing the need to alter plans
E. All of these are part of project management
27. In a survey of project managers, approximately what percentage reported that they encountered ethical issues in their work?
A. 22 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 81 percent
E. 100 percent
28. The key to exercising influence is:
A. To make few mistakes
B. To build trust
C. To build a network of top level people
D. To understand the political connections within the organization
E. To make friends with everyone
29. Which of the following is not one of the distinguishing traits of character?
A. Openness
B. Consistency
C. Empathetic
D. Sense of purpose
E. Hard work
30. Which of the following would be defined as the ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one 's self and others?
A. Emotional stability
B. Coolness under pressure
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Empathy
E. Management sensitivity
31. Management is about coping with complexity; ________ is about coping with change.
________________________________________
32. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of ________.
________________________________________
33. ________ naturally compete with each other for resources and the support of top management.
________________________________________
34. ________ champion the project and uses their influence to gain approval of the project.
________________________________________
35. ________ define the scope of the project, and ultimate project success rests in their satisfaction.
________________________________________
36. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of ________.
________________________________________
37. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager's ability to contribute to others accomplishing their work.
________________________________________
38. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager's ability to enhance others' positions within the organization.
________________________________________
39. Perhaps the most powerful form of organization currency is based upon ________.
________________________________________
40. The essence of the ________ related form of organization currency is forming a relationship that transcends normal professional boundaries and extends into the realm of friendship.
________________________________________
41. The ______ related form of organization currency deals with individual needs and an overriding sense of self-esteem.
________________________________________
42. In building a social network it is always better to ________ the dependencies on which the success of a project is based.
________________________________________
43. In the ________ style of management, managers spend the majority of their time outside their offices.
________________________________________
44. All stakeholders have ________ about the schedule, cost, and project benefits that the project manager needs to listen for, understand, and manage.
________________________________________
45. Research consistently points out that project success is strongly affected by the degree to which a project has the support of ______.
________________________________________
46. The Ancona and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as aimed at representing the team to others and protecting the team from interference.
________________________________________
47. The Ancon and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as those where the manager goes out from the team to bring back information about what else is going on in the organization.
________________________________________
48. In the ________ management style, the project manager's behavior symbolizes how other people should work on the project.
________________________________________
49. In a survey of project managers, 81 percent reported that they encounter ________ issues in their work.
________________________________________
50. Successful project managers not only need to be influential, they also need to exercise influence in a manner that builds and sustains the ________ of others.
________________________________________
51. We must have confidence in the ____________ of individuals before we really trust them.
________________________________________
52. Project managers have to see _________________ and how their project fits within the larger strategy of their firm.
________________________________________
53. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one 's self and others is called ____________.
________________________________________
54. Strong leadership, while usually desirable, is not always necessary to successfully.
True False
55. The higher the degree of uncertainty encountered on a project, the more management is required.
True False
56. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of a sports coach.
True False
57. Successful project managers tend to adopt a hands-on approach to managing projects.
True False
58. One of the things that distinguish project management from regular management is the sheer breadth and complexity of the relationships that need to be managed.
True False
59. In some projects contractors may do all the work with the project team merely coordinating their contributions.
True False
60. One advantage of creating a dedicated project team is that it reduces dependencies, especially within the organization.
True False
61. A successful project manager must build a cooperative, mutually beneficial network based on the age-old maxim: "Quid pro quo."
True False
62. Relationship-related currencies include: resources, cooperation, assistance, and information.
Refer to Table 10.1
True False
63. Position-related currencies include: vision, excellence, and ethical correctness.
Refer to Table 10.1
True False
64. Personal-related currencies include: challenge/learning, ownership/involvement, and gratitude.
Refer to Table 10.1
True False
65. Position-related currencies include: advancement, recognition, visibility, and network/contacts.
Refer to Table 10.1
True False
66. The first step to building a social network is identifying those on whom the project depends for success.
True False
67. Many poor-performing project managers are guilty of management by wandering around.
True False
68. Good time management for project managers includes initiating contact with key stakeholders only when there is a valid issue to deal with.
True False
69. "Guard" activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at representing the project team to others and protecting the team from interference.
Refer to Research Highlight Page 352
True False
70. "Ambassador" activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at going out from the team to bring back information about what is going on elsewhere in the organization.
Refer to Research Highlight on page 352
True False
71. When giving a status report to superiors, project managers must present the most positive image possible including, if necessary, stretching the truth.
True False
72. To be effective, project managers must "walk the talk", i.e.; lead by example.
True False
73. In a survey of project managers, more than 81 percent reported that they encounter ethical issues in their work.
True False
74. Character alone will engender trust.
True False
75. One problem new project managers experience is that it takes time to establish a sense of character and competency.
True False
76. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one 's self and others is known as emotional intelligence.
Refer to Research Highlight on page 361
True False
77. "Managing a project and leading a project is essentially the same thing." Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.
78. "Strong leadership is not always necessary to successfully complete a project." Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.
79. Identify at least five of the typical group dependencies that project managers must manage.
80. Identify and briefly describe the five commonly traded organizational currencies.
81. What is "management by wandering around" and why would it be useful to project managers?
82. Identify and briefly describe the four patterns of activity identified by Ancona and Caldwell which lead to creating a high performance team.
83. Identify five of the six aspects of leading by example.
84. Identify and briefly discuss the key to exercising influence within an organization.
85. Identify five of the six contradictions that an effective project manger must face.
86. Identify five of the eight traits associated with being a successful project manager.
87. Identify and compare and contrast The old-fashioned view of managing projects and the new perspective of managing projects.
88. "All the eight traits of being a good project manager can be trained." Agree or Disagree and support your conclusion.
ch11
1. The essence of positive synergy can be found in the phrase:
A. Front of ship sink---back of ship sink
B. There is no "I" in team
C. Two heads are better than one
D. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts
E. If it doesn't kill you, it makes you stronger
2. Which of the following is commonly associated with high-performing project teams?
A. Risk taking is controlled and not allowed to jeopardize the overall project
B. Roles and specific responsibilities are well-defined
C. A degree of competition among team members is encouraged
D. Mistakes are viewed as opportunities for learning
E. All of these are associated with high-performing teams
3. During which stage of team development do members accept that they are part of a project group but resist the constraints that the project and the group put on their individuality?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
4. During which stage of team development do close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
5. During which stage of team development is the team fully functional and accepted?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
6. During which stage of team development is high performance not a top priority and team member emotions run from upbeat to depressed?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
7. During which stage of team development do team members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable and what performance expectations are?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
8. Sam is the coach of a high school soccer team and has noticed that some close relationships have formed as well as feelings of camaraderie and shared responsibilities for the team's success. Which stage of development is the team in?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
9. Roger is new-product project manager for a retail company. Recently the team has exhibited a high degree of conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. Which stage of development is the team in?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
10. Tom is managing a project team responsible for erecting a new office building. He notices that team members are trying out different behaviors to see what is acceptable to the project and personal relations. Which stage of development is the team in?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming
11. Experience and research indicate that high-performance project teams are much more likely to develop under all the following conditions except:
A. Members are assigned to the project full time
B. Members report solely to the project manager
C. There are 10 or fewer members per team
D. Team members are selected by their managers
E. The project involves a compelling objective
12. In which of the following theories does the project group transition from a lower level to a higher level of performance about halfway through the project?
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. Five Stage Team Development Model
C. Punctuated Equilibrium Model of Group Development
D. Dysfunctional Transition Model
E. Synergistic Transition Development Model
13. Which of the following are considered very important in the recruiting of project members?
A. The budget available
B. The importance of the project
C. The management structure for the project team
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
14. Which of the following is not one of the considerations that need to be factored into the project team recruitment process?
A. Political connections
B. Problem-solving ability
C. Ambition, initiative, and energy
D. High degree of technological expertise
E. Availability
15. Which of the following is an objective of the first project team meeting?
A. Overview the project's scope and objectives
B. Address interpersonal interaction concerns
C. Model how the team will work together
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
16. Which of the following is not one of the major issues that successful project managers must address in the early stages of a project?
A. Relationship Decisions
B. Managing Change Decisions
C. Tracking Decisions
D. Planning Decisions
E. All of these need to be addressed
17. Researchers have found that high performance teams will have which of the following norms?
A. Hard work does not get in the way of having fun
B. No information is shared outside the team unless all agree to it
C. It is acceptable to be in trouble, but not to surprise others
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
18. All of the following have been found to be good for running effective project meetings except:
A. Start meetings on time regardless of whether everyone is present
B. Identify an adjournment time
C. Thoroughly document all decisions
D. Prepare and distribute an agenda prior to the meeting
E. All of these are good for effective meetings
19. Establishing a team identity is facilitated by:
A. Team members working in a common space
B. Creation of a project team name
C. Effective use of meetings
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
20. The essential qualities of an effective vision include all of the following except:
A. All team members have the same vision
B. The vision should be communicated to all
C. The vision has to make strategic sense
D. There should be a passion for the vision
E. The vision should be a source of inspiration to others
21. Which of the following would be considered the most effective project reward?
A. Individual member rewards
B. Lump-sum cash award
C. All-expenses-paid trip for team members and their families
D. Using negative reinforcement to motivate adequate performance
E. All of these are equally effective
22. Individual rewards for outstanding work would not include:
A. Letters of commendation
B. Public recognition
C. Desirable job assignments
D. Making exceptions to the rules
E. All of these can be used for individual rewards
23. The first step in facilitating group decision making is to:
A. Call a meeting to discuss the problem
B. Identify the problem
C. Agree that there is a problem
D. Quantify the problem
E. Generate alternatives
24. Strategies to manage dysfunctional conflict do not include _____ the conflict.
A. Control
B. Arbitrate
C. Mediate
D. Accept
E. Encourage
25. The biggest challenge to managing a virtual project team is:
A. Getting reports and technical information communicated
B. Developing trust
C. Establishing effective patterns of communication
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
26. Which of the following is not one of the steps in facilitating group decision making?
A. Identifying the problem
B. Analyzing the situation
C. Generating alternatives
D. Reaching a decision
E. Follow-up
27. During the delivery phase of a project's life cycle, the most significant source of conflict is:
A. Schedules
B. Priorities
C. Technical
D. Procedures
E. Costs
28. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are:
A. The language barriers and time management
B. Time management and developing trust
C. The language barriers and developing effective patterns of communication
D. Developing trust and effective patterns of communication
E. Time management and developing effective patterns of communication
29. Symptoms of groupthink include:
A. The team thinking it is invincible
B. Opinions of those outside the team are considered to be irrelevant
C. Critical thinking disappears
D. Pressure is applied to any dissenter
E. All of these are symptoms of groupthink
30. Which of the following are ways to improve the performance of low-priority projects?
A. Creating a large time investment in the form of a lengthy meeting
B. Interject as much fun as possible into the project
C. Make the benefits of the project as real as possible to the team members
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
31. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project definition phase?
A. Priorities
B. Administrative procedures
C. Schedule
D. Workforce
E. Costs
32. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project planning phase?
A. Priorities
B. Procedures
C. Schedule
D. Technical requirements
E. Costs
33. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project execution phase?
A. Priorities
B. Staff issues
C. Schedule slippage
D. Technical problems
E. All of these are significant sources of conflict
34. Which of the following is not one of the tips for alleviating communication problems of virtual teams?
A. Include face-to-face time if at all possible
B. Keep team members informed on how well the overall project is going
C. Share the pain
D. Establish clear norms and protocols for surfacing assumptions and conflicts
E. Establish a code of conduct to avoid delays
35. ________ occurs when the whole is less than the sum of its parts.
________________________________________
36. During the ________ stage of group development, there is conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made.
________________________________________
37. During the ________ stage of group development, the members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable to the team and individual team members.
________________________________________
38. During the ________ stage of group development, the team prepares for its own disbandment.
________________________________________
39. During the ________ stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness.
________________________________________
40. During the ________ stage of group development, the team is fully functional and working together to accomplishing the project goals.
________________________________________
41. The ________ suggests that about midway through a project the team transitions into a different behavior pattern more focused on the successful completion of the project.
________________________________________
42. Experienced project managers stress the importance of ________ rather than appointing team members.
________________________________________
43. Too often when constrained by time, project managers try to accomplish too much during the first meeting, rather than use the ________ principle and not create information overload.
________________________________________
44. _______ are often considered anathema to productivity, yet they are critical to the success of any project.
________________________________________
45. Symbolic actions at the project level can contribute to a unique team subculture are called ________.
________________________________________
46. In the Snapshot from Practice involving the Tallahassee Democrat newspaper, the key turning point was the handling of an advertisement, eventually known as the ________ that had been sent to the newspaper over a fax machine.
________________________________________
47. The development of _________________ is a common device for making a team more tangible.
________________________________________
48. Expressing the design concept of a new car as a "pocket rocket" (a sports car in the mid-price range) is an example of a simplified ________.
________________________________________
49. Project managers are responsible for managing the ________ that encourage team performance and extra effort.
________________________________________
50. The use of 6:30 A.M. meetings to get a project back on schedule is an example of ______ reinforcement to motivate project performance.
________________________________________
51. ________ should be used when strong commitment to a decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if the decision were to be made by one person.
________________________________________
52. When the manager intervenes and tries to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like the Project Manager is trying to ___________.
________________________________________
53. In the ________ approach to managing conflict, the manager imposes a solution to the conflict after listening to each party.
________________________________________
54. In a ________ project team the members are geographically situated so that they may seldom meet face-to-face as a team.
________________________________________
55. ___________ refers to whether a team has direct influence over the problem that needs to be resolved.
________________________________________
56. When a project team gets things done without having to go through normal protocols of the parent organization, it may fall into the ____________.
________________________________________
57. Project managers should encourage ___________ conflict.
________________________________________
58. Project managers should manage ___________ conflict.
________________________________________
59. In order to match technology to the communication need, 3M developed guidelines to be used on __________ projects.
________________________________________
60. Synergy can be both negative as well as positive.
True False
61. There is a high degree of internal conflict in the forming stage of team development.
True False
62. The storming stage of team development is completed once members begin to think of themselves as part of a group.
True False
63. The performing stage of team development is characterized by the development of close relationships and group cohesiveness.
True False
64. The norming stage of team development is complete when the group establishes a common set of expectations about how members should work together.
True False
65. Regardless of the type of work group, the adjourning stage of team development is the final stage.
True False
66. The Punctuated Equilibrium Model of group development has only two phases with a single transition joining them.
True False
67. A project manager should always look for people with good problem-solving ability.
True False
68. A project manager should be wary of people who know too much about a specific technology.
True False
69. Co-location of team members, team names, and team rituals are common vehicles for establishing a team identity.
True False
70. A project vision is an image a project team holds in common about how the project will look upon completion, how they will work together, and how customers will accept the project.
True False
71. Everyone on the project team should have the same vision of the project.
True False
72. Most project managers advocate the use of group rewards rather than individual rewards.
True False
73. Lump-sum cash bonuses are the preferred group reward for project teams.
True False
74. Letters of commendation, public recognition for outstanding work, and desirable job assignments are the preferred types of individual rewards.
True False
75. Group decision making should be used when strong commitment to the decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if only one person makes the decision.
True False
76. A project manager should identify a problem in terms of its alternate solutions so that team members can more easily reach a decision on how to solve the problem.
True False
77. Team members can be upset and dissatisfied with conflict, but as long as the disagreement furthers the objectives of the project, then the conflict is functional.
True False
78. A project manager arbitrates conflict by intervening and attempting to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like.
True False
79. Groupthink refers to the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities resulting in quick decision making with little consideration of alternatives.
True False
80. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are developing trust and effective patterns of communication.
True False
81. "Going native" is the ability that some project teams have to bypass the normal policies and procedures that everyone in the organization is supposed to follow.
True False
82. In order to match technology to the communication need, IBM developed a set of guidelines to be used on their virtual projects.
True False
83. Identify the four major areas for establishing ground rules on how the project team will operate.
84. Identify and briefly discuss the four elements to establishing a team identity.
85. Identify the four requirements for an effective project vision.
86. Identify and briefly discuss the four types of individual rewards recommended for project team members.
87. Identify and briefly discuss the four major steps in facilitating the group decision making process.
88. What is functional conflict and why should it be encouraged?
89. Identify the five strategies to manage conflict.
90. What is a virtual project team?
91. What is meant by the term groupthink and identify four symptoms?
92. From the perspective of project management, what does the term going native reference?
93. What is the bureaucratic bypass syndrome and why is it to be avoided?
94. Identify and briefly describe the four common pitfalls that project teams may be subjected to.
ch12
1. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the _______ industry.
A. Telecommunications
B. Financial
C. Insurance
D. Construction
E. Retail
2. The process for the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies has traditionally been known as:
A. Subcontracting
B. Downsizing
C. Partnering
D. Joint venture
E. Outsourcing
3. When you call your Internet provider to solve a technical problem and you end up talking to a technician in India or Romania, you have just experienced:
A. Telecommunications
B. Partnering
C. Outsourcing
D. Service shift
E. Bilingual customer service
4. Which of the following is not a potential part of the outsourcing concept?
A. Computers
B. Faxes
C. Computer-aided design systems
D. Video teleconferencing
E. All the above are correct
5. Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except
A. Shortened project completion
B. Reduced costs
C. Higher level of expertise
D. Reduced conflict
E. Increased flexibility
6. Disadvantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except
A. Increased conflict
B. Coordination breakdowns
C. Increased costs
D. Loss of control
E. More internal morale issues
7. The driving motive for increasing the use of outsourcing on projects was:
A. Reducing the trade deficit
B. Reducing costs
C. Improving international sales
D. Making products more international in design
E. Securing technology that was not available domestically
8. Recent outsourcing trends have shown an increasing emphasis on the suppliers for all of the following except:
A. Further cost reductions
B. Increased quality of work performed
C. Increased ability to collaborate
D. Increased ability to work together
E. All of these are recent trends
9. Key practices in partnering relationships include:
A. Single project contracting
B. Goals and objectives are similar
C. Access to each other's organizational resources
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
10. In the "Competing against the Giants" Snapshot from Practice, SATT Control uses which of the following to successfully compete against much larger competitors?
A. Excellent project management
B. Acts as a system integrator
C. Using the same subsystem vendors again and again
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
11. Which of the following is not a key to successful partnering relationships?
A. Mutual trust
B. Jointly shared risk
C. Total company involvement
D. Independent project teams
E. Long-term commitment
12. Which of the following is part of the traditional project process?
A. Structured communications
B. Long-term commitment
C. Total company involvement
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
13. The traditional project process includes all of the following except:
A. Independent project teams
B. Shared goals and objectives
C. Single project teams
D. Risk is transferred to the other party
E. Limited objectivity
14. Which of the following did the state of Ohio do before starting a bond-financed school construction project?
A. Create a specific RFP (request for proposal)
B. Have a dress rehearsal
C. Reviews the performance of contractors on past projects
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
15. Best practices in outsourcing project work include all the following except:
A. Well defined requirements and procedures
B. Training and teambuilding activities
C. Well established conflict management processes
D. Frequent reviews and status updates
E. All of these are best practices
16. In the Snapshot from Practice "Strategies for Communicating with Outsourcers," which of the following was not one of the suggested strategies?
A. Recognize cultural differences
B. Use a translator to make sure everyone understands
C. Choose the right words
D. Confirm your requirements
E. Set deadlines
17. To make sure that an outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements you should:
A. Document your conversations in writing
B. Insist that the outsourcer write the requirements in their own words
C. Request they build a prototype
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
18. The result of teambuilding among the project's participants is a:
A. Signed contract
B. Legal partnership agreement
C. Project plan
D. Partnering charter
E. Responsibility matrix
19. To avoid problems with schedules and deadlines you should:
A. Develop detailed schedules
B. Hold frequent status reviews
C. Add a penalty clause to the contract
D. Hold frequent conversations with the outsourcer
E. Build extra time into the schedules that the outsourcer is not aware of
20. Among the many advantages for establishing long-term partnerships are:
A. Reduced administrative costs
B. Improved performance
C. Improved communication
D. B and C are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
21. Long-term partnerships will provide all the following except:
A. Improved communication
B. More efficient utilization of resources
C. Reduced need for total number of partnerships
D. Lower administrative costs
E. Improved innovation
22. Teambuilding between partners should:
A. Include engineers, architects, lawyers, specialists and other staff
B. Be facilitated by an outside consultant
C. Not take more than one day
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
23. Which of the following would be included in best practices in outsourcing project work?
A. Establishing long-term relationships
B. Include financial incentives
C. Reduce costs by using tried and true methods
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
24. In the Snapshot from Practice dealing with the Value Engineering Awards program, which branch of the U.S. government was involved?
A. Department of Defense
B. Department of Commerce
C. Department of Transportation
D. N.A.S.A
E. Department of Education
25. Which of the following is not one of the key points of principled negotiation?
A. Use objective criteria when possible
B. Be honest and forthright
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Separate the people from the problem
E. Invent options for mutual gain
26. Customer satisfaction can be quantitified by:
A. Perceived performance divided by actual performance
B. Actual performance divided by expected performance
C. Perceived performance divided by expected performance
D. Actual performance divided by perceived performance
E. Expected performance divided by actual performance
27. Which of the following is a part of the noncompetitive view of negotiation?
A. Reaching an agreement
B. Implementation phase
C. Review of the completed project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
28. Which of the following is suggested as the best target for a customer satisfaction ratio?
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
E. 1.50
29. In the research highlight on IT project managers, which of the following was not one of the roles taken by project managers?
A. Entrepreneur
B. Politician
C. Friend
D. Marketer
E. Auditor
30. Regarding customer relations, advice passed on by veteran project managers includes:
A. Speak with one voice
B. Speak in precise terms
C. Speak the language of the customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct
31. Which of the following is not one of the elements of good negotiation?
A. Be hard on the problem, soft on the people
B. Conflict on a project can be good
C. Negotiation is not a contest
D. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
E. All of these are elements of good negotiation
32. Which of the following is reflected in the saying "Let anger fly out the window"?
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria
33. Which of the following is reflected in the saying "Seek first to understand, then to be understood"?
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria
34. The dovetailing technique is used in which of the following keys to good negotiation?
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria
35. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the __________ industry.
________________________________________
36. The __________ project, which created a transportation tunnel between France and England, involved more than 250 organizations.
________________________________________
37. In a partnering relationship, ________ is shared jointly among the partners, which encourages innovation and continuous improvement.
________________________________________
38. In a partnering relationship, ________ forms the basis for strong working relationships.
________________________________________
39. In traditional project relationships, ________ is limited due to fear of reprisal and lack of continuous improvement opportunity.
________________________________________
40. In traditional project relationships, ________ are structured and guarded.
________________________________________
41. In Ohio before starting a bond-financed ____________, projects management consultants and the related parties get together to figure out how to talk to each others and how to handle problems.
________________________________________
42. The term __________ has traditionally been applied to the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies.
________________________________________
43. Many outsourced projects operate in a _________ environment in which people are linked by computers, faxes, computer-aided design systems, and video teleconferencing.
________________________________________
44. __________ is a major advantage of outsourcing project work because companies can secure competitive prices for contracted services, especially if the work can be outsourced offshore.
________________________________________
45. Not only can contracted project work be cheaper, it can also be done __________.
________________________________________
46. High levels of __________ and technology can be brought to bear on a project by using contracted services.
________________________________________
47. Contracting project services can increase a firm's _________ by no longer being constrained by their own resources.
________________________________________
48. Breakdowns in __________ of professionals from different organizations can occur if the project work requires close collaboration and mutual adjustment.
________________________________________
49. In the Snapshot from Practice involving SATT Control, a Swedish electronics firm, the company referred to one of its competencies as being a ________ who subcontracts the subsystems to other firms.
________________________________________
50. There is a potential loss of __________ over a project when the core team depends on other organizations that they do not have direct authority over.
________________________________________
51. Projects are more prone to interpersonal _________ because the different participants do not share the same values, priorities, and culture.
________________________________________
52. There is little disagreement that __________ was the primary motive behind outsourcing project work.
________________________________________
53. Fisher and Ury champion the ________ approach to negotiation because it emphasizes win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness.
________________________________________
54. ________ satisfaction is measured by the ratio of perceived performance to expected performance.
________________________________________
55. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong __________.
________________________________________
56. As part of an effort to cut costs the United States Department of Defense issues annual __________.
________________________________________
57. "Let anger fly out of the window" is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation.
________________________________________
58. Explaining why a critical task must be done by a specific time is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation.
________________________________________
59. Dividing perceived performance by expected performance will calculate __________.
________________________________________
60. Toyota and Daimen-Chrysler collaborating with suppliers to develop new automobile platforms is an example of outsourcing.
True False
61. Participants from different organizations working close together at the construction site or in shared office space is an example of a virtual team.
True False
62. Working in outsourcing teams, projects can be completed faster and more cheaply.
True False
63. Increased conflict and loss of coordination are typical disadvantages of outsourcing project work.
True False
64. Trust can be difficult to forge when interactions are limited and people come from different organizations.
True False
65. In partnering, access to each other's organization resources is available.
True False
66. In the traditional method of managing projects, total company involvement requires commitment from CEO to team members.
True False
67. In partnering, each party's goals and objectives are similar but geared to what is best for them.
True False
68. As part of an effort to cut costs, the United States Department of Defense issues annual Value Engineering Awards.
True False
69. In some countries, laws are considered to be guidelines that are not necessarily followed.
True False
70. For people in some countries, a written, signed contract is merely a suggestion.
True False
71. Because English is the language of business, it is not necessary to speak in a direct manner using short sentences made of basic, simple words as this may taken as an insult.
True False
72. All conversations with outsourcers should be followed up with commitments documented in writing since they are likely to understand written English better than spoken English.
True False
73. Experience indicates that co-location of project teams is not worth the extra costs.
True False
74. A partnering charter states the common goals for the project as well as the procedures that will be used to achieve these goals.
True False
75. It is a good idea to add a penalty clause to an outsourcing agreement because deadlines are often taken as a suggestion rather than a commitment.
True False
76. A prime consideration in choosing outsourcing vendors is to assess the fit with their project management system.
True False
77. Team-building workshops with outsourcing vendors is usually led by an outside consultant who is an expert in designing and facilitating such workshops.
True False
78. In project negotiation each negotiator is out to win as much as he or she can for their side.
True False
79. Principled Negotiation emphasizes developing win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness.
True False
80. By keeping the focus on the issues and not the personalities, negotiators are better able to let the other person blow off steam.
True False
81. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong BATNA.
True False
82. A value of 1.5 is the accepted target for the Met-Expectations model of customer satisfaction.
True False
83. What is partnering and why has it become popular for managing projects?
84. Identify the four advantages to outsourcing project work.
85. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. working relationships, 2. goals, and 3. communications.
86. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. risk, 2. length of commitment, and 3. structure of project teams.
87. Identify the four strategies offered by Dr. Adam Kolawa for overcoming poor communication with outsourcers.
88. Identify the three steps you should take to confirm that the outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements.
89. "Team-building is nice to have for a project, but we really need to concentrate on the planning and technical challenges—that is the make-or-break point for this project." Agree or disagree? Support your answer.
90. What is principled negotiation and what are the four key points it is based upon?
91. What is negotiation jujitsu?
92. Describe the Met-Expectations Model of Customer Satisfaction including the formula to calculate it.
93. In the research highlight on IT project managers, different roles that are critical to the success of the project manager were discussed. Identify each of the five roles and briefly discuss them.
94. In terms of Fisher and Ury's approach to negotiation, what is a BATNA and why is it important?
ch13
1. A project monitoring system involves all of the following except:
A. Determining what date to collect
B. Determining how, when, and who will collect the data
C. Adjusting the data
D. Analysis of the data
E. Reporting current progress
2. Adequate project controls have the advantage(s) of:
A. Holding people accountable
B. Prevents small problems from getting large
C. Keeping focus
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
3. A typical project progress report would contain all of the following sections except:
A. Progress since last report
B. Problems and issues since last report
C. Current status of project
D. Corrective action planned
E. All of these are typical sections
4. The first step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to
A. Set a baseline plan
B. Determine the project objectives
C. Determine the project deliverables
D. Analyze the project budget
E. Review the project priority matrix
5. The second step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to:
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to control system
C. Compare plan against actual
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members
6. The third step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to:
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to the control system
C. Compare the plan against actual performance
D. Measure both progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members
7. The last step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to:
A. Take appropriate action
B. Prepare a report to top management
C. Follow up on corrective action
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members
8. In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should be compared to:
A. Budgets for the current year
B. Top management's targets
C. Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS
D. Progress on similar past projects
E. Previous status reports
9. A typical tool used to communicate project status is a:
A. Project network diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. A PERT chart
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
10. A tool used to monitor past project schedule performance, current performance, and to estimate future schedule trends is a simple line chart known as a:
A. Project schedule control chart
B. Gantt chart
C. PERT chart
D. Network diagram
E. Milestone chart
11. An Earned Value System used to monitor project progress includes comparison of
A. Actual costs versus budget
B. Schedule progress versus plan
C. Quality progress versus plan
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
12. The earned value of a project is the:
A. Project cost to date adjusted for project scope changes
B. Total project cost to date
C. Cost incurred minus the planned cost
D. Percent of the original budget that has been earned by actual work
E. None of these are correct
13. The cost variance for a project is calculated by:
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EU-PV
14. The schedule variance for a project is calculated by:
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EV-PV
15. Baseline project budgets are derived from:
A. The organization's overall budget
B. Time-phasing the work packages
C. Top management directions
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
16. Of the following costs, which are not included in baseline?
A. Materials
B. Equipment
C. Labor
D. A and C but not B
E. All of these are usually included
17. The method most frequently used in measuring project progress is the
A. 0/100 percent rule
B. 75/25 percent rule
C. 50/50 percent rule
D. 25/75 percent rule
E. Percent complete rule
18. Generally the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing
A. Earned value with the expected schedule value
B. Earned value with the actual costs
C. Actual costs with budgeted costs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
19. Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project using the earned-value cost/schedule system?
A. BAC, EAC, and ETC
B. VAC, EAC, and BAC
C. CV, SU, and BAC
D. PV, EV, and AC
E. TCPI, EV, and PV
20. Which of the following methods of variance analysis is the best indicator of how far off the budget a project will be at completion?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. VAC
E. TCPI
21. Which of the following methods will measure the cost efficiency of the work accomplished to date?
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV
22. Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the work accomplished to date?
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV
23. An index value less than one indicates that the project is
A. Under cost or behind schedule
B. Over cost or ahead of schedule
C. Under cost or ahead of schedule
D. Over cost or behind schedule
E. On cost or on schedule
24. Scope creep affects:
A. The organization
B. The project team
C. The project suppliers
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
25. Small refinements that eventually build to be major changes are known as:
A. Project erosion
B. Scope creep
C. Specification adjustments
D. Specification refinements
E. Continuous improvements
26. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of budgeted amounts is calculated by which of the following?
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC
27. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of actual amounts is calculated by which of the following?
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC
28. Which of the following will calculate the estimated cost to complete the project?
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)
29. Which of the following will calculate the To Complete Performance Index?
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)
30. Which of the following is not true regarding scope creep?
A. It is common late in projects
B. It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed
C. It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness
D. Project suppliers resent frequent changes
E. All of these are true
31. ________ holds people accountable, prevents small problems from mushrooming into large problems, and keeps focus.
________________________________________
32. The first step in creating a project control system for measuring and evaluating project performance is to ________.
________________________________________
33. A concept of ________ is necessary to get a realistic estimate of performance against a time-phased budget.
________________________________________
34. Usually status reports should take place every ________ weeks to be useful and allow for proactive correction.
________________________________________
35. Because of their easy-to-understand visual format, ________ are the most favored, used, and understandable tool used to report project status.
________________________________________
36. Control charts are frequently used to monitor progress toward ________, which mark events and as such have zero duration.
________________________________________
37. The ________ is a tool used to monitor past project schedule performance and current performance and to estimate future schedule trends.
________________________________________
38. The ________ is the difference between the earned value and the actual costs for the work completed to date.
________________________________________
39. The ________ is the difference between the earned value to date and the baseline schedule.
________________________________________
40. ________ is simply the percent complete, times the original budget.
________________________________________
41. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline is to establish frequent __________ over the duration of the work package.
________________________________________
42. When measuring percent complete in the monitoring phase of the project, it is common to limit the amount earned to __________ until the work package is 100 percent complete.
________________________________________
43. The ________ is the rule most frequently used by practicing project managers to both assign costs to the baseline and to measure progress using earned value.
________________________________________
44. Cost variance tells us if the ________ costs are more or less than was planned at any point over the life of the project.
________________________________________
45. A positive variance in SV or CV indicates a ________ condition.
________________________________________
46. The units of measure for SV or CV is in terms of ________.
________________________________________
47. CPI and SPI are two types of indexes that measure ________.
________________________________________
48. The ________ indexes compare the to-date progress to the end of the project.
________________________________________
49. An SPI index of 1.22 indicates that the project is ________ schedule.
________________________________________
50. Although it is very difficult to measure, measuring ________ performance is as important as measuring schedule and cost performance.
________________________________________
51. The best defense against scope creep is a __________.
________________________________________
52. The PCIB index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that were budgeted.
True False
53. The PCIC index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that have actually been used so far on the project.
True False
54. Control is one of the most neglected areas of project management.
True False
55. Measuring performance against budget is simply a case of comparing actual versus budget.
True False
56. Earned value is defined as the budgeted cost of the work performed.
True False
57. The baseline is derived from merging information from the work packages with the project network.
True False
58. The network chart is the most favored, used, and understandable option for reporting project progress to upper management.
True False
59. In a project control chart, four observations trending in one direction indicate there is a very high probability that there is an identifiable cause.
True False
60. Milestones are significant project events that mark major accomplishments.
True False
61. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline under this rule is to establish frequent checkpoints over the duration of the work package and assign completion percentages in dollar terms.
True False
62. The original earned value cost/schedule system was pioneered by the U.S. Department of Defense in the 1960s.
True False
63. Earned value is calculated by taking the percent complete times the original budget.
True False
64. Baseline costs typically include labor, equipment, materials and direct overhead cost.
True False
65. Overhead costs and profit are typically included in the project baseline.
True False
66. The major reasons for creating a baseline are to monitor and report progress and to estimate cash flow.
True False
67. In calculating schedule variance and cost variance, a negative variance indicates a desirable condition, and a positive variance suggests problems.
True False
68. An undesirable schedule variance indicates that the project is running behind schedule.
True False
69. Cost variance tells us the different estimates among vendors needed to complete the project over the life of the project.
True False
70. A CPI index of 0.97 indicates that the project has spent less money than budgeted.
True False
71. One method of estimating the costs to complete a project is to divide the work remaining by the CPI.
True False
72. All scope changes that result in increased costs should be avoided.
True False
73. Scope Creep refers to any significant changes made in the project once it is underway.
True False
74. The key to managing scope creep is change management.
True False
75. The best defense against scope creep is accepting only major changes.
True False
76. The rule of using subjective estimated percent complete in combination with hard, tangible monitoring points works well on long-duration activities that can be broken into short discrete work packages.
True False
77. Identify the steps in creating a control process that measure and evaluate project performance.
78. What is the difference between a baseline Gantt chart and a Tracking Gantt chart?
79. Identify and briefly describe the three percent complete rules for placing costs in baselines.
80. Conducting an earned value analysis requires three data elements. Identify the acronyms for each and describe what they are.
81. In reviewing the budget report of a project, you notice that spending on the project is running about ten percent over plan. Is the project in trouble? Why or why not?
82. Interpret the results of calculating the performance indexes based on a range of possible calculated values.
83. Identify the four indexes used in project management control and identify the formulas for calculating the indexes.
84. Identify and briefly discuss the two methods to revise estimates of future project costs.
85. What are Weighted Monitoring Gates and why would you need them?
86. What is scope creep and why should a project manager be concerned about it?
87. Typically, project progress reports are designed and communicated in written or oral form. Identify the common topic format for such progress reports.
88. Briefly describe the general structure of a project monitoring information system for control.
ch14
1. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project.
A. Completed
B. Overdue
C. Overbudget
D. Under achiveing
E. All the above are correct
2. What is not a wrap-up closure activity?
A. Facilities
B. Vendors
C. Customer
D. Profit report
E. Report
3. __________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects.
A. Retrospectives
B. Corrective action plans
C. Introspective
D. Culmination
E. Evolution
4. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics:
A. Lessons learned
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations
D. Executive summary
E. All the above are correct
5. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure.
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project
6. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. This is considered to be ___________ closure.
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project
7. Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is called:
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority
8. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of:
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority
9. Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except:
A. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer.
B. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses.
C. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid.
D. E-mail the project team that the project is complete.
E. Creating a final report.
10. Which is not part of the team portion of the Wrap-up closure checklist?
A. Has a schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted?
B. Has staff been offered outplacement services and career counseling activities?
C. Have performance reviews for team members been conducted?
D. Has staff been released or notified of new assignments?
E. All are included.
11. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Has an in-depth project review and evaluation interview with the customer been conducted?" be answered.
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement
12. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Have project accounts been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered.
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement
13. Releasing the project team typically occurs _________ during the closure phase.
A. Gradually
B. Rarely
C. Without bombast
D. Rapidly
E. All at once
14. In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a project gone wrong when the _______ is/are not consulted.
A. Manufacture
B. Equipment and facilities managers
C. End-users
D. Project manager
E. The Fans
15. Closing out _________ is often messy and filled with untied ends.
A. Project review meetings
B. Reports
C. Invoices
D. Teams
E. Contracts
16. Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level would be included in which section of the audit report?
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives
17. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives
18. Items technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives
19. The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the:
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives
20. Corrective actions that should take place (such as shifting to more resilient building material) would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives
21. In the Snapshot from Practice, the results of analyzing the Katrina hurricane resulted in a new evaluation plan from:
A. The state legislature
B. The governor of Louisiana
C. The city of New Orleans
D. The Red Cross
E. The national guard
22. The most common circumstance for project closure is:
A. Premature completion with some features eliminated
B. Project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality
C. Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality
D. Project termination due to technical difficulties
E. Perpetual projects that seem to go on and on before completion
23. Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except:
A. Premature
B. Perpetual
C. Failed
D. Changed priority
E. All of these are categories for project closure
24. In the Research Highlight, Chaos: Software Projects, the criterion which was deemed the most important for project success was
A. Realistic expectations
B. Hard-working, focused staff
C. User involvement
D. Proper planning
E. Clear vision and objectives
25. ____________ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria.
A. Process Review
B. Project Overview
C. Analysis
D. Recommendations
E. Directing
26. The typical mechanism for evaluation of teams is normally:
A. A survey completed by the team members
B. A personal interview of each team member
C. An analysis by an outside consultant
D. A survey completed by members of top management
E. A survey completed by the internal or external customers
27. More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with:
A. Critical incidences review
B. Management by objectives
C. The 360-degree feedback
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
28. The project closure process includes all of the following except:
A. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses
B. Reassigning project team members
C. Conduct an audit
D. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer
E. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid
29. In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member's area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance.
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Flat organization
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
30. Performance evaluations of project teams should:
A. Provide the basis for individual development
B. Provide the basis for participation on future projects
C. Provide the basis for salary increases
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
31. ________ is the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project.
________________________________________
32. The project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated is known as _________.
________________________________________
33. ____________ are usually easy to identify and easy for a review group to close down.
________________________________________
34. Projects in process may need to be altered or canceled. Thus, a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change. This is called __________.
________________________________________
35. A schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted is a question that is asked in the completion of the ___________.
________________________________________
36. The summary simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation is called the ___________.
________________________________________
37. Some organizations have project closure checklists of over _____ wrap-up tasks!
________________________________________
38. The ________ section of the final project report includes succinct, factual review statements of the project such as, project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organizational resources used.
________________________________________
39. Perhaps _________ are the most valuable contribution of the closure process.
________________________________________
40. The ________ section of the final project report are often technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced.
________________________________________
41. A completed ___________ is a good example of the need to work out the details in advance.
________________________________________
42. A project closure is considered ________ if it never seems to end due to constant "add-ons" in attempt to improve the project outcome.
________________________________________
43. The purpose of ____________ is to assess how well the project team, team members, and project manager performed.
________________________________________
44. The ________ feedback approach gathers anonymous feedback solicited from others is compared with the individual's self-evaluations, the individual may form a more realistic picture of her strengths and weaknesses.
________________________________________
45. In some ____________, project managers conduct the performance reviews, while area managers are responsible for pay reviews.
________________________________________
46. Project managers should be ________ giving team members feedback throughout the project so that individual team members can have a pretty good idea how well they have performed and how the manager feels before the formal meeting.
________________________________________
47. The _________ of projects by characteristics allows prospective readers, teams, and project managers to be selective in the search and use of report content.
________________________________________
48. The most common reason given for not creating lessons learned is _________.
________________________________________
49. A ________ is a methodology that analyzes a past project event to determine what worked and what didn't, develops lessons learned, and creates an action plan that ensures lessons learned are used to improve management of future projects.
________________________________________
50. _________ are binary; either you have reached requirements completion or you have not.
________________________________________
51. The Standish Group International's market research on software projects, called Chaos showed that ___ percent of all software projects are cancelled before completion.
________________________________________
52. A __________ is a guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well, what needs improvement, and development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability.
________________________________________
53. __________ represent an analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle; they attempt to capture positive and negative project learning.
________________________________________
54. An upbeat, festive celebration brings closure to the enjoyable experiences everyone has had and the need to say good-bye is considered to be a ____________.
________________________________________
55. In a Perpetual project the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project.
True False
56. In a Premature projects, the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated.
True False
57. Retrospectives of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects.
True False
58. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of change changed priority.
True False
59. Part of the content of the final report typically includes profit made on the project.
True False
60. The project manager's challenge is to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete.
True False
61. Implementing closedown includes getting delivery acceptance from the customer.
True False
62. Project Summary is the summary that simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation.
True False
63. Analysis examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes.
True False
64. The ideal scenario is to have the team member's next assignment ready when project completion is announced.
True False
65. The maximum items on a checklist for closing a project are 50.
True False
66. Lessons learned from the Katrina disaster are not limited to the military. Almost every agency and support group, such as individuals, communities, churches, and other groups, has developed lessons learned from their project response experience.
True False
67. Evaluation of individuals implies measurement against all team members.
True False
68. Performance evaluations of project team members are typically well done because the evaluations are conducted by the team member's home department.
True False
69. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project such as building a new facility or creating a customized information system.
True False
70. A project closure where the project is completed early with some parts of the project eliminated would be classified as project failure.
True False
71. The key requirement in selection of the facilitator is one who is the end-user.
True False
72. Performance appraisals generally fulfill five important functions.
True False
73. Some organizations rely simply on an informal discussion between the project manager and the project member while other organizations require project managers to submit written evaluations that describe and assess an individual's performance on a project.
True False
74. A 360-degree performance evaluation includes feedback from peers, project managers, subordinates, and even customers.
True False
75. Project managers should, when possible, draw comparisons to other team members when conducting individual team member reviews.
True False
76. Retrospective methodology is one positive step toward ensuring lessons learned are developed and implemented.
True False
77. What are the six major activities implementing project closedown?
78. Identify the four areas of the project closure checklist.
79. Identify the three major deliverables for project closure.
80. How does the project managers meet the challenge to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete?
81. Identify the five common parts to the final project report.
82. Identify and briefly describe the five most common classifications for the way that projects end.
83. List the five, distinguishing characteristics to ensure Retrospectives methodology embedded effectiveness and value?
84. How does Norman Kerth define retrospective in his text Project Retrospectives?
85. What guidelines should a project manager follow in conducting performance reviews?
86. What is a 360-degree feedback and how is it used?
87. In the Research Highlight "Measures of Team Performance," what was the major finding of the research survey?
88. Explain what Lessons learned represent.
ch16
1. The term that is used to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems is:
A. Project administration
B. Fiduciary responsibility
C. Management
D. Oversight
E. Project regulation
2. Which of the following is not one of the techniques to insure that projects meet the needs of the organization?
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Accountability
D. Controls
E. All of these are correct
3. Which of the follow percentages is the authors' estimate of project-driven organizations that have been implementing some form of oversight for several years?
A. 95%
B. 90%
C. 85%
D. 80%
E. 75%
4. Typical activities of project oversight cover which of the following dimensions?
A. Organization
B. Project
C. Customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct
5. Organizational options to cover every aspect of managing projects in the organization are currently achieved by all of the following except:
A. Executive committee
B. Oversight group
C. Project office
D. Both B and C are correct
E. All the above are correct
6. The importance of the increase in project oversight to today's project manager includes all of the following except:
A. Increase in expected profits from projects
B. Increased interest in supporting and helping the project manager
C. Impact on the environment in which the project will be implemented
D. Impact on how the project manager's performance will be measured
E. The reporting of project progress to an oversight group
7. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as:
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization
8. Which of the following is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers and continued improvement and use of best practices?
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization
9. Which of the following firms use project offices to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects?
A. Hewlett Packard
B. International Business Machines
C. Dell
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct
10. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except:
A. Create and maintain the internal project management information system
B. Recruit and select project managers
C. Train personnel in project management techniques
D. Develop risk management programs
E. All of these are typically included
11. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except:
A. Establish standardized project planning and reporting methodologies
B. Audit ongoing and recently completed projects
C. Provide in-house project management consulting
D. Select which projects to undertake
E. All of these are typically included
12. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as:
A. A bridge between senior management and project managers
B. Support integration of all project management processes
C. Training to support a higher level of project management maturity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All of these are correct
13. The in-depth review of individual projects at specific phases in the project life cycle is known as:
A. Project Assessment Checkpoint Reviews
B. Go/Kill Decision Review Methodology
C. Phase Gate Methodology
D. Stargate Review Methodology
E. None of these are correct
14. The original Stage-GateTM model included all the following stages except:
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Detailed investigation
C. Testing and validation
D. Production and market launch
E. All of these were included
15. The abridged, generic phase gated process includes how many Go/Kill decision points?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. Seven
16. During which of the following phase gates would the question of "Does this project align with our strategic direction?" be answered?
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure
17. During which of the following phase gates would the question of "What are the project's ROI and/or non-financial benefits?" be answered?
A. Proposal
B. Selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure
18. During which of the following phase gates would the question of "Are the resources needed identified and available?" be answered?
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure
19. During which of the following phase gates would the question of "Are time, costs, and scope performances within acceptable limits?" be answered?
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress evaluation
E. Closure
20. Which of the following is not one of the growth levels in the Organizational Project Maturity Model (OPM3TM)?
A. Repeatable
B. Defined
C. Managed
D. Expanded
E. Optimized
21. The first appearance of standard approaches to managing projects including scope statements and WBS occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
22. Risk assessment derived from WBS and technical analyses and customer input is in place occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
23. Project audits are performed on all significant projects and lessons learned are recorded and used on subsequent projects occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
24. An informal culture that values improvement drives the organization, not policies and procedures occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
25. The use of an organization-wide project management system tailored to specific needs of the organization is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
26. The development of a system for managing multiple projects that are aligned with strategic goals is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
27. The focus is on continuous improvement through incremental advancements of existing practices and by innovations using new technologies and methods is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels?
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System
28. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over
A. 1-3 years
B. 2-4 years
C. 4-7 years
D. 5-10 years
E. e.10-15 years
29. Which of the following is not one of the four performance goals measures in the scorecard model?
A. customer
B. internal
C. financial measures
D. industry standards
E. innovation and learning
30. __________ can be defined as a set of principles and processes to guide and improve the management of projects.
________________________________________
31. Project selection and portfolio management are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight.
________________________________________
32. Reviewing project's objectives and resolving project bottlenecks are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight.
________________________________________
33. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as __________.
________________________________________
34. The __________ is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers.
________________________________________
35. High tech firms such as HP, IBM, and Dell all use __________ to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects.
________________________________________
36. The use of __________ provides an in-depth review of individual's projects at specific phases in the project life cycle.
________________________________________
37. The original __________ model was pioneered by Robert G. Cooper several decades ago to improve management of new product development.
38. "Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle" decisions are made by the oversight team at each _________ of a project.
________________________________________
39. The __________ process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals.
________________________________________
40. Phase 1 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
41. Phase 2 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
42. Phase 3 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
43. Phase 4 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
44. Phase 5 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
45. Phase 6 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase.
________________________________________
46. __________ is used to identify opportunities for improvement.
________________________________________
47. Level 1 of the authors' Project Maturity Model is named __________.
________________________________________
48. Level 2 of the authors' Project Maturity Model is named __________.
________________________________________
49. Level 3 of the authors' Project Maturity Model is named __________.
________________________________________
50. Level 4 of the authors' Project Maturity Model is named __________.
________________________________________
51. Level 5 of the authors' Project Maturity Model is named __________.
________________________________________
52. The ________ model limits measures of performance to goals in four main areas: customer, internal, innovation and learning, and financial measures.
________________________________________
53. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over _______.
________________________________________
54. ___________ such as ROI, cash flow, and projects on budget reflect improvement and actions that contribute value to the bottom line.
________________________________________
55. Project Management Control is the term that has emerged to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems.
True False
56. Project oversight can be defined as a set of principles and processes to.
True False
57. The phase gate review process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals.
True False
58. The phase gate review process is the centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals.
True False
59. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts.
True False
60. When project effort moves from tactical to strategic, project selection, project process.
True False
61. Portfolio Project Management is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers.
True False
62. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts.
True False
63. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as serving as a bridge between senior management and project managers.
True False
64. Phase gate methodology was originally developed for the construction industry.
True False
65. The phase gate methodology was developed before the emergence of the project office and project portfolios.
True False
66. One study by Morris showed 45 percent of those surveyed use phase review gates.
True False
67. The decision points at each phase gate are known as "Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle" decisions.
True False
68. The Portfolio Project Management methodology can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals.
True False
69. It is extremely rare that a project that is executing on time, on budget, and meeting project goals will be "killed".
True False
70. The first phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Screening and Selection phase.
True False
71. The last phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Closure phase.
True False
72. The Proposal phase answers the fundamental question: Is the project a good idea and does it solve a business problem or issue?
True False
73. The Implementation Plan phase answers the question: What are the major risks for this project?
True False
74. Gate 1 provides information at a minimal expenditure of cost and resources and in a short time, so the project can be reevaluated more thoroughly if it is perceived to have merits.
True False
75. In the authors' Project Maturity Model, the Ad Hoc Project Management level has no consistent project management process in place.
True False
76. In the authors' Project Maturity Model, the highest level is Management of Project Management System.
True False
77. Briefly describe what "Project Oversight" is and why it is important to Project Management.
78. The typical activities of project oversight cover two dimensions. Identify those two dimensions and give two examples of activities for each of those dimensions.
79. What is Portfolio Project Management?
80. What is the Project Office and what is its relationship to oversight?
81. What is Phase Gate Methodology and what does it do?
82. Identify the six phases of the authors' generic phase gated process.
83. What is an Organization Project Management Maturity model?
84. Identify the five growth levels contained in the Project Management Institute's organizational project maturity model, OPM3.
85. Identify and briefly describe the five levels in the authors' Project Maturity Model.
86. What is the Balanced Scorecard Model and how is it different from selection models?
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BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW
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Week 11 DQ 1
"Improved Project Management" Please respond to the following:
· Your final project for this course is now complete through Project Proposal, Project Charter, and Project Presentation. Share what you can utilize in your real-world projects to enhance project success.
· Describe the most important piece of knowledge that you gained during this course.
Week 11 DQ 2
"Career" Please respond to the following:
· Discuss what you have learned in this course that will help you in your current or future career.
· It is believed that those starting in project management should take advantage of every opportunity to develop and expand their project management skills. Determine at least four ways that this can be accomplished.
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BUS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New
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Week 11 DQ
"Final Thoughts" Please respond to the following:
· Discuss how this course has enriched your understanding of the principles of project leadership. Assess the value in your experience as you have applied the leadership styles, project completion steps, and strategies to work with other team members to a real-life situation in which you are currently involved.
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