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Nitric Oxide – A Natural Vasodilator You Must Know for UPSC!

UPSC 2024 Prelims asked a simple yet high-concept science question: Which compound dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow in the human body? The correct answer is Nitric Oxide, a gas that plays a key role in cardiovascular health by relaxing blood vessels, allowing smoother circulation. Such science-based conceptual questions are common in UPSC, especially in Prelims. This is your reminder to never neglect the basic science concepts. Follow ZenStudy for daily UPSC-oriented MCQs, notes, and explanations that make cracking Prelims a smart and consistent process. Prepare smartly, not just hard.

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16th January 2021DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q.1. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births. • Statement 2 is correct: Maternal mortality in a region is a measure of reproductive health of women in the area. • Statement 3 is correct: The target 3.1 of Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) set by the United Nations aims to reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births by 2030.

Q.2. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B EXPLANATION: • Statement 1 is correct: The Council consists of 54 Members States, which are elected by UN General Assembly yearly for overlapping three-year terms. • Statement 2 is incorrect: India is member of Council currently for period of 1 January 2018 – 31 December 2020. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The president of the Council is elected for a one-year term.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Main functions of ECOSOC are as follows: • Promoting sustainable development: ECOSOC is the unifying platform for integration, action on sustainable development and follow-up and review. • Advancing policy integration: The Integration Segment of ECOSOC meets once in a year to help member countries chart ways to achieve the three pillars of sustainable development (social, economic and environmental). • Development Cooperation Forum: The Forum reviews the latest trends and progress in international development cooperation and promotes coordination across diverse actors and activities. • Financing for sustainable development • Coordinating humanitarian action:  Focusing on how to tackle pressing issues of humanitarian concern.

Q.4. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C EXPLANATION:       Explanation: • UN Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhumane or Degrading Treatment, - India has signed it in 1997 but yet to ratify it. • UN Convention on the High Seas(Geneva, 29 April 1958)- India has not signed it yet. • UN Convention on the Nationality of Married Women (New York, 20 February 1957)- India signed it in May 1957 but not ratified it yet. Note- List of United Nations Conventions Protocols & Agreements India has not Signed, or Signed but not Ratifiedhttps://mea.gov.in/Images/attach/lu6353.pdf

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct: It is an autonomous institution operating under the Union Ministry of Culture. • Statement 2 is correct: It was established in 1964 in the memory of the First Prime Minister (PM) of India,  Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (1889 - 1964).

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15th January 2021DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q.1. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct: It is a National Digital Infrastructure for Teachers and students and a customizable platform which is currently being used by teachers (from both government and private institutions) across the nation. • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is developed by Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) in association with National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).

Q.2. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B EXPLANATION: • Statement 1 is correct: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) was launched in July 2017 by government of India to provide one integrated platform and portal for online courses. • Statement 2 is correct: SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy. • Statement 3 is incorrect: It hosts courses for Class 9 till post-graduation.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation:        The report is produced jointly by: • The Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) • The International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) • The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) • The UN World Food Programme (WFP) • The World Health Organisation (WHO). • Its first edition was brought out in 2017.

Q.4. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C EXPLANATION: • A conjugate vaccine is a type of vaccine which combines a weak antigen with a strong antigen as a carrier so that the immune system has a stronger response to the weak antigen.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: According the present rules of Government of India, the following voters are allowed to cast their votes through postal ballot: • Service voters (armed forces, the armed police force of a state and government servants posted abroad) • Voters on election duty • Voters under preventive detention. • People with disabilities and those who are 65 or older. • Note: On June 19, the Law ministry had notified a fresh change, allowing those aged 65 years and above to opt for postal ballot as they are more vulnerable to COVID-19. Earlier it was 80 years and above.

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Question-02 | 14th January 2021DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q.1. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D All the statements are correct.

Q.2. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A EXPLANATION: • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gwadar port is located in Pakistan and is being developed through Chinese investments. It is also part of China’s String of Pearls strategy. • Pair 2 is correctly matched: Chabahar port is located in Iran and is being developed through Indian investments. • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bandar-e-Jaskportis located in Iran, 350km away from Chabahar. Recently Iran invited China for more investment in this port development.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: • The Navy currently operates Russian-origin carrier INS Vikramaditya (The only aircraft carrier of Indian Navy at present) and expects to have the first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I) Vikrant operational by 2022.

Q.4. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A EXPLANATION: • Statement 1 is correct: The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not provide any such power to the Governor. • Statement 2 is incorrect: The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is sentence of death but pardoning power of Governor does not extend to death sentence cases.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct: Aerosols are read as micro droplets, much smaller (5 microns or lesser) than respiratory droplets, • Statement 2 is correct: Aerosols take a longer time to drop to the floor as compared to respiratory droplets • Statement 3 is incorrect: aerosol is a term used to broadly refer to particles suspended in the air; they could include fine dust, mist, or smoke. (Both natural and man-made sources)

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05th January 2021 DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2021

Q.1. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: • Statement 1 is correct: UNFPA is the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. • Statement 2 is correct: It was created in 1969. • Statement 3 is correct: The State of World Population Report is released by United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) annually.

Q.2. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: Rights of the AG: • In the performance of his duties, he has right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. • He has the right to speak or to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings, but without a right to vote. • He has the right to speak or to take part in the meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a member, but without a right to vote. • He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of parliament.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: CAD comprises of following components: 1. Trade of goods and Services 2. Net earnings on overseas investments 3. Net transfer of payments over a period of time, such as remittances.

Q.4. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: • Statement 1 is incorrect: Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released by Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) every month. • Statement 2 is correct: The eight core industries, constitute 40.27% of the total index of industrial production (IIP). Among them refinery products has highest weightage followed by electricity.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: All the statements are correct.

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28th August 2020 DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q.1. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: International Financial Service Centre Authority Bill, 2019 is applicable to the International Financial Service Centres set up under SEZ Act, 2005. The Authority will consist of 9 members appointed by Central government. It will include a member each from RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA and two from ministry of Finance. The term of office is 3 years.

Q.2. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation: Self - explanatory.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Several countries including UK, Malaysia, Singapore and New Zealand continue to use OSA to protect state secrets. It is applicable to both government servants as well as common citizens. The law makes spying, sharing ‘secret’ information, unauthorised use of uniforms, withholding information, interference with the armed forces in prohibited/restricted areas, among others, punishable offences. If guilty, a person may get up to 14 years’ imprisonment, a fine, or both.Section 5, which deals with potential breaches of national security, is often misinterpreted. The Section makes it a punishable offence to share information that may help an enemy state. The Section comes in handy for booking journalists when they publicise information that may cause embarrassment to the government or the armed forces. In case of conflict with RTI, provisions of RTI override OSA.

Q.4. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation: The value of vote of an MLA is calculated by dividing the population of that state by the number of MLAs from that state and thus the value of vote of each MLA differs from state to state. However, the value of vote of each MP is calculated by dividing the combined values of all MLAs by the total number of MPs and thus value of vote of each MP is same.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: Self explanatory.

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27th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: NCDC is a statutory authority under NCDC Act, 1963. It is under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s welfare. Loans and grants are advanced to State Governments for financing primary and secondary level cooperative societies and direct to the national level and other societies having objects extending beyond one State. Now, the Corporation can also go in for direct funding of projects under its various schemes of assistance on fulfilment of stipulated conditions.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: ASEEM Portal i.e. Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping is a portal of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship for helping skilled people find sustainable livelihood opportunities. It is developed and Managed by National Skill development Corporation.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Transgender Persons ( Protection of Rights ) Rules, 2020 issued by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment makes it mandatory for all establishments to have equal opportunity policies which provide for facilities on their premises such as Unisex toilets. It has removed the requirement of medical examination for getting certificate of Identity. DM would issue transgender identity certificate and card based on an affidavit by the applicant.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: Elephant was the official seal of the Indian Constitution. S.N. Mukherjee was the chief draftsman of the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly. Prem Behari Narain Raizada wrote the Indian Constitution in a flowing italic style. Original Constitution didn’t make any provision with respect to authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi Language. It was later added by 58th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987. This inserted article 394-A in Part XXII.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Double Jeopardy under Article 20(2) has been explained by the court in Maqbool Hussain vs. State of Bombay case. If a person is acquitted by the Court, the state can appeal against the acquittal as the person has not been prosecuted which is a requirement of Article 20(2). A continuing offence is not judged as a single offence but is seen as the person committing the offence daily and each offence is different. The word prosecution in Double Jeopardy shows that the act has to be criminal in nature and not civil.

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26th August 2020 DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

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 24th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

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21st August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020 Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: Emergency can be applied by the President if he/she is convinced of an imminent danger. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act allowed the emergency to be limited to a section of India. Emergency needs to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament through a special majority. However, it can be disapproved through simple majority. Article 359 allows the President to suspend the right to move court against contravention of Fundamental right and thus the rights are not suspended but there enforcement is suspended.Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: Any property in India that would have accrued to King of England or rule of Indian state (princely) by escheat ( death of a person without any heir), lapse (termination of rights through disuse) or bona vacantia ( property found without any owner) for want of a rightful owner, now rests in the state if the property is situated there and in the Union, in any other case.Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: Gram Nyayalays are established for every Gram Panchayat or a group of contiguous Panchayats at the intermediate levels. It exercises both civil and criminal jurisdiction. Both Centre and State government can amend the First and Second schedule of the Act which determines its jurisdiction. Appeal to Gram Nyayalayas in civil case lies with District Court and in criminal cases to the Court of Session. The appeals have to be disposed off within 6 months.Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Central Consumer Protection Authority has been established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 . Also, Central and State Consumer Protection Council will be created by centre and state respectively. Their recommendations will be advisory in nature. The product liability extends to seller, manufacturer and product service provider.Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Integrated Management of PDS was in news due to One nation one ration card. IMPDS is a central sector scheme under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, food and Public distribution. Migrants will be allowed to purchase half of their family quota.

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20th August 2020 DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: The impeachment process can be initiated in either House of the Parliament. He can be impeached only on the ground of “violation of the Constitution”. There is slight difference in the majority required for impeachment of President and impeachment of Supreme Court judge. While for the impeachment of President, the majority required in two-third of total membership of the House, for the Supreme Court, it is half of total membership and two-third of present and voting.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Judicial Activism has been an ongoing debate in the news and thus it is pertinent to know the causes behind Judicial Activism. The main reasons are the failure of Legislature and Executive due to electoral politics or due to formation of Coalition government, Expansion of rights and thus excessive legal battles for it, Subordinate legislation without limitations etc.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: The state legislature is not automatically dissolved on the imposition of the President rule. However, the legislative power rests with the Parliament for the time being. Laws made during the operation of President rule remain operative even after the invocation of President rule. As per the S.R. Bommai verdict, President rule is under judicial review but the Court cannot check the correctness and adequacy of material for imposing President rule. It can only check whether the material was relevant for imposing President rule.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Inner Line Permit comes from the colonial era through the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act, 1873. It frames regulations restricting the entry and stay of outsiders in designated areas. States under it are Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. Meghalaya cabinet has passed another system through Meghalaya Residents Safety and Security Act, 2016, which might lead to similar rules like ILP.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: NDIAC Act, 2019 replaces ICADR. It will be headed be headed by a Chairperson who has been either a Supreme Court Judge or High Court Judge or an eminent person. The Arbitration Council of India is created by Arbitration and Conciliation ( Amendment ) Act, 2019 and not NDIAC Act, 2019.

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18th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: An Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only. The reservation for Anglo Indians has been done away by the 126th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court on river water dispute has been barred by the Constitution through the Article 262 of the Indian Constitution. However, the Supreme Court hears the dispute through Article 136 which is special leave petition. Special Leave petition is a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: The idea of justice is with respect to the State and thus it seeks to determine the policy of the state in ensuring justice. Thus, it doesn’t seek to eliminate social distinctions or eliminate inequalities but ensure that the state doesn’t discriminate on the basis of these criteria. Thus idea of Justice has three components – Social, Economic and Political. Social Justice denotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction. Economic Justice Seeks the state to eliminate inequalities in wealth, income and property. And Political Justice implies that all citizens should have equal political rights.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation: The Commission submits its report only to the President who forwards any report pertaining to a state to its concerned Governor. NCSC looks at the welfare of Anglo Indian Community and not NCST. NCSC earlier used to look at the welfare of OBCs too but this has been done away by the Constitutional 102nd Amendment Act.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation: Only Pensions of the judges of High Court are charged on the Constitution of India.

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17th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020.

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: The question is based on the recent case of removal of state High Commissioner by the Andhra Pradesh government through an ordinance amending the Panchayati Raj Act. The High Court while setting aside the amendment, commented that the power to appoint State Election Commissioner rests only with Governor and not the Government under Article 243K to 243ZA. Also, Bureaucrats can be considered for the post of State Election Commissioner.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation : The question pertains to the recent RTI Amendment Act along with the basics of RTI. Public authorities under the RTI Act includes the bodies of self-government established under the Constitution, law or government notification. It also includes Ministries, Public sector undertakings, regulators along with NGOs and entities owned, controlled or substantially financed by the government. Secondly, CIC and IC used to hold office for a term of five years but with the RTI Amendment Act, 2019, this provision has been removed and thus terms of office is notified by the government. Lastly, an appellate body has been created under the RTI Act.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation : Finance Bill category I can be introduced only on the prior recommendation of the President while Finance Bill category II need President recommendation for consideration of the Bill i.e. just before voting. Till date, the decision of the Speaker with respect to Money Bill is final, However, the Supreme Court has referred the question to a larger bench to discuss the issue.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation : The Act empowers State/UT government to make special measures and formulate regulations for containing the outbreak. It gives legal protection to the implementing authority under the Act. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was punished under it for his Articles in Kesari regarding the handling of Bubonic Plague by the British.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation : Taxation subjects have been divided between Union and State list. However, with the introduction of GST Act, GST became the first taxation related subject to be introduced into the Concurrent list. President is empowered to make necessary changes to remove any difficulty in GST implementation. The term of Vice-chairperson of GST Council is decided by the Council itself and is not mentioned in the Act.

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 14th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Einstein’s special theory of relativity deals with objects moving in a straight line such as light. On the other hand, General theory of relativity deals with gravity.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: The Bill seeks to use DNA data for civil and criminal cases. It intends to create national and regional DNA data banks and a DNA regulatory authority which will comprise of 12 members including directors of investigative agency and a member of NHRC. However, it doesn’t seek to profile all individuals for their DNA. Mostly, DNA of criminals will be collected under it.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: A Explanation : Digital Certificate contains the following data – 1. 1. Certifying authority 2. Identity of Subscriber 3. Digital Signature 4. Public key of subscriber.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: C Explanation : ICANN is the authority that accredites the DNS and IP addresses and ensures proper coordination and working of Internet. In the starting, internet was controlled by US department of Commerce, but it was later shifted to ICANN which is a not for profit organisation. It doesn’t control the internet or the content on it but only ensures its smooth functioning.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Self-explanatory .

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13th August 2020 DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Protoplasmic fusion or somatic fusion is a physical phenomenon where the protoplasts of two similar or distinct species come in contact and adhere with one another either spontaneously or in presence of fusion inducing chemicals. The altered phenotype may include increased resistance to stress such as drought, freezing and heat, resistance to herbicides, fungicides, heavy metals, aluminum, salinity, pathogens and viruses.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: B Explanation: Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) under Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Ministry of Science and Technology was established in 1988 to support effective conservation measures including both in situ and ex situ conservation. It is India’s first scientific wildlife genetic resource bank which could be utilised to resurrect an animal species in case it gets extinct. It is headquartered in Hyderabad.

Q.3. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: Indian Genome Variation Initiative is an initiative of CSIR is the first largest scale comprehensive study of the Indian Population. One of the major aims of the project is to study and catalog the variations in nearly thousand candidate genes related to diseases and drug response for predictive marker discovery, founder identification and also to address questions related to ethnic diversity, migrations, extent and relatedness with other world population.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: RNA interference technology is used for silencing or suppressing a gene only present in the species. It is naturally occurring phenomenon in eukaryotes. It is being explored as a form of treatment for muscular degeneration, hepatitis, AIDS, Huntington disease and Cancer.

Q.5. The correct Answers is ANSWER: D Explanation: The question discusses the comparison between the two technologies. All the relevant points are given in the form of option.

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11th August 2020DAILY WISDOM TEST-THE PT QUEST 2020

Q1.  The correct Answers is Answer: A Explanation: In a recent study have found that stevioside, when coated on nanoparticles can increase the efficiency of Magnetic hyperthermia-mediated cancer therapy (MHCT). Aboutstevioside: • Stevioside is a natural plant-based glycoside found in the leaves of Honey yerba (‘Stevia rebaudianaBertoni’). • Stevioside is a glycoside derived from the stevia plant, which can be used as a sweetener. • Stevioside is the main sweetener with rebaudioside A, found in the leaves of Stevia rebaudiana, a plant originating in South America. • Stevioside was discovered in 1931 by French chemists who gave it its name. • The sweetening power of stevioside was estimated to be about 300 times stronger than cane sugar.

Q.2.  The correct Answers is Answer: C Explanation: Both statements are correct • Raman Spectroscopy is a non-destructive chemical analysis technique which provides detailed information about chemical structure, phase, crystallinity and molecular interactions. It is based upon the interaction of light with the chemical bonds within a material. • Recently the Mumbai-based Tata Memorial Centre has turned to Raman Spectroscopy to detect RNA viruses present in saliva samples of COVID-19 patients.

Q.3. The correct Answers is Answer: C Explanation: Statements 2is incorrect About Herd Immunity: • Herd immunity refers to preventing an infectious disease from spreading by immunising a certain percentage of the population. While the concept is most commonly used in the context of vaccination, herd community can also be achieved after enough people have become immune after being infected. • The premise is that if a certain percentage of the population is immune, members of that group can no longer infect another person. This breaks the chain of infection through the community (“herd”), and prevents it from reaching those who are the most vulnerable.

Q.4.  The correct Answers is Answer: A Explanation: Types of solar eclipses: • Total solar eclipse happens when the sun, moon and Earth are in a direct line. The dark silhouette of the Moon completely covers the intense bright light of the Sun. Only the much fainter solar corona is visible during a total eclipse which is known as a Totality. • Partial solar eclipse happens when the shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun. • Annular solar eclipse, which happens when the moon is farthest from the Earth, which is why it seems smaller. In this type of an eclipse, the moon does not block the sun completely, but looks like a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored disk” forming a “ring of fire”.

Q.5. The correct Answers is Answer: C Explanation: About Black hole • It is a great amount of matter packed into a very small area. • The result is a gravitational field so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape. • A black hole is a region of spacetime where gravity is so strong that nothing—no particles or even electromagnetic radiation such as light—can escape from it. • They were predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity.The theory of general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform spacetime to form a black hole.