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AWS-SysOps training materials
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Exam Code: AWS-SysOps
Exam Name: AWS Certified SysOps Administrator - Associate
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
AWS-SysOps Practice Test Total Q&A: 303 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-21,2016
AWS-SysOps Dumps PDF Detail: AWS-SysOps Practice Test
NO.1 A user is launching an EC2 instance in the US East region. Which of the below mentioned options is recommended by AWS with respect to the selection of the availability zone? A. The user can never select the availability zone while launching an instance B. Do not select the AZ; instead let AWS select the AZ C. Always select the US-East-1-a zone for HA D. Always select the AZ while launching an instance Answer: B AWS-SysOps Training online Explanation: When launching an instance with EC2, AWS recommends not to select the availability zone (AZ.. AWS specifies that the default Availability Zone should be accepted. This is because it enables AWS to select the best Availability Zone based on the system health and available capacity. If the user launches additional instances, only then an Availability Zone should be specified. This is to specify the same or different AZ from the running instances. NO.2 A user has configured the Auto Scaling group with the minimum capacity as 3 and the maximum capacity as 5. When the user configures the AS group, how many instances will Auto Scaling launch? A. 3 B. 0 C. 2 D. 5 Answer: D AWS-SysOps Bootcamp Explanation: When the user configures the launch configuration and the Auto Scaling group, the Auto Scaling group will start instances by launching the minimum number (or the desired number, if specified. of EC2 instances. If there are no other scaling conditions attached to the Auto Scaling group, it will maintain the minimum number of running instances at all times. NO.3 A root account owner is trying to understand the S3 bucket ACL. Which of the below mentioned options cannot be used to grant ACL on the object using the authorized predefined group? A. Canonical user group B. All users group C. Log Delivery Group D. Authenticated user group Answer: A AWS-SysOps Actual Test AWS-SysOps Exam Dumps Explanation: An S3 bucket ACL grantee can be an AWS account or one of the predefined Amazon S3 groups. Amazon S3 has a set of predefined groups. When granting account access to a group, the user can specify one of the URLs of that group instead of a canonical user ID. AWS S3 has the following predefined groups: Authenticated Users group: It represents all AWS accounts. All Users group: Access permission to this group allows anyone to access the resource. Log Delivery group: WRITE permission on a bucket enables this group to write server access logs to the bucket. NO.4 A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the client and load balancer. The ELB security policy supports various ciphers. Which of the below mentioned options helps identify the matching cipher at the client side to the ELB cipher list when client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL? A. Client Configuration Preference B. Load Balancer Preference C. Server Order Preference D. Cipher Protocol Answer: C AWS-SysOps Exam Dumps Explanation: Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the load balancer. When client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL and if the load balancer is configured to support the Server Order Preference, then the load balancer gets to select the first cipher in its list that matches any one of the ciphers in the client's list. Server Order Preference ensures that the load balancer determines which cipher is used for the SSL connection. NO.5 A user has two EC2 instances running in two separate regions. The user is running an internal memory management tool, which captures the data and sends it to CloudWatch in US East, using a CLI with the same namespace and metric. Which of the below mentioned options is true with respect to the above statement? A. CloudWatch will receive and aggregate the data based on the namespace and metric B. The setup will not work as CloudWatch cannot receive data across regions C. CloudWatch will give an error since the data will conflict due to two sources D. CloudWatch will take the data of the server, which sends the data first Answer: A AWS-SysOps Real Questions Explanation: Amazon CloudWatch does not differentiate the source of a metric when receiving custom data. If the user is publishing a metric with the same namespace and dimensions from different sources, CloudWatch will treat them as a single metric. If the data is coming with the same timezone within a minute, CloudWatch will aggregate the data. It treats these as a single metric, allowing the user to get the statistics, such as minimum, maximum, average, and the sum of all across all servers. NO.6 A user runs the command "dd if=/dev/xvdf of=/dev/null bs=1M" on an EBS volume created from a snapshot and attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user performing with the step given above? A. Copying the data from a snapshot to the device B. Pre warming the EBS volume C. Formatting the volume D. Initiating the device to mount on the EBS volume Answer: B AWS-SysOps pdf AWS-SysOps demo Explanation: When the user creates an EBS volume and is trying to access it for the first time it will encounter reduced IOPS due to wiping or initiating of the block storage. To avoid this as well as achieve the best performance it is required to pre warm the EBS volume. For a volume created from a snapshot and attached with a Linux OS, the "dd" command pre warms the existing data on EBS and any restored snapshots of volumes that have been previously fully pre warmed. This command maintains incremental snapshots; however, because this operation is read-only, it does not pre warm unused space that has never been written to on the original volume. In the command "dd if=/dev/xvdf of=/dev/null bs=1M" , the parameter "if=input file" should be set to the drive that the user wishes to warm. The "of=output file" parameter should be set to the Linux null virtual device, /dev/null. The "bs" parameter sets the block size of the read operation; for optimal performance, this should be set to 1 MB. NO.7 A user is configuring a CloudWatch alarm on RDS to receive a notification when the CPU utilization of RDS is higher than 50%. The user has setup an alarm when there is some inactivity on RDS, such as RDS unavailability. How can the user configure this? A. Setup the notification when the CPU utilization is less than 10% B. It is not possible to setup the alarm on RDS C. Setup the notification when the state is Insufficient Data D. Setup the notification when the CPU is more than 75% on RDS Answer: C AWS-SysOps exam dumps AWS-SysOps study guide Explanation: Amazon CloudWatch alarms watch a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a number of time periods. The alarm has three states: Alarm, OK and Insufficient data. The Alarm will change to Insufficient Data when any of the three situations arise: when the alarm has just started, when the metric is not available or when enough data is not available for the metric to determine the alarm state. If the user wants to find that RDS is not available, he can setup to receive the notification when the state is in Insufficient data. NO.8 A user has configured an EC2 instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user has enabled detailed monitoring of the instance. The user is trying to get the data from CloudWatch using a CLI. Which of the below mentioned CloudWatch endpoint URLs should the user use? A. monitoring.us-east-1.amazonaws.com B. monitoring.us-east-1-a.amazonaws.com C. monitoring.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com D. cloudwatch.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com Answer: A AWS-SysOps Free Demo Explanation: The CloudWatch resources are always region specific and they will have the end point as region specific. If the user is trying to access the metric in the US-East-1 region, the endpoint URL will be: monitoring.us-east- 1.amazonaws.com
Exam Blueprint Introduction The AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate Level exam validates a candidate’s ability to: Deliver the stability and scalability needed by a business on AWS Provision systems, services and deployment automation on AWS Ensure data integrity and data security on AWS technology Provide guidance on AWS best practices Understand and monitor metrics on AWS
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642-035 Test Questions, 300-209 Exam Dumps
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Exam Code: 642-035
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
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642-035 Test Questions Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-21,2016
642-035 Braindumps Detail: 642-035 Test Questions
Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
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300-209 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 174 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-21,2016
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NO.1 Refer to Exhibit 5. Which of the following is true regarding password recovery for the Cisco IMC GUI interface? A. Enter the Cisco IMC BIOS to reset the GUI password B. Type RECOVER into the Username field, and then type SYSTEM in the Password field to enter recovery mode C. From the KVM Console, press F12 during POST to reset the credentials to admin/password D. Refer to the model-specific Cisco UCS C-Series Hardware guide to learn the location of the recovery jumper on the server motherboard Answer: A 642-035 Real Exams 642-035 Training Materials NO.2 In new Cisco UCS release 2.0 installations, what are the default VLAN IDs? A. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 3968 B. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 2 C. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 4048, FCOE default VLAN ID 4048 D. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 2, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4047 E. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4048 Answer: E 642-035 Real Questions NO.3 A Cisco UCS chassis has two ports on I/O Module 1 connected to Fabric Interconnect A, and two ports on I/O Module 2 connected to Fabric Interconnect B. The I/O modules are connected to ports 1 and 2 on their respective fabric interconnects, and end host mode is configured. After a link failure occurs on port 1 of I/O Module 1, what happens to the traffic that was pinned to that link? A. The traffic is repinned automatically to Fabric Interconnect B. B. The traffic is repinned to I/O Module 2 link 1, which is connected to Fabric Interconnect C. C. The traffic is repinned to the remaining link between I/O Module 1 and Fabric Interconnect A. D. The traffic fails until the link issue is resolved. Answer: 642-035 Exam Dumps 642-035 Real Exams NO.4 On a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which two options are valid traffic sources that can be monitored, when configuring a SPAN session for a port channel? A. egress and the SAN port channel only B. ingress, egress, and the SAN port channel C. ingress and the SAN port channel only D. ingress and egress only Answer: C 642-035 exam simulations NO.5 Which two commands check for DIMM errors in a Cisco UCS environment? (Choose two.) A. UCS-TEST/chassis/server/memory-array#show stats B. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show execute-disable C. UCS-TEST/chassis/server/memory-array #show block D. UCS-TEST/chassis#show error-recovery E. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show error-recovery F. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show memory-array detail Answer: A,F 642-035 test questions NO.6 What is the correct procedure to change Ethernet switching modes? A. Navigate to the subordinate Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose "Set Ethernet Switching mode", wait for it to come back up, and repeat on the primary FI. B. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose "Set Ethernet Switching mode", and wait while both FIs reboot simultaneously. C. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI and transparently update the mode to switching. Repeat on the other Fabric Interconnect. D. Simply start using the switching features. The Fabric Interconnect automatically reconfigures to use Ethernet Switching Mode. Answer: B NO.7 How does the FSM react after an error or timeout at a stage? A. raises faults and continues B. retries that stage at scheduled intervals C. stops D. retries until successful E. continues Answer: B 642-035 Exam Prep NO.8 You must check the path that vNICs uses to communicate. How can you verify whether a vNIC on a Cisco UCS server is in an active state or a failover state? A. Connect to the adapter and execute the Master Control Program. B. Run the show interface brief command. C. Run the show interface status command. D. Compare the state on both fabric interconnects. Answer: D 642-035 Real Dumps
Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Exam Number 300-209 SIMOS Associated Certifications CCNP Security Duration 90 minutes (65 - 75 questions) Available Languages English, Japanese Register
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312-50v9 exam tests, Certified Ethical Hacker v9 Exam
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Exam Code: 312-50v9
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v9 Exam
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312-50v9 Study Guide Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-21,2016
312-50v9 Exam Dumps Detail: 312-50v9 Study Guide
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2V0-620 actual test, vSphere 6 Foundations Beta Exam
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Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta Exam
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2V0-620 Real Dumps Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-21,2016
2V0-620 Training online Detail: 2V0-620 Real Dumps
NO.1 The vSphere administrator attempts to connect to an ESXi host via an SSH client and receives the following security alert: -- Exhibit - -- Exhibit -The vSphere administrator needs to determine whether the RSA key fingerprint shown in the security alert is the fingerprint of the intended ESXi host. Which tool should the vSphere administrator use? A. Direct Console User Interface B. vSphere Web Client C. vSphere Management Assistant D. vSphere Client Answer: A 2V0-620 test questions NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit. -- Exhibit - An administrator has been given requirements to configure vMotion for a new virtual machine. The configuration should: - Provide Network Redundancy - Use VLAN 550 - Be secured against anyone trying to spoof communication The vSwitch1 configuration is shown in the Exhibit. Which three changes should be made to meet the stated requirements? (Choose three.) A. The default values for MAC Address Changes and Forged Transmits must be altered. B. The Traffic Shaping configuration must be altered. C. The teaming and failover adapters must be set appropriately. D. The VLAN ID must be set appropriately. E. The Load Balancing Policy must be set appropriately. Answer: A,C,D NO.3 An administrator is deploying multiple Windows 2003 Virtual Machines from the same template. What two steps should be taken to avoid network conflicts? (Choose two.) A. Ensure the e1000 vmnic is selected for each new virtual machine. B. Install VMware Tools into the new virtual machines. C. Customize the guest operating system. D. Copy the Microsoft Sysprep tools onto the vCenter Server system. Answer: C,D 2V0-620 Training online NO.4 A High Availability (HA) cluster is configured to respond to a given number of host failures. The cluster contains virtual machines configured with these settings: - VM1 has a 1GHz CPU reservation and no Memory reservation - VM2 has a 2GHz CPU reservation and no Memory reservation - VM3 has no CPU reservation and no Memory reservation Given this information, what is the correct slot size for the cluster? A. The CPU reservation should be set to 2 GHz, and the memory reservation should be set to 32MB, plus the virtual machine memory overhead. B. The CPU reservation should be set to 2 GHz, and the memory reservation should be set to 0MB plus the virtual machine memory overhead. C. The CPU Reservation should be set to 32MHz and the memory reservation should be set to 32MB plus memory overhead. D. The CPU reservation should be set to 1 GHz and the memory reservation should be set to 0MB plus memory overhead. Answer: B 2V0-620 practice test 2V0-620 Exam Dumps NO.5 When you add an ESXi 6.x host to a new Cluster, which vSphere object owns the CPU and Memory resources of the hosts? A. Cluster B. Datacenter C. vCenter Server D. Host Answer: A 2V0-620 Latest Dumps NO.6 Which two parameters are required when adding an iSCSI target to an iSCSI Software Adapter using Dynamic Discovery? (Choose two.) A. The Port Number B. The Default Gateway IP Address C. The iSCSI device's IP Address or Fully Qualified Domain Name D. The iSCSI device's iSCSI Qualified Name (IQN) Answer: A,C 2V0-620 braindump NO.7 An administrator has recently installed a new ESXi 6.x Host, and during the configuration notices sporadic network problems. To check whether the issue occurred sometime during the configuration, the administrator would like to reset the system. How can this be accomplished in the shortest amount of time? A. Select the Reset System Configuration option from the vSphere Client when connected directly to the host. B. From the Direct Console User Interface, select Reset System Configuration. C. Use a host profile to reset the configuration to a default state. D. Run the ESXi installer again and reinstall the host. Answer: B 2V0-620 braindump NO.8 When modifying a vApp, which two vSphere entities can be added? (Choose two.) A. A resource pool B. A network pool C. A vApp D. A folder Answer: A,C 2V0-620 Real Exams
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1z0-882 Dumps PDF, 1Z0-055 Free Demo
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
Exam Number: 1Z0-055 / 1Z0-055
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional , OPN Certified Specialist
Number of Questions: 84
Exam Product Version: Oracle Database 11g,
Passing Score: 61%
Exam Price: US$ 150
NO.1 Observe the following warning in an RMAN session of your database instance: WARNING: new failures were found since last LIST FAILURE command Which statement describes the scenario that must have produced this warning? A. The CHANGE FAILURE command has detected new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). B. The RECOVER command has detected new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) since the last LIST FAILURE command was executed. C. The ADVISE FAILURE command has detected new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) since the last LIST FAILURE. D. The VALIDATE DATABASE command has detected new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Answer: C 1Z0-055 certification NO.2 In which situations will the ASM metadata backup help you recover the ASM disk in a disk group? (Choose all that apply.) A. when one of the disks in a disk group is accidentally unplugged B. when the data file on an ASM disk group gets corrupted C. when one or more file directory paths are accidentally deleted from an ASM disk group D. when one or more disks in an ASM disk group are lost Answer: C,D 1Z0-055 Free download NO.3 View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V $DIAG_INFO view. Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.) A. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert. B. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace. C. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert. D. The location of the trace file for the current session is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace. Answer: B,C,D 1Z0-055 Exam Cost 1Z0-055 Exam Cram NO.4 View the Exhibit to examine the replay settings for replay parameters. What is the implication for setting the values for replay parameters? (Choose all that apply.) A. The value 100 in the THINK_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to match the captured user think time while replaying. B. The value 100 in the CONNECT_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to connect all sessions immediately as soon as the replay begins. C. The value 100 in the THINK_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to make the replay client shorten the think time between calls. D. The value 100 in the CONNECT_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to connect all sessions as captured. E. The COMMIT order in the captured workload is preserved during replay. Answer: A,D,E 1Z0-055 Test Answers 1Z0-055 test answers NO.5 Which two statements regarding a SQL profile are true? (Choose two.) A. It can be created manually by using the CREATE PROFILE command. B. It can be used by the query optimizer automatically. C. It is built by Automatic Tuning Optimizer. D. It cannot be stored persistently in the data dictionary. Answer: B,C 1Z0-055 Study Materials NO.6 Examine the following PL/SQL block: DECLARE my_plans pls_integer; BEGIN my_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_id => ?9twu5t2dn5xd?; END; Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command? A. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status. B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status. C. It is loaded with the FIXED status. D. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status. Answer: B NO.7 You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance. At the end of the day, while all three production database instances are running, you execute the following command on the ASM instance : SQL> shutdown immediate; What is the result of executing this command? A. All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode. B. The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running. C. HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode. D. It results in an error because other database instances are connected to it. Answer: D NO.8 A PL/SQL procedure queries only those columns of a redefined table that were unchanged by the online table redefinition. What happens to the PL/SQL procedure after the online table redefinition? A. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition but automatically gets revalidated the next time it is used. B. It remains valid. C. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition and is automatically recompiled during online redefinition of the table. D. It becomes invalid only if the storage parameters have been modified and it automatically gets revalidated the next time it is used. Answer: B 1Z0-055 Training Materials
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Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013
Published: April 5, 2013
Languages: English
Audiences: Partners
Technology: Project 2013
Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Specialist
Initialize a project (15–20%)
Create a task-based schedule (20–25%)
Manage resources and assignments (20–25%)
Track and analyze a project (20–25%)
Communicate project information (15–20%)
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Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Number 300-115 SWITCH Associated Certifications CCNP Routing and Switching
CCDP Duration 120 minutes (45-65 questions) Available Languages English Register
Pearson VUE
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Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The SWITCH 300-115 exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.
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Exam Number: 1Z0-420 / 1Z0-420
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: OPN Certified Specialist , Oracle Fusion HCM: Talent Management 2014 Certified Implementation Specialist
Number of Questions: 79
Exam Product Version: Fusion Human Capital Management,
Passing Score: 71%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against Oracle Fusion Talent Management 11g.
format: Multiple Choice
Recommended Training
Fusion Applications: HCM Talent Management or
Oracle Fusion HCM: Talent Management 2014 Implementation Specialist
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070-532 Practice Questions Detail: 070-532 Study Guide
Exam Code: 070-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
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070-534 Training online Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 01-13,2016
070-534 Latest Dumps Detail: 070-534 Training online
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NO.1 HOTSPOT You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area. Answer: NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do? A. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter. B. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method. C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter. D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method. Answer: A 070-532 Exam Cost NO.3 DRAG DROP You create a new web application by using a single Azure website deployment. The deployment uses the shared web hosting plan. User activity varies significantly and unpredictably. The application must automatically scale to a maximum of eight virtual machines based on CPU utilization. You need to configure the environment. In the Azure management portal, which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Answer: NO.4 You need to configure the virtual network. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Configure a multi-site virtual network. B. Configure a site-to-site virtual network. C. Configure a cloud-only virtual network. D. Configure a point-to-site virtual network. Answer: B,D 070-532 Test Questions NO.5 HOTSPOT You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data. You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements: - Retry when a conflict error code is encountered. - Retry when a storage exception is encountered. - Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached. You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area. Answer: NO.6 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Application logs B. Crash dumps C. Performance counters D. Event logs E. Infrastructure logs F. IIS logs Answer: B,D 070-532 Practice Questions 070-532 Latest Dumps NO.7 A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables. Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs). You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following: - Understand which storage areas perform operations that incur a fee. - Understand which requests are denied because of insufficient permissions. - Validate that the performance of the storage account meets the service level agreement (SLA) for the Azure Storage service. Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services. B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA. C. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues. D. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable. E. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA. F. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues. Answer: A,B,F 070-532 Exam PDF NO.8 The website does not receive alerts quickly enough. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role. B. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role. C. Enable automatic scaling for the website. D. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance. E. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role. Answer: A 070-532 Practice Exam
Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Published: September 1, 2014
Languages: English
Audiences: Developers
Technology: Microsoft Visual Studio, Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Azure Developer Specialist
Design and implement websites (15?20%)
Create and manage virtual machines (20?25%)
Design and implement cloud services (20?25%)
Design and implement a storage strategy (20?25%)
Manage application and network services (15?20%)
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