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UGC NET PAPER 1 Question 2021 With Solutions

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UGC NET PAPER 1 Question 2021 With Solutions

UGC-NET is an exam directed by the National Testing Agency, twice a year, However, due to an unsolicited pandemic, it was accomplished once a year for two consecutive years i.e 2020 and 2021. The students, as well as teachers, glimpsed a significant hike in the level of questions asked by UGC-NET. They are undoubtedly in demand of students who comprehend every concept and can manage pressure within a restricted time frame. My friends, trust me gone are the days when you can clear the UGC net exam just by stuffing a few concepts. Now UGC-NET wants you to understand each idea so that only the well-deserved can qualify.

Question#1- What is the name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error‐free?

I‐score

Neutral score

True score

Z‐score

Correct Answer: ‐ I‐score Explanation- This question is taken from the teaching and the aptitude chapter. The teacher evaluated the performance of the students by different means and different criteria. The name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error‐free is I‐score

Question#2- “Contagious” spreading of behaviours through imitation, is known as

Random effect

Ripple effect

Scripted effect

Norm effect

Correct Answer: ‐ Random effect Behavioural contagious is a form of social contagion which spreads through the group. More prevalent in the young age group. In this, a person tries to imitate another person either his ideal or some socially famous personality like a hero or cricketer. It results in losing their own identity.

Question#3 – Given below are two statements

Statement I: In all interactions, a message is sent and a message is received. Sometimes teachers believe they are sending one message, but their voices, body language, choice of words, and gestures may communicate a different message.

Statement II: To deal with cyberbullying, parents should be encouraged to keep computers in a public room in the house.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question #4 – Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

2. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

Correct Answer:‐ A-IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Question#5- Which among the following are components of decision traps to illustrate what needs to be a possible evaluatory framework to monitor the learning process?

A. Overconfidence

B. Coaching

C. Frame blindness

D. Taking shortcuts

E. Persistent misconception

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D only

2. A, D and E only

3. B, D and E only

4. B, C and D only

Correct Answer:‐ A, C and D only Explanation- As we all know learning is not a one-night process. It takes time to learn and it has its own speed. It also varies from person to person. Some students perceive in a very short term and other students will take a longer time in understanding and comprehend the same question

Question#6 – The rationalistic mode of knowledge accepts the rules of

1. Legality

2. Manipulation

3. Logic

4. Authority

Correct Answer:‐ Legality Rationalistic mode means that depends on the reasons ratchet then on the subjective views of a particular person.

Question#7- Which of the following reliability techniques are used in qualitative research?

A. Diachronic reliability

B. Quixotic reliability

C. Synchronic reliability

D. Holsti’s constant

E. Chronbach’s alpha

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, C and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- Quantitative studies- is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies.It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts. The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

Question#8- Which of the following are the essential characteristics of the case study method?

A. Negatively oriented

B. Appreciation oriented

C. Particularistic

D. Descriptive

E. Inductive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, B and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Explanation- The case study method is a form of qualitative analysis which means you have to do a very careful study and a deep observation to find out a theory, but here one thing is to remember that though we try to get a theory out of qualitative study it is not the only motive of a qualitative study. It is more than this.. It is a method of study in depth rather than breadth. It is a method in which a deep study of the same structure is organized to apply the outcome of the problem to get a solution.

Question#9- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Qualitative research is impressionistic and subjective.

Statement II: Quantitative research has a higher level of possibility of generalising the findings.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.

Question#10- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

3. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

4. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

Question#11- A competent communicator is

A. Culturally neutral

B. Culturally sensitive

C. Totally ethical

D. Situationally ethical

E. An effective listener

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. B, C and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Explanation- Competent communicators are beware of their own beliefs and ethical values, and are always conscious of their behaviours while communicating. They self-monitor their behaviour and always work in terms of improving it.

Question#12- Information provided before sending the primary message is known as

Question- Information provided before sending the primary message is known as

1. Intro

2. Indicator

3. Pre‐message

4. Feed forward

Correct Answer:‐ Intro

Question#13 – Given below are two statements

Statement I: People use non‐verbal cues more than verbal cues.

Statement II: Non‐verbal cues have better believability than spoken words.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question#14- What number should replace the question mark – 48, 67, 78, ?, 789

1. 126

2. 89

3. 98

4. 146

Correct Answer:‐ 126

Question#15- A man weighs 75% of his own weight plus 39 lbs. How much does he weigh?

1. 165 lbs

2. 160 lbs

3. 156 lbs

4. 166 lbs

Correct Answer:‐ 165 lbs

Explanation (Try Solving Your self!)- Here is one example for your reference(A man weight 75% of his own + 19 Kg ). Assuming his weight = x So, x=0.75x+19 //His total weight being 75% of x + 19kg … lets solve the equation

x-0.75x=19 Then 0.25x=19 hence x=19/0.25 finally x=76 – And there you have it. His weight is 76 kg.

Question#16 – Ravi’s salary is increased by 20%. On the increased salary, the tax rate is 10% higher. The percentage increase in tax liability is

1. 20 %

2. 22 %

3. 23 %

4. 24 %

Question#17 – Given below are two statements

Statement I: A 60 m long train passes a 90 m platform in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is 45 km/hour.

Statement II: If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a:b, then the ratio of the time taken by them to cover the same distance is a:b.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question#18 – Answer the following statements

A. At a 5% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years.

B. A sum becomes double in 10 years. The annual rate of simple interest is 12%.

C. ₹1000 will become ₹1331 in 3 years at a compound interest rate of 10% per annum.

Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

1. C only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A and B only

Correct Answer:‐ C only

Question#19- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ II

Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

Question#20- Name the fallacy committed in the argument

All dogs are mammals.

No cats are dogs. Therefore, no cats are mammals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Illicit Major

2. Illicit Minorfallacy

3. Undistributed Middle

4. Existential Fallacy

Correct Answer:‐ Illicit Major

Explanation- Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises. As we see, fallacies can be committed in many ways, but usually, they involve either a mistake in reasoning or the creation of some illusion that makes a bad argument appear good or bad (either). An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.

Question #21- From the options given below, pick the CORRECT sequence in the context of constituent parts of inference

1. Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijña

2. Nigamana, Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Upanaya, Pratijña

3. Pratijña, Hetu, Upanaya, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana

4. Pratijña, Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Upanaya, Nigamana

Correct Answer :‐ Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijña

Question#22- The example ‘sound is eternal because it is caused’ represents which of the following Hetvabhasa ‘

1. Ashrayāsiddha

2. Svarūpāsiddha

3. Viruddha

4. Kālātita

Correct Answer:‐ Ashrayāsiddha

Question#23 – Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: A good computer networking solution can be very much beneficial for your business.

Reason R: With computer networking, you can cut back on costs and allow for efficient use of resources.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question#24 – Arrange the following optical storage devices in increasing order of their storage capacity.

A. DVD

B. CD‐ROM

C. Blu‐Ray

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C

2. B, A, C

3. A, C, B

4. B, C, A

Correct Answer:‐ A, B, C Explanation- DVD has the minimum storage capacity in the above-given options.

Question#25 – Given below are two statements

Statement I: Tablet computers have touch screens.

Statement II: A tablet computer has a keyboard.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation- As explained earlier, in some questions you only have to apply common sense and your 2 marks are in your hands.

Question#26- Which of the following statements about desktop and laptop computers are TRUE?

A. Most modern laptop computers have built‐in webcams

B. Desktop computers are not very portable

C. All desktop computers have a built‐in touchpad

D. Laptop computers are rarely supplied with a mouse

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, B and D only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and D only Explanation- these three statements – Most modern laptop computers have built‐in webcams, Desktop computers are not very portable, and All desktop computers have built‐in touchpads is false.

Question#27 – Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

2. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ I

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Question#28- If the wind speeds increase from 4.0 m/s to 5.0 m/s, the power output from an ideal windmill will increase by a factor of about

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

Correct Answer:‐ 2

Explanation- Power output is calculated as follows: power = [(air density) times (swept area of blades) times (wind speed cubed)] divided by 2. The area is in meters squared, air density is in kilograms per meter cubed and wind speed is in meters per second.

Question# 29 – In which year did the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol come to an end?

1. 2011

2. 2012

3. 2014

4. 2008

Correct Answer:‐ 2011

Question #30 – Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II

3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

Question# 31- Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is related to sustainable consumption and production patterns?

1. SDG 9

2. SDG 10

3. SDG 11

4. SDG 12

Correct Answer:‐ SDG 9

Explanation- The energy which is obtained from natural resources like wind, tides, solar, biomass, etc are called non-conventional sources of energy. These are pollution-free and hence we can use these to produce a clean form of energy. Therefore greater use of the non-conventional source of energy should be promoted.

Question#32 – What fraction (%) of the total primary energy used in India is derived from biomass?

1. ~ 32%

2. ~ 42%

3. ~ 56%

4. ~ 22%

Correct Answer:‐ ~ 32%

Explanation- Biomass energy – When plants and animal material is used as fuel to produce electricity or heat is called biomass energy. bio means living being and mass means material so energy is obtained by using the mass of living beings (plants and animals) is called biomass. example – wood, corn, soybean, crop residues, and organic waste. We can burn biomass directly to produce heat and electricity and can be easily converted to liquid fuel and gas through the process of fermentation and anaerobic digestion. Biomass Is an important source of renewable energy that is gaining importance in developed countries for electricity and transportation. Biomass such as municipal waste and cattle manure is used to produce methane through anaerobic digestion.

Question#33 – What does NIRF stand for?

1. National Institute of Ranking Federation

2. National Institute of Ranking Framework/

3. National Institutional Ranking Framework

4. National Institutional Ranking Federation

Correct Answer:‐ National Institute of Ranking Federation

Question#34 – The term ‘open learning’ represent approaches that focus on

A. Opening access to education and training provision

B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place

C. Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum

D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to individuals and groups of learners

E. Making students free from any educational loads Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, B and E only

4. B, C and D only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Explanation- Opening access to education and training provision, Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place, Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum.

Question# 35- In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two kinds. They are:

A. Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses

B. Skill Enhancement Compulsory Courses

C. Ability Enhancement Elective Courses

D. Skill Enhancement Elective Courses

E. Skill Enhancement Courses

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. A and D only

4. A and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A and B only

Question#36 – Which of the following is a private university?

1. Anna University

2. BITS Pilani

3. Burdwan University

4. IIIT Correct

Answer:‐ Anna University

Question#37- India has been attracting only a fraction of international students because of

A. Lack of residential accommodation for foreign students

B. Difficulties in recognition of international qualification

C. Rigid admission process

D. Lack of enthusiasm among teachers

E. Lack of enthusiasm among students

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A and B only

Question#38 – Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. A global light pollution map developed by a group of researchers has ranked New Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru as the three cities with the highest light pollution in India. It should serve to alert us to the looming problem of light pollution about which we are not only doing so little to prevent but are also unaware about. Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting. While artificial outdoor lighting is needed in the form of street lights it increases safety on roads and enables us to study and work in the dark, its use for floodlighting, illumination, advertising, etc has grown manifold in recent decades, resulting in the problem of light pollution. Studies show that the brightness from outdoor lights has risen steadily across India over a 20 year period, with New Delhi, Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh showing a “very high light intensity pollution” rise between 1993 and 2013. The use of excessive artificial outdoor lighting has several harmful implications not just for human health but for the wellbeing of animals, birds, insects and our environment. Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of ‘loss of night.’ We find it difficult to fall asleep when the glow of streets enters our homes. It impacts our sleep‐wake rhythm, which could have serious implications for our moods and health. Illumination of gardens impacts animals and insects too. It is nocturnal insects and birds that suffer the most due to light pollution. It makes them disoriented, impacts their reproduction and thus their populations.

Read More – Tricks To Solve Paper 1 Reading Comprehension UGC NET Exam (ugcnetpaper1.com)

Question#39 – The light pollution map is related to the adverse effects of

1. Sunlight

2. Outdoor artificial light

3. Urban electricity projects

4. Rural electricity projects

Correct Answer:‐ Sunlight

Question# 40- One of the major pollutants is in the form of

1. Indoor lights

2. Street lights

3. Home lights

4. Illuminated advertising

Correct Answer :‐ Indoor lights

Question#41 – Light pollution intensity refers to

1. Increased outdoor brightness during nighttime

2. Manifold hike in the use of electricity in rural areas

3. Use of artificial light for road safety

4. More and more use of electricity in urban areas

Correct Answer:‐ Increased outdoor brightness during nighttime

Question#42 – Excessive hours of artificial light adversely impact our

A. Work schedule

B. Sleep cycle

C. Study hours

D. Moods and health

Question- Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. B and D only

4. C and D only

Correct Answer:‐ A and B only

Question#43 – The loss of the night, as mentioned in the passage, will lead to

1. More human productivity

2. Increase in education

3. The altered activities of nocturnal creatures

4. The well‐being of the human population

Correct Answer:‐ More human productivity

Question-Based on Data Interpretation

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Read – Solving Tricks | Data Interpretation NET EXAM | Updated 2021 (ugcnetpaper1.com)

Question#46- The total number of employees in Organisation C is approximately what percent of the total number of employees in Organisation D?

1. 147 %

2. 312 %

3. 207 %

4. 183 %

Correct Answer:‐ 147 %

Question#47 – What is the total number of males in all the five organisations together?

1. 13350

2. 14700

3. 15960

4. 16280

Correct Answer:‐ 13350

Question #48 – What is the ratio of the number of males in Organisation A to the number of males in Organisation C?

1. 18:31

2. 9:31

3. 7:27

4. 9:19

Correct Answer:‐ 18:31

Question#49- What is the difference between the number of females in Organisation E and the number of females in Organisation B?

1. 210

2. 350

3. 170

4. 300

Correct Answer:‐ 210

Question#50- What is the sum total of the number of females in Organisation D and the number of males in Organisation E?

1. 4375

2. 4475

3. 4500

4. 4875

Correct Answer:‐ 4375

#UGC NET Solved Papers

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lazykoalacollectionblog · 3 years ago

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NTA UGC NET PAPER1 DECEMBER 2021 | Solved With Explanation

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/nta-ugc-net-paper1-december-2021-solved-with-explanation/

NTA UGC NET PAPER1 DECEMBER 2021 | Solved With Explanation

This extract of Paper1 Question is the OFFICIAL Question Paper asked in Commerce Subject (Shared by Students During Answer Key Review) & Answer Key for the UGC NET December 2021 Paper taken from www.ugcnet.nta.nic.in.

They are undoubtedly in demand of students who comprehend every concept and can manage pressure within a restricted time frame. My friends, trust me gone are the days when you can clear the UGC net exam just by stuffing a few concepts. Now UGC-NET wants you to understand each idea so that only the well-deserved can qualify.

Question #1 – Which region of the brain is involved in our ability to learn new information, particularly if it is verbal?

Cerebrum

Hippocampus

Pons

Thalamus

Correct Answer:‐ Cerebrum Explanation– See, Many questions asked by ugc-net are very irrelevant. You can not answer each and every question irrespective of how much you study. So, don’t pay attention to these questions. Always focus on what you know and just make sure you don’t mark them incorrectly. Cerebrum– The largest part of the brain. It is divided into two hemispheres, or halves called the cerebral hemispheres. Areas within the cerebrum control muscle functions and also control speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. Question #2- mooKIT platform uses _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _, an open-source content management system.

DRUPAL

JOOMLA

SAKAI

Moodle

Correct Answer:‐ DRUPAL

Question #3- INFLIBNET Centre, which is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintains

Swayam Prabha

e‐Pathshala

e‐Gyankosh

Shodhganga

Correct Answer:‐ Swayam Prabha Explanation- Information and Library Network Centre is an organisation that promotes and facilitates libraries and information resources for Indian further education. Its premises are in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The Centre started in March 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics. This is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintained by Swayam Prabha which is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resources Development to provide 32 High-Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to home).

Question #4- Given below are two statements

Statement I: According to Piaget, the ability to solve conservation problems depends on having an understanding of three basic aspects of reasoning: identity, compensation, and reversibility.

Statement II: The stage of classification does not depend on a student’s ability to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set and group the objects according to that characteristic.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions. Jean William Fritz Piaget was a Swiss psychologist known for his work on child development. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development and epistemological view are together called “genetic epistemology”. Piaget placed great importance on the education of children

Question #5- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes ________________.

A. Immediate family

B. School

C. Beliefs

D. Customs

E. Neighbourhood

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, C and E only

3. A, B and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes Immediate family, School, and Beliefs

Question #6- Which one of the following is an important characteristic of the researchers involved in a qualitative study?

Non‐partisan

Reflexivity

Transparency

Enthusiasm

Correct Answer:‐ Non‐partisan Explanation- Quantitative studies– is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies. It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts. The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

Question #76 – Some of the types of hypothesis are as follows:

A. Descriptive

B. Null

C. Confounding

D. Intervening

E. Explanatory (Causal)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B and D only

4. A, B and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research. Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.

Question #8- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will meet during the study.

Statement II: Through exploration, researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #9- Survey research is based on one of the following?

1. Constructivism

2. Interpretivism

3. Positivism

4. Hermeneutics

Correct Answer:‐ Constructivism Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research

Positivism– it was the era in which science started advancing and people started believing in science and logic behind everything and they accepted that everything is because of science and everything can be proved on the basics of facts. Only objectivity mattered to them. Human beings were the centre for them.

Post positivist- We can say post-positivists were a mixture of both. They believed in science with the acceptance that everything is not in the hands of human beings. there are some higher powers. Everything cannot be proved with objectivity. So they were both subjective and objective with their approach. They were realistic and accepted their own limitations. Hence, post-positivists were realistic in their approach.

Question #10- Which among the following are non‐parametric statistics?

A. t‐test

B. F‐test

C. Spearman’s rank-order correlation

D. Mann‐Whitney‐Wilcoxon test

E. Kendall coefficient of concordance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. B, D and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- Nonparametric statistics is the branch of statistics that is not based solely on parametrized families of probability distributions. Nonparametric statistics are based on either being distribution-free or having a specified distribution but with the distribution’s parameters unspecified.

Question #11 – ________ messages have more or less the same meaning for the audience.

1. Denotative

2. Complex

3. Connotative

4. Abstract

Correct Answer:‐ Denotative Explanation- In linguistics and philosophy, the denotation of an expression is its literal meaning. For instance, the English word “warm” denotes the property of being warm. Denotation is contrasted with other aspects of meaning including connotation

Question #12- Which one of the following is an example of a technological barrier in communication?

1. Physical locations of communicators

2. Low bandwidth of internet

3. Personal attitude towards technology

4. Complexity of ideas

Correct Answer:‐ Physical locations of communicators

Explanation- See, in many questions asked by UGC net, you can’t do it by applying formulas, especially in paper 1. In many questions, you only have to use your common sense,

Let’s say in the above question you can solve this answer by using your common sense and all you need to have is a little information about what topic they are asking. In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #13- The communication among persons working at different levels who have no direct reporting relationship is called: 1. Intrapersonal communication

2. Upward communication

3. Horizontal communication

4. Diagonal communication

Correct Answer:‐ Intrapersonal communication

Explanation– communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. Barriers are those things that act as hurdles in communication and are called barriers to communication. There are many different types of barriers. As we can see in the above-given options these culture, power and time are not any physical traits. Intrapersonal Communication- the communication which we do with ourselves is called intrapersonal communication. There is no involvement of any other person. Like- diary writing, stream of consciousness, spirits talks and most important even once asked by ugc net is Dreams. Dreams are also part of intrapersonal communication.

Intrapersonal communication is the process by which an individual communicates within themselves, acting as both sender and receiver of messages, and encompasses the use of unspoken words to consciously engage in self-talk and inner speech.

Question #14- Marshall Mcluhan’s name is associated with the assertion:

1. The message is the medium

2. The medium is the message

3. The message determines the medium accurately

4. A message is a message

Correct Answer:‐ The message is the medium Explanation- Herbert Marshall McLuhan CC was a Canadian philosopher whose work is among the cornerstones of the study of media theory. He studied at the University of Manitoba and the University of Cambridge.

Question #15- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In classroom communication, teachers should acknowledge and take into account students’ views.

Reason R: In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by establishing a viewpoint.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #16- How many terms are there in the series 168, 175, 182,_ _ _ _, 266?

1. 13

2. 14

3. 15

4. 16

Correct Answer:‐ 13 Explanation- First of all you should try to take the differences. If the first difference does not give anything significant, you can go for the second difference i.e. the difference of the differences.

Question #17- Given below are two statements

Statement I: The compound interest on ₹280 for 18 months at 10 % per annum is ₹44.3.

Statement II: At a 5.6 % rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question #18- The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 11, then the average of the new set of numbers is:

1. 82

2. 72

3. 78

4. 77

Correct Answer:‐ 82 Explanation- For your reference, The mean of 10 numbers is 7 If each number is multiplied by 12 then the mean of the new set of numbers is a Total of 10 numbers =10×7=70… If each number is multiplied by 12… New Total =70×12 divide by 10= 84

Question #19 – Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

1. 65/80

2. 11/16

3. 5/8

4. 29/40

Correct Answer:‐ 65/80 Explanation– To compare the fractions, first of all, we go with the denominator. If the denominator is the same as all the fractions then we will compare only the numerator. The fraction that has the smallest numerator will be the smallest fraction.

Question #20- A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of ₹71. The number of 20 paise coins is 20

1. 144

2. 124

3. 200

4. 125

Correct Answer:‐ 124 For your reference, see this example and then try to solve this question. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs. 71. The number of 25-paise coins is? Let there are n 25 paise coins. So n×25+(324-n)20=7100, or 25n-20n=7100-6480=620, or 5n=620, n=620÷5=124. So there are 124 numbers of 25 paise coins.

Question #21- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Truth and Falsehood are predicates of Arguments

Statement II: Validity and Invalidity are predicates of Statements In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Explanation– An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.

Question #22- Identify the fallacy committed in the argument: Some birds are not beautiful creatures. All dogs are beautiful creatures. Therefore, no dogs are birds.

1. Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term

2. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term

3. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term

4. Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

Correct Answer:‐ Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term Explanation– Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises. As we see, fallacies can be committed in many ways, but usually, they involve either a mistake in reasoning or the creation of some illusion that makes a bad argument appear good or bad (either). An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive. Ethos- Ethos is an argument that appeals to ethical authority or credibility.[ ] Pathos- pathos is an argument that appeals to emotions. Fallacies are usually divided into two groups: Formal and Informal Groups.

Question #23– If ‘All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of the following options can be validly inferred from it?

A. ‘No men is mortal’ is False

B. ‘Some men are mortal’ is True

C. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is True

D. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is False

E. ‘Some men are mortal’ is False

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, B, C and D only

4. B, C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Question #24- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: According to Naiyāyikas, the fallacy of Savyabhicāra occurs when the middle term leads to different opposite conclusions.

Reason R: When the middle term is irregular, it is distributively not related to the major term.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question #25- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

Correct Answer:‐ A-III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

Question #26- The number of characters in 8-bit ASCII code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange)

1. 64

2. 128

3. 256

4. 512

Correct Answer:‐ 64

Question #27- The Post Office protocol is

1. Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer

2. Protocol used to handle email attachments

3. Protocol used when receiving emails from the email server

4. Protocol used for sending emails

Correct Answer:‐ Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer Explanation- The post office protocol (POP) is the most commonly used message request protocol in the Internet world for transferring messages from an e-mail server to an e-mail client. With POP3, the e-mail client requests new messages from the e-mail server, and the server “pops” all new messages out to the client.

Question #28- Given below are two statements regarding the Router

Statement I: It enables data packets to be routed between different networks.

Statement II: It works in the Data Link Layer.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true Explanation– A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

Question #29- Following are some statements regarding File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Choose the correct statements

A. It is used to access the world wide web (www)

B. It is used to download data from file servers

C. It is used for very small files

D. Files are transferred from one device to another

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. B and D only

4. B and C only

Correct Answer:‐ A and B only Explanation- The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard Communication Protocol used for the transfer of Computer Files from a server to a client on a Computer Network. FTP is built on a client-server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server. FTP users may authenticate themselves with a clear-text sign-in protocol, normally in the form of a username and password, but can connect anonymously if the server is configured to allow it. For secure transmission that protects the username and password, and encrypts the content,

Question #30- The number of Sustainable Development Goals is

1. 13

2. 15

3. 17

4. 19

Correct Answer:‐ 13 Explanation- The Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all”. The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by 2030.

Question #31- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen dioxide NO is produced from polluting sources

Statement II: Most of the atmospheric NO is produced due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question #32- Which of the following water-borne diseases may be caused by viruses, bacteria and protozoa?

1. Cholera

2. Hepatitis

3. Typhoid

4. Diarrhea

Correct Answer:‐ Cholera Explanation- Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhoea and dehydration. Left untreated, cholera can be fatal within hours, even in previously healthy people. Modern sewage and water treatment have virtually eliminated cholera in industrialized countries.

Question #33- United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) was the result of deliberations held during

1. Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972

2. Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro in 1992

3. Montreal Protocol 1987

4. Kyoto Protocol 1997

Correct Answer:‐ Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972 Explanation– The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading environmental authority in the United Nations system. UNEP uses its expertise to strengthen environmental standards and practices while helping implement environmental obligations at the country, regional and global levels. UNEP’s mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations. UNEP re-organised its work programme into six strategic areas as part of its move to results-based management. The selection of six areas of concentration was guided by scientific evidence, the UNEP mandate and priorities emerging from global and regional forums.

Question #34- Which of the following states has maximum installed wind power as per MNRE’s latest report?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Maharashtra

Correct Answer:‐ Andhra Pradesh

Question- #35 Global Citizenship Education promotes

1. Common international laws for global citizenship

2. Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries involving VISA

3. International public relations

4. More peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and sustainable societies

Correct Answer:‐ Common international laws for global citizenship Explanation- Global Citizenship Education inspires and empowers individuals to Reflect on their biases and assumptions. Value diversity and inclusion. Develop a greater understanding of countries, communities, and cultures around the world; events shaping our world.

Question- #36 CBCS is

1. Criteria-Based Choice System

2. Choice-Based Credit System

3. Criteria-Based Creditable Scores

4. Credit-Based Choice Scores

Correct Answer:‐ CHOICE BASED CREDIT SYSTEM (CBCS): Explanation- The CBCS provides an opportunity for the students to choose courses from the prescribed courses comprising core, elective/minor or skill-based courses. The courses can be evaluated following the grading system, which is considered to be better than the conventional marks system.

Question #37- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans require sound database systems at the regional level only.

Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its impeccability with data architecture, security, quality, cleaning and integration.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question #38- Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI (Higher Education Commission of India). Which of the following are verticals of HECI?

A. NHERC

B. NAS

C. HEGC

D. NCIVE

E. NAC

Question- Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and E only

3. A, C and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Question #39- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

4. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Correct Answer:‐ A-II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

Question 40 – Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Leadership studies are an emergent discipline, and the concept of leadership will continue to change. Leadership lore is defined as an influence relationship among leaders and followers who want real change and outcomes that reflect their shared purpose. Leadership involves influence. It occurs among people; those people who intentionally desire significant changes, and the changes reflect purpose shared by the leaders and their followers. Influence means that the relationship among people is not passive; however, also part of this definition is that influence is multidirectional. It does not use orders or threats to make somebody do something. The basic cultural values in America make it easiest to think of leadership as something a leader does to a follower. However, leadership has an effect in both directions. In most organizations, superiors influence subordinates, but subordinates also influence superiors. The people involved in the relationship want real and important changes‐ leadership involves creating change, not maintaining what normally happens. In addition, the changes sought are not dictated by leaders, but reflect purposes that leaders and followers share. Moreover, change is toward an outcome that the leaders and followers both want; a desired future or shared purpose that motivates them toward this more preferable outcome. An important aspect of leadership is influencing others to come together around a common vision. Thus, leadership involves the influence of people to bring about change toward a desirable future

Explanation- Tip- Albeit, there is no hard and fast rule to solve comprehension. You can solve comprehension by doing more and more practice. Students usually take these types of questions for granted but you need to understand that this is a very complex topic and this deserves as much attention as you give to other topics. There are some rules which you can follow,

1st Rule- Do not read the full paragraph. Yes, you read it right. Do not spend a lot of time reading the whole paragraph. Just by having a look try to understand the gist of the paragraph. A quick read.

2nd- Read all the questions very carefully, yes very very carefully, and then again look at the paragraph. All I can guarantee you is that with this rule you will be able to solve 2 or 3 questions.

3rd – Now one thing that I observed is that usually, questions are chronological as per the paragraph. So, let’s say you solved the first 2 or 3 questions by applying the above tricks. You don’t need to read the whole paragraph again. Just read the last few lines and you are ready to rock.

4th – The most important question of any comprehension is the title – so the title is like the Bollywood song’s title line. They will repeat the line or title just as bole chudiyan repeats in bole chudiyan song. So try to pick that title. (thanks to me later)

5th – By applying overhead rules I can assure you, that you can easily solve 3 -4 questions, and because of the lack of availability of time that is more than enough.

Question #40 – Leadership studies are an emerging discipline”, means: ‘

1. Leadership studies are an established field

2. Leadership studies are a valid field of research

3. Leadership studies is an evolving domain of scholarship

4. Leadership studies is an elaborate field

Correct Answer:‐ Leadership studies are an established field

Question #41- What variables are used for defining leadership?

1. Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team

2. Power to get things done quickly by the influence

3. Power to change and control

4. Power to effect and desire for mandated change

Correct Answer:‐ Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team

Question #42 – What is the main theme of this passage?

1. Explanation of leadership construct

2. Argument about leadership

3. Models of leadership

4. Pros and cons of leadership

Correct Answer:‐ Explanation of leadership construct

Question #43- What should be the outcome of leadership actions?

1. Movement towards the vision of the leader

2. Movement towards a common vision of the leader and the followers

3. Movement towards the vision of the majority

4. Strengthening of the authority of leaders

Correct Answer:‐ Movement towards the vision of the leader

Question-#44 The concept of leadership discussed in this passage is

1. Vertical‐top down

2. Horizontal

3. Individualistic

4. Exceptional

Correct Answer:‐ Vertical‐top down

Question #45- Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow In the following table, the total Exports and Imports of 5 countries over 4 years (in Rs Crore) is given. Study the table carefully and answer the given questions. (I‐import, E‐export)

Explanation– Let’s understand how we can solve these Data integration problems. If you are a humanities student like me, Data interpretation is a big ghost for us. When I was preparing for this exam initially I used to ignore data interpretation. However, you can’t deny that this is very crucial and you can’t crack this exam without data interpretation. Here are a few tips which I used during my preparation days, which I hope will help you as well.

Try to solve simple problems like addition, subtraction, dividing and multiplying. You might be thinking that you are good with this but with this I mean you should be able to solve this without paper and pen.

Try to solve percentages and average questions. These two topics are the base of Data integration. You can’t even think of solving Data integration problems without these two topics. Solve as much as you can.

Then last but not least, timings matter the most while solving these questions. Questions are easy but lengthy. You can solve all these questions but the game is of time. You have to solve these 5 questions in only 10 minutes otherwise you won’t be able to solve other questions which are of equal weightage.

Practise as much as you can.

Question#46- Find out the difference between the average export and average import for the country P.

1. 8.25

2. 7.75

3. 8.50

4. 7.25

Correct Answer:‐ 8.25

Question#47- Which country has the maximum percentage of profit increase from 2019 to 2020? (Profit = Export-Import)

1. P

2. Q

3. R

4. S

Correct Answer:‐ P

Question #48- Which year has the maximum export?

1. 2017

2. 2018

3. 2019

4. 2020

Correct Answer:‐ 2017

Question#49 – Which year has the minimum average import?

1. 2017

2. 2018

3. 2019

4. 2020

Correct Answer:‐ 2017

Question #50 – Find out the ratio of export done by countries S and T during 2017‐2020

#UGC NET Solved Papers

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UGC NET December 2020 and June 2021 examination

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/ugc-net-december-2020-and-june-2021-exam/

UGC NET December 2020 and June 2021 examination

**As you are aware from Dec 2018 onwards NTA conducts the exam online and no Question papers were given to students, However, we have collected this question from our students and the answer given is also based on Keys provided by NTA Agency Answer Key.

You can access ugc net 2021 paper 1 question papers with answer key below.

Question#1 -Which of the following is a physical/environmental barrier to communication?

Culture

Personality

Power/authority

Time

Answer- 2nd

Explanation-The barrier of communication- communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. Barriers are those things that act as hurdles in communication are called barriers of communication. There are many different types of barriers. As we can see in the above-given options these culture, power and time are not any physical traits. All these are abstract qualities, only personality is the physical trait. So this is the correct option.

Question#2 – Disaster Management Act came into existence in

1985

1992

2000

2005

Answer-(4.) 2005

Explanation– The Disaster Management Act received the assent of The President of India on 23 December 2005. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has 11 chapters and 79 sections. The Act extends to the whole of India.

Question#3– When an unperceived fact is supposed to resolve an apparent contradiction in the presented phenomenon, which one of the following pramaṇas is employed according to Advaitins?

Arthap̅atti

Pratyakṣa

Anumar̅a

Anupalabdhi

Answer – 1

Explanation– Arthapatti is a Sanskrit term that means “presumption” or “implication.” It is said to be the six pramanas in the yogic philosophy of the Advaita Vedanta system and the Bhatta school of Purva-Mimamsa. When knowledge is derived from a particular set of circumstances, it is called Arthapatti. When an unperceived fact is supposed to resolve an apparent contradiction in the presented phenomenon, it is called Arthapatti.

Question#4 -Identify the correct sequence for successful communication.

Options:-

Sender → Encode message → Channel → Decode message → Audience → Feedback

Sender → Encode message → Decode message → Channel → Audience → Feedback

Sender → Encode message → Audience → Channel → Decode the message → Feedback

Sender → Encode message → Channel → Decode message → Feedback → Audience

Answer– 1st

Explanation: Successful communication- Communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. The process of transmission of messages from one person to another person is called communication. These are emotions, cultural situations, and even our location. There is a fixed pattern in which we should initiate communication and this should be in a fixed chronology.

Sender– one who starts the conversation, who wants to transfer some feelings

Encode message– before sending any message we encode(made) that message or we can say structure that message is called encoding message. This can be explained with the help of an example. If I want to ask permission from my manager for 2 days’ leave, first I will structure a message in my mind or draft that message in my mail in a proper way that is called encoding that message.

Channel– the medium through which we send our encoded message is called a channel. It could be anything like WhatsApp, social media, or letters.

Decode message- so after receiving that message, the person whom we send that message tries to understand that message, that understanding of the message is called decoding. One should keep in mind that the message should be structured in a way it could be easily decoded.

Audience– it is our target audience to whom we want to send our message.

Feedback- it is the last processor in layman’s language we can say when we receive a reply it is called feedback.

Question #5

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1: A – I, B – III, C – II, D-IV

Option 2: A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II,

Option 3: A-IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

Option 4: A-II, B – I, C – III, D – IV,

Answer-2nd

Explanation: So here in the above question as you can see we were asked to match list 1 wish list 2 like

1. A joystick is an input device consisting of a stick that pivots on a base and reports its angle or direction to the device it is controlling.

2. Direct data entry is on radio frequency identification readers.

3. Output devices- An output device is any piece of computer hardware equipment that converts information into a human-perceptible form or, historically, into a physical machine-readable form for use with other non-computerized equipment. It can be text, graphics, tactile, audio, or video.

4. Data backup-. Backup is the process of creating a copy of the data on your system that you use for recovery in case your original data is lost or corrupted. You can also use the backup to recover copies of older files if you have deleted them from your system.

Question#6 – A Network Interface Card (NIC) contains

Options:-

Domain address

IP address

MAC address.

Port address

Answer – 3rd

Explanations: MAC address is called media access control address. It is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) for use as a network address in communications within a network segment. This use is common in most IEEE 802 networking technologies, including Ethernet, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth.

Question#7 – Arrange the following components of municipal solid waste in order of their increasing abundance.

A. Paper and Cardboard

B. Food

C.Tin Cans

D. Dirt and Ash

E.Textiles

C, E, D, B, A

E, C, A, D, B

E, C, D, A, B

E, C, D, B, A

So the correct answer is 4th

Here in the above question, we were asked to arrange the given items in the manner they are increasing in the environment.

Question#8

A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

Answer– 2nd

There are four types of statements in a syllogism. 1. Contradictory 2. Contrary 3. Sub-contraries 4. Sub- Altern or sub-alteration. This is the chart with the help of which we will discuss this topic further.

Tips to draw this diagram step by step

First,draw a huge X from English alphabets.

2nd- Make a square on the X as given in the diagram.

3rd- Write a, e, i, o on the four corners of X.

4th- Write “contrary” on A to E

5th- Write sub- contrary on I to O

6th- Write “sub -alteration” from A to I and E to O.

7th- Write “ contradictory” vertically from A to O and E to I

Tip to remember what to write – remember the vowels a, e, I, o .write in this manner only.•

A is universal positive. Example- All apples are good.

E Is universal negative. Example- No apple is good

I is a particular positive Example- some apples are good.

O is particular negative. Example- Apples are not good.

Contrary- “A and B” is a pair of the contrary. Now, what is the contrary? The contrary is those statements that cannot be true together but can be false together. If one is true, the other will be definitely false. And if one is false, the other will be doubtful. We will try to understand this perplexing statement with the help of an example.

For example –“ If all apples are good” is true then automatically “No apples are good” will be false but on the other hand if “no apples are good” is false then “all apples are good” will be doubtful.

Sub- contraries – The Sub-contraries pair is “ I and O”, which means these both can be true together but cannot be false together. For example- if somebody says “ some apples are good, that automatically means that “some apples are not good” so in these statements if one is true, the other will be definitely true but these statements cannot be false together. We cannot say that “some apples are good” is also right And “ some apples are not good” is also right. Contradictory- This combination has two pairs: “A and O”, and “E and I”.

In these types of statements “ if one is true, the other will be definitely false. Or If one is false, the other will definitely be true. For example- A “ all apples are good” is proved then O statements “-some Apple are not good” is totally opposite with each other and if “No Apple is good” is true then the exact opposite(contradictory)of this treatment will be “some apples are good” so these “A and 0” or “ E and I” will always be exact opposite(contradictory)to each other.

Sub-alteration- The pair “A and I” and “E and O” are sub-alteration pairs. Now, what is a sub- alteration? In this, ‘ truth downwards, but falsity upwards ‘ I.e.- if A statement is true, then I statement will also be true If A statement is false, then nothing can be said about I.

On the other hand, if I statement is false, then A statement will also be false. For example- if “ all apples are good” is true, then “ some Apples are good” will also be true. If “ some Apples are good” is false, then “ All Apple are good” will also be false…

Question#9- A lady is reflecting on the causes of the environmental crisis. She is considering and attempting to link varied variables to make sense of the issue. This scenario is an example of

Didactic communication

Interpersonal communication

Intrapersonal communication

Mass communication

Answer– 3rd

Explanation – Communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. The process of transmission of messages from one person to another person is called communication. These are emotions, cultural situations, and even our location.

Question#10– Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The aim of education in ancient India was not just the acquisition of knowledge but preparation for life in this world beyond schooling.

Reason R: Ancient Indian education emphasized complete realization and liberation of self.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given

A is correct but R is not correct

A is not correct but R is correct

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer– 3rd

Explanations: In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you is while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion.

Like- The aim of education in ancient India was not just the acquisition of knowledge but preparation for life in this world beyond schooling because Ancient Indian education laid emphasis on complete realization and liberation of self.

Now, we can ourselves realize that both these statements are making sense in themselves but not in each other’s relation. So the answer is 3rd Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question#11- The main reason for low enrollment in vocational education courses in India is

Options:-

High fee structure

Lack of adequate infrastructure to impart Vocational education

Unavailability of a large number of vocational courses

Wrong perception of vocational education among students and parents

Answer– 4th Wrong perception of vocational education among students and parents

Vocational courses are an educational discipline that enables individuals to acquire skills that are required for a particular trade. Vocational courses are traditionally non-academic and are completely related to a specific trade, occupation, or vocation.

See, in many questions asked by UGC net, you can’t do it by applying the formula, especially in paper 1. In many questions, you only have to use your common sense,

Let’s say in the above question you can solve this answer by using your common sense and all you need to have is a little information about what topic they are asking. The main reason for low enrollment in vocational education courses in India can’t be high fees because the fees are very low, it can’t be infrastructure as well, and availability is out of the question because there are more vocational courses available in India than fish in the Arabian sea.

So by applying common sense, you can easily answer this question- The wrong perception of vocational education among students and parents is the main reason.

Question#12– Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a key indicator of the process performance of wastewater treatment plants. The plant is said to be efficient when BOD:

Decreases

Increases for the first 36 hours

Increases

Remains unchanged

Answer– 1st

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature. The decay of organic matter in water is measured as biochemical or chemical oxygen demand.

Question#13 -Ethnography refers to –

A measure that is employed to refer to a concept when no direct measure is available

A research design that rules out alternative causal explanations of findings deriving

A research method where the researcher immerses himself/herself in a social setting for an extended period for providing an account of a particular culture, society, or community

An attribute in terms of which cases do not differ.

Answer – 3rd

Explanation– The meaning of ethnography is the study and systematic recording of human cultures.A research method where the researcher immerses himself/herself in a social setting for an extended period to provide an account of a particular culture, society, or community.

Question#14- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Value development requires conscious, planned, and deliberate attempts by the school and the teachers.

Statement II: Values needed for sustainable development cannot be taught in a school setting.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given

Options-

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

The answer is clear just by applying common sense that the 3rd option is correct. Again See, in many questions asked by UGC net, you can’t do it by applying the formula, especially in NTA UGC NET Paper 1.

Question#15- The main concept behind solar ponds to store the solar energy is

Options:-

Fixed salt gradient from surface to bottom in the pond/

Presence of sand in the pond

Presence of solar cells in the pond

Uniform salinity of the pond

Answer– 1st

Explanation– A solar pond is a pool of saltwater that collects and stores solar energy in the form of heat. The saltwater naturally forms a vertical salinity gradient also known as “halocline”, where low-salinity water flows above high-salinity water. In other words, it contains water with a definite gradient of salt concentration.

Question#16 – Which one of the following is an example of the ‘Pull Technology’ form of communication?

Options:-

Social media sites

Websites delivered to browser on search

Websites that are advertised

Websites that are not alive

Answer 2nd

Explanation-Pull coding or client pull is a style of network communication where the initial request for data originates from the client and then is responded to by the server. The reverse is known as push technology, where the server pushes data to clients.

Question#17- Which among the following are statistical packages?

A. SPSS

B. SAS

C. ANOVA

D. STATA

E. R

1. A, B, C, and D only

2. A, B, C, and E only

3. A, B, D, and E only

4. B, C, D, and E only

Answer– 3rd

Statistical packages are collections of software designed to aid in statistical analysis and data exploration. Second, statistical packages can provide a unified operating framework and common interface for data manipulation, visualization, and statistical analysis.

Question#18- Identify the fallacy committed in the argument.

All household pets are domestic animals. No unicorns are domestic animals. Therefore, some unicorns are not household pets

Existential fallacy

The fallacy of Four terms

The fallacy of Illicit Major

The fallacy of Illicit Minor

Answer– 1st

Existential fallacy– as the name indicates, it has crises even in the possibility that it even exists. That means it is not necessary whether the statement is true or not but if it is true then it must be like that. Too confusing let me help you with the help of an example-

One example would be: “Every unicorn has a horn on its forehead“. It does not imply that there are any unicorns at all in the world, and thus it cannot be assumed that, if the statement were true, somewhere there is a unicorn in the world (with a horn on its forehead). The statement, if assumed true, implies only that if there were any unicorns, each would have a horn on its forehead.

In simplest terms- it is not the question of whether there are unicorns in the world or the statement that but if that is true if there is any Unicron there in the world then it must have a horn on the head.

Question#19- The number of bits in IPv6 addresses is:

Options:-

128 bits

256 bits

32 bit

64 bits

Answer– 128 bits

Question#20- Over the past 100 years, the estimated rise of global sea level is by 10 to 25 cms or more. This is attributed to which of the following?

A. Thermal contraction of ocean water

B. melting of glaciers and small ice caps

C. Thinning of the Greenland ice sheet

D. Changes in terrestrial water storage

Options:-

A, B, and C only

A, C, and D onyx

B and C only

B, C, and D only

Answer– 4th

Explanation– the main reason for the rise in sea level is global warming. Man-made activities like the burning of coal and oil and cutting of forests to meet ever-growing human needs are the main reasons for global warming and the Melting of glaciers and small ice caps. Thinning of the Greenland ice sheet Changes in terrestrial water storage ultimately result in the rising of the sea level.

Question#21- Identify the correct sequence to join a Google Meet session

A. Enter code and click continue

B. Click ASK to join

C. Click use a meeting code

D. Go to meet.google.com

E. When someone in the meeting gives you access you will join it.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, D, C, E,

2. D, A, E, B, C

3. D, C, A, B, E

4. E, A, B, C, D,

Answer– 3rd

This was again a free question. Who had not used google meet in this pandemic? So simply follow the correct answers steps and you are ready to go and join any google meet.

Question#22- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Generalisation of a finding is possible only in quantitative studies.

Reason R: Quantitative studies make use of deductive reasoning.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

A is false but R is true.

A is true but R is false

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer- 2nd

This was a very tricky question asked by us net and you must be aware of everything in detail like what is quantitative studies, what is deductive reasoning.

Quantitative studies- it is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies.

It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts.

The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

Question#23-Given below are two statements

Statement I Type I Error refers to the decision to reject the null hypothesis when it is incorrect.

Statement II: Sampling error occurs due to the violation of the principle of random sampling.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below-

Options:-

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Answer– 1st

Explanation– sampling- sampling is the most important part of the research. It is the selection of the population on whom we want to conduct our research. In simpler terms, to do any research we need a population, but we can��t research the whole of India so as an alternative we will select a small portion of India, which is called sampling. There are many different types of sampling.

Type 1 error and type 2 error – they are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research

Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.

Question#24 -Given below are two statements

Statement I: The aim of Naiyāyikas in formulating the anumāna theory is to obtain pramā (right knowledge).

Statement II: The aim of Naiyāyikas in formulating the anumāna theory is to verify only and only formal validity.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Answer 4th

Question#25- The average of the first 100 positive integers is

50.5

51.5

Answer– 3rd

Explanation– first 100 positive integers are1 to 100= 100 * (1 +100)/2 = 50 * 101. Required Average = (50 *101)/100 = 50.5. For the above given series average, = ( 1 +100)/2 = 50.5)

Question#26- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Quality questions promote deep learning.

Reason R: The quality of questions asked determines a teacher’s level of success with a lesson.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

A is false but R is true/(A)

A is true but R is false/(A)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer– 4th

Question#27- Which among the following is a MOOC platform?

Options:-

Coursera

Google Mee

Jitsi Meet

Urkund

Answer– 1st

Explanation– MOOC stands for massive open online courses. These are the online, digital platforms that help you to learn online and even get a degree by registering online in these courses with the flexibility of time and place and duration and of course individual pace. 014 In July 2014, The first Indian MOOC on edX developed and targeted learners across the world. It witnessed massive success in attracting over 35,000 learners. 2015 IIT Bombay, Birla Institute of Technology and SciencePilani, IIM Bangalore, and Indian School of Business launched MOOCs on edX and Coursera.

Question#28- Post-positivism is related to which one of the following philosophies?

Options:-

Critical Realism

Empiricism

Objectivism

Subjectivism

Answer-1st

Post positivist in the simplest term, is a philosophy that comes after positivism. There are three types of philosophies

1. Theology- those who believe that only divine power or God is responsible for everything. God was at the centre for them. It was considered the darkest era of human history like the medieval era.

2. Positivism- it was the era in which science started advancing and people started believing in science and logic behind everything and they accepted that everything is because of science and everything can be proved on the basics of facts. Only objectivity mattered to them. Human beings were the centre for them.

3. Post positivist- we can say post-positivists were a mixture of both. They believed in science with the acceptance that everything is not in the hands of human beings. there are some higher powers. Everything cannot be proved with objectivity. So they were both subjective and objective with their approach. They were realistic and accepted their own limitations. hence, post positivists were realistic in their approach.

Question#29- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Operant conditioning was discovered by Thorndike.

Statement II: Classical conditioning was discovered by Ivan Pavlov.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

Options:

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer -4th

Question#30-Which one of the following sections of the UGC Act is concerned with the promotion and coordination of university education for the maintenance of standards of teaching examination and research?

Options:-

Section 12

Section 14/धारा – 14

Section 25/धारा – 25

Section 28/धारा – 28

Answer– 1st

Question#31

Options:-

A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I

A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

A-II, B – I, C – III, D-IV

Answer – 4th

Question#32- Following are the statements regarding a Repeater

A. It distributes the data packets

B. It is added to transmission systems to boost the signal

C. It sends the data to a specific computer

D. It can also be used on wireless systems Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

A and D only

A, B, and C only

B and D only.

C and D only

Answer– 3rd

Explanations– Repeaters are network devices operating at the physical layer of the OSI model that amplifies or regenerate an incoming signal before retransmitting it. They are incorporated in networks to expand their coverage area. They are also known as signal boosters.

Question#33 -Which of the following statements are correct concerning argument by analogy?

A. It is a deductive type of argument

B. It is an inductive type of argument

C. It is not intended to be mathematically certain

D. It is to be classified as either valid or invalid

E. Its conclusion does not follow from the premises with logical necessity

Options:-

1. A, C, and D only

2. A, D, and E only

3. B, C, and E only

4. B, D, and E only

Answer– 3rd

Explanation– Deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

Question#34- Given below are two statements regarding Wireless Access Points (WAPs).

Statement I: WAPs are connected to the wired network at fixed locations.

Statement II: The WAP receives and transmits data between the two wired LANs.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

1 . Both Statement I and Statement II are false

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Answer– 4

Explanation-Wireless access points (APs or WAPs) are networking devices that allow Wi-Fi devices to connect to a wired network. They form wireless local-area networks (WLANs). An access point acts as a central transmitter and receiver of wireless radio signals.

Question#35- What per cent of the children’s brain development occurs prior to 6 years?

Options:-

1 .25 % ,

2. 45 %,

3. 65 %,

4. 85 %

Answer– D

(Again a very irrelevant question asked by UGC-NET. See, you can’t prepare for these types of questions. Nobody can’t, but you have to act smartly in these types of questions.)

Question#36- What comes next in the following sequence?

5, 16, 51, 158,

Option 1- 387

Option 2- 481

Option 3 -482

Option 4- 487

Answer– 2nd

The next number is 481. The series is followed as: Step1- 5*3+1=16 Step2- 16*3+3=51 Step3- 51*3+5=158 Step4- 158*3+7=481 Number is multiplied by 3 in all steps .

Question: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows:

Let us try to explain social life as the pursuit of pleasure and the avoidance of pain. You will soon be saying that the hedonist begs the question, for even supposing that man does pursue these ends, the crucial problem of why he thinks one course rather than another likely to produce pleasure, is untouched. Does the guidance of man’s conscience explain? How then does he happen to have the particular conscience that he has? The theory of economic self-interest? But how do men come to conceive their interest in one way rather than another? The desire for security or prestige or domination or what is vaguely called self-realization? How do men conceive of their security, what do they consider prestige, how do they figure out the means of domination, or what is the notion of self which they wish to realize? Pleasure, pain, conscience, acquisition, protection, enhancement mastery are undoubtedly names for some of the ways people act. There may be instinctive dispositions that work toward such ends. But no statement of the end or any description of the tendencies to seek it can explain the behaviour which results. The very fact that men theorize at all is proof that their pseudo-environments, their interior representations of the world, are a determining element in thought, feeling, and action. For, if the connection between reality and human response were direct and immediate, rather than indirect and interred indecision and failure would be unknown and (if each of us fitted as snugly into the world, as the child in a womb), Mr Bernard Shaw would not have been able to say that except, for the first nine months of its existence, no human being manages its affairs as well as a plant.

Question#38- The thoughts of men are decided by

Options:-

Societal tendencies

Their behaviour

Their environment

Their inner perception of the world

Answer– 4th

Question#39- If the connection between reality and human response is direct, it will result in

Acquistion of prestige

Self-realisation

Successful actions

Useful theorization

Answer-3rd

Question#40- A man’s course of action is guided by –

Collective action

Critical evaluation of choices

Pursuit of self-interest

The thought of social welfare

Answer– 3rd

Question#41- The gist of the passage is that human behaviour is dictated by

Choices for pleasure

Emotional vagueness

Seeking smugness in a false world

The harsh realities of the world

Answer-3rd

Albeit, there is no hard and fast rule to solve comprehension. You can solve comprehension by doing more and more practice. Students usually take these types of questions for granted but you need to understand that this is a very complex topic and this deserves as much attention as you give to other topics.

There are some rules which you can follow,

1st- Do not read the full paragraph. Yes, you read it right. Do not spend a lot of time reading the whole paragraph. Just by having a look try to understand the gist of the paragraph. A quick read.

2- Read all the questions very carefully, yes very very carefully, and then again look at the paragraph. All I can guarantee you is that with this rule you will be able to solve 2 or 3 questions.

3- now one thing that I observed is that usually, questions are chronological as per the paragraph. So, let’s say you solved the first 2 or 3 questions by applying the above tricks. You don’t need to read the whole paragraph again. Just read the last few lines and you are ready to rock.

4- The most important question of any comprehension is the title – so the title is like the Bollywood song’s title line. They will repeat the line or title just as “bole chudiyan repeats in bole chudiyan song”. So try to pick that title. (thanks to me later)

5- By applying overhead rules I can assure you, you can easily solve 3 -4 questions, and because of lack of availability of time that is more than enough.

Study the table carefully to answer the question that follows :

The given table has the number of boys and girls (in hundreds) in 5 different years in 4 different schools (A, B, C, D) (M-Boys, F-Girls).

Question– Which school has the lowest number of girl students enrolled during 2016-2020?

Options:-

1 .A ,

2. B,

3. C,

4. D,

Question- Find out the difference between the number of boys in School A and School B during 2016-2020.

1. 440

2.445

3. 460

4. 450

Question- Which school has the minimum percentage increase in total student enrollment (both boys and girls) from 2019 to 2020?

Question- Which year has the minimum number of girls enrolled during 2016-2019?

Question- Which school has the maximum number of boys enrolled during 2016-2020?

Question– Identify the correct phases of activity for the Advance Organiser Model.

A. Presentation of curriculum embedding

B. Presentation of advance organizer

C. Presentation of study groups

D. Presentation of learning task or material

E. Strengthening cognitive organization Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, and C only

2. B, C, and D

3. B, D, and E only

4. C, D, and E only

Answer– 3rd

Explanation– An advance organizer is a cognitive instructional strategy used to promote the learning and retention of new information

Question– Given below are two statements

Statement I: The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 10% and 20% respectively, then its area increases by 23%.

Statement II: In 12 hours, the hour hand and the minute hand coincide 11 times.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question- What per cent decrease in salaries would exactly cancel out the 20% increase?

Question– Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The product of two integers is 500 and their difference is 5. Then, one of the numbers is 25.

B. The HCF of 108, 288, and 360 is 18.

C. The least number which is exactly divisible by each one of the given numbers is called their LCM.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:-

A and B only

A and C only

B and C only

Answer-2nd

#UGC NET Solved Papers

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Types of definitions in logic | Logical Reasoning Study Notes UGC NET

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Types of definitions in logic | Logical Reasoning Study Notes UGC NET

A question from this topic features in the exam paper every time. A definition or a concept is given and candidate has to choose the definition name to which it belongs. This topic is sub topic of Locical Reasoning Syllabus and most of the time it has been skipped by Students !

Topics Based on UGC NET Syllabus of Logical Reasoning

Understanding the structure of arguments: argument forms, the structure of categorical propositions, Mood and Figure, Formal and Informal fallacies, Uses of language, Connotations and denotations of terms, Classical square of opposition.

Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning.

Analogies.

Venn diagram: Simple and multiple uses for establishing the validity of arguments.

Indian Logic: Means of knowledge.

Pramanas: Pratyaksha (Perception), Anumana (Inference), Upamana(Comparison), Shabda (Verbal testimony), Arthapatti (Implication) and Anupalabddhi (Non-apprehension).

Structure and kinds of Anumana (inference), Vyapti (invariable relation), Hetvabhasas (fallacies of inference).

Types of definitions

What is a definition?

A definition is a statement of the meaning of a term.

When writers are trying to explain an unfamiliar idea, they rely on definitions.

All definitions attempt to explain or clarify a term.

In mathematics, a definition is used to give a precise meaning to a new term, by describing a condition that unambiguously qualifies what a mathematical term is and is not.

Definitions and axioms form the basis on which all of modern mathematics is to be constructed.

What is axiom ?

a statement or proposition which is regarded as being established, accepted, or self-evidently true .

So, A definition is made up of two parts :

DEFINIENDUM- term which is to be defined.

A word, phrase, or symbol which is the subject of a definition, especially in a dictionary entry, or which is introduced into a logical system by being defined .

DEFINIEN– words used to define a term.

The different types of definitions are given below –

Different Types of definition

#1. Formal definition-

It is the definition which we generally see in the dictionary for a book, describing some particular characteristics of a concept things, or phenomenon. Such characteristics are used to familiarise reader with unknown terms.

A formal definition is based upon a concise, logical pattern that includes as much information as it can within a minimum amount of space .

Formal sentences components are the term being defined, the class it belongs to, and its distinguishing characteristics.

#2. Informal definition –

sometime a known word in the form of antonyms and synonyms can be used for explaining something unknown.

Such definitions are introduced by “ like “ “also known as” or “in other words” extra these are used to familiarise a lesson on term with any other well-known related term.

Having a relaxed, friendly, or unofficial style, manner, or nature.

Informal language is more casual and spontaneous. It is used when communicating with friends or family either in writing or in conversation.

#3. Extended definition –

An extended definition is a one or more paragraphs that attempt to explain a complex term. Some terms may be so important in your report, there may be so much confusion about them, or they may be so difficult to understand that an extended discussion is vital for the success of your report.

The extended definition can be formal or informal. As the name suggest these are used for explanation by including examples of listing familiar points, explaining concepts, historical references etc .

When you write reports, you may often discover that you need to explain certain basics before you can discuss the main subject matter.

For example:

In a report on new treatments for sickle cell anemia, you’d need a section defining the disease.

In a report on the benefits of drip irrigation, you’d need to write an extended definition of drip irrigation, explaining how it works and what equipment is used.

In a report showing small businesses how to weather economic recessions, an extended definition of the term economic recession would be needed first.

One of the first things to do when you write an extended definition is to compose the formal sentence definition of the term you are writing about. Place it toward the beginning of the extended definition.

It establishes the focus for the rest of the discussion. It is “formal” because it uses a certain form .

#4. Lexical definition –

Its relating to the words or vocabulary of a language.

The lexical definition also known as the dictionary definition, is the closely matching the meaning of the term in common usage.

It is also known as reporting definition.

According to Oxford English dictionary, lexical means relating to the words or vocabulary of a language. Does the lexical definition related to a words dictionary meaning of the meaning in the common vocabulary of language. It shows how the term is used in a language. It is difficult to change.

Lexical meanings are denotative meanings .

Lexical meanings can’t be changed.

It is used to avoid ambiguity.

It should be universal, never supporting any positive or negative aspects.

As its other name implies, this is the sort of definition , one is likely to find in the dictionary. A lexical definition is usually the type expected from a request for definition, and it is generally expected that such a definition will be stated as simply as possible in order to convey information to the widest audience .

The definition which reports the meaning of a word or a phrase as it is actually used by people is called a lexical definition. Meanings of words given in a dictionary are lexical definitions. As a word may have more than one meaning, it may also have more than one lexical definition.

Lexical definitions are either true or false. If the definition is the same as the actual use of the word then it is true, otherwise it is false .

#5 Stipulative definition –

A stipulative definition is a type of definition in which a new or currently existing term is given a new specific meaning for the purposes of argument or discussion in a given context .

When the term already exists, this definition may, but does not necessarily, contradict the dictionary definition of the term.

It is the new meaning giving to an already existing term on meaning assigned to a new term.

It is arbitrary in nature .

A term can have different stipulative meaning at different places or among different people.

For example some people use “LOL” for “lots of love” and some use it for “laughing out loud”.

Idioms and slangs have stipulative meanings .

The terms to prove stipulative definition is sometimes used to make a deliberately misleading definition.

It is easy to change as it has a meaning in local language.

When the stability of definition of a term that popular former y my get included in the dictionary and becomes a lexical definition.

For example:

Suppose we say that to love someone is to be willing to die for that person.

Take “human” to mean any member of the species Homo sapiens.

For the purposes of argument, we will define a “student” to be “a person under 18 enrolled in a local school”

#6 Persuasive definition –

Such definitions favour a particular view or an favour any view, but are presented in a neutral form. In such definitions , emotional, positive or derogatory meaning is attached to the term.

The term “persuasive definition” was introduced by philosopher Charles Stevenson as part of his emotive theory of meaning .

It is usually used in discussions, debates , etc to favour or unfavour particular views. For example – there can be different views on death penalty , those who are in favour will define it as Harsh punishment which will help in preventing heinous crimes and those who are not in its favour will define it as “legalized murder”.

A persuasive definition is a form of stipulativedefinition which supports to describe the true or commonly accepted meaning of a term, while in reality stipulating an uncommon or altered use, usually to support an argument for some view, or to create or alter rights, duties or crimes.

Examples of persuasive definitions (definist fallacies) include:

Democrat – “a leftist who desires to overtax the corporations and abolish freedom in the economic sphere”.

Persuasive definitions commonly appear in controversial topics such as politics, sex, and religion, as participants in emotionally charged exchanges will sometimes become more concerned about swaying people to one side or another than expressing the unbiased facts.

#7 Parenthetical definition –

Sometimes, for the sake of explanation we write the meanings of some words in parentheses in a sentence. Meaning of a difficult word mentioned in a few words in parentheses ( brackets) is known as parenthetical definition.

Some times to understand better difficult words we write easy words or meaning in brackets are called parenthetical meaning.

For example – to understand meanings of arbitrariness we write in brackets to choose randomly or by chance . what ever we write in bracket for own understanding are called parenthetical definition.

Parenthetical phrase is an explanatory or qualifying word, clause, or sentence inserted into a passage. The parenthesis could be left out and still form grammatically correct text.

Parentheses are usually marked off by round or square brackets, dashes, or commas.

Billy-bob, a great singer, was not a good dancer. The phrase a great singer, set off by commas, is both an appositive and a parenthesis.

A dog (not a cat) is an animal that barks. The phrase not a cat is a parenthesis.

My umbrella (which is somewhat broken) can still shield the two of us from the rain. The phrase which is somewhat broken is a parenthesis.

The following are examples of types of parenthetical phrases:

Introductory phrase: Once upon a time, my father ate a muffin.

Interjection: My father ate the muffin, gosh damn it!

Aside: My father, if you don’t mind me telling you this, ate the muffin.

Appositive: My father, a jaded and bitter man, ate the muffin.

Absolute phrase: My father, his eyes flashing with rage, ate the muffin.

Free modifier: My father, chewing with unbridled fury, ate the muffin.

Resumptive modifier: My father ate the muffin, a muffin which no man had yet chewed.

Summative modifier: My father ate the muffin, a feat which no man had attempted.

While a parenthesis need not be written enclosed by the curved brackets called parentheses, their use, principally around rhetorical parentheses, has made the punctuation marks the only common use for the term in most contexts.

#8. Sentence definition-

such definitions are given in sentence forms , like ‘ computer is an electronic machine used to store , process and retrieve data.

Here is the first part of definition is ‘ computer the term itself , the next part- electronic machine , shows what it is , and the last part depicts the function of computer.

Sentence is a set of words that is complete in itself, typically containing a subject and predicate, conveying a statement, question, exclamation, or command, and consisting of a main clause and sometimes one or more subordinate clauses.

The sentence is generally defined as a word or a group of words that expresses a thorough idea by giving a sentence or order.

#9. Intention definition –

Such definitions specifiy the properties, features, meanings , and the necessary and sufficient conditions of a term.

For example – even numbers are the numbers divisible by two.

#10. Ostensive definition –

literal meaning of ostensive is denoting a way of defining by direct demonstration, e.g. pointing .

In this type of definition, a term is described by showing the real objects; for example, showing banana, tulips, mangos, etc, to describe the yellow colour .

An ostensive definition conveys the meaning of a term by pointing out examples.

This type of definition is often used where the term is difficult to define verbally, either because the words will not be understood (as with children and new speakers of a language) or because of the nature of the term (such as colors or sensations).

It is usually accompanied with a gesture pointing to the object serving as an example, and for this reason is also often referred to as “definition by pointing”.

An ostensive definition assumes the questioner has sufficient understanding to recognize the type of information being given .

SOLVED MCQ Question for practice

Question 1 – Determine the nature of the following definition “abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.

Lexical

Persuasive

Stipulative

Theoretical

Answer- Persuasive

Solution – A persuasive definition is a form of stipulative definition which supports to describe the true or commonly accepted meaning of a term, while in reality stipulating an uncommon or altered use, usually to support an argument for some view, or to create or alter rights, duties or crimes.

Question 2 – when the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise conclusively, the argument is called

Circular argument

Inductive argument

Deductive argument

Analogical argument

Answer- Deductive argument

Solution– Deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals, and links premises with conclusions.

Question 3- A stipulative definition may be said to be

Always true

Always false

Sometime true, Sometime false

Neither true Neither false.

Answer-Sometime true, Sometime false

Solution- Stipulative definition is a type of definition in which a new or currently existing term is given a new specific meaning for the purposes of argument or discussion in a given context . When the term already exists, this definition may, but does not necessarily, contradict the dictionary definition of the term.

Question 4. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called

Lexical

Persuasive

Stipulative

Precision

Answer– Persuasive [See Above Notes]

Question 5 – A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :

Lexical

Pressing

Stipulative

Persuasive

Answer– Stipulative [See Above Notes]

Solution already given in one of the above question.

#Logical Reasoning

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Types of definitions in logic | Logical Reasoning Study Notes UGC NET

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Types of definitions in logic | Logical Reasoning Study Notes UGC NET