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BIOL 103 FINAL EXAMINATIONTo Download tutorial Copy and Paste below Link into your Browser

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BIOL 103 Final Examination

Question 1

Which statement about evolution is FALSE?

Question 1 option:

According to evolutionary theory, you are related to a bacterium, to a yeast cell, to a snake, and to a whale. In fact, you are related to every species now alive on Earth, and to fossil species like dinosaurs as well.

Natural selection acts on genetic differences within a population to cause evolution. Individuals do not evolve.

Natural selection is about slow but steady progress. Through it, populations constantly get better-adapted. When this process is completed for all populations, evolution will come to a stop.

Evolution occurs constantly, without end; there is no endpoint in evolution.

Question 2

Negatively charged particles are found where in an atom?

Question 2 options:

In the nucleus

In a single layer outside the nucleus

In multiple layers outside the nucleus

Both inside and outside the nucleus

Question 3

You have a solution that has a pH of 8 and need it to be pH 5. What do you do?

Question 3 options:

Add water

Add a base

Add an acid

Add a buffer

Question 4

What characteristic of carbon makes it a good backbone for creating diverse and durable molecules?

Question 4 options:

Carbon is a large atom.

Carbon forms four covalent bonds.

Carbon forms hydrogen bonds.

All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following structures can be found together in eukaryotic cells?

Question 5 options:

cytoplasm and ribosomes

cytoplasm and plasma membrane

DNA and ribosomes

ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum

Question 6

Which of the following reactions or pathways is catabolic?

Question 6 options:

Breaking down ATP into ADP and phosphate.

Making starch from many glucose molecules.

Photosynthesis: which builds glucose from carbon dioxide using energy from light.

Making ATP from ADP and Phosphate.

Question 7

In a metabolic pathway, a typical control mechanism is to have: ________

Question 7 options:

the final product have no effect on the enzyme responsible for its own production.

the final product inhibit an early step.

a reactant inhibit a late step.

a lack of reactant stimulate the pathway.

Question 8

Mitosis results in ______ cells and meiosis results in _______ cells.

Question 8 options:

haploid, diploid

diploid, haploid

diploid, diploid

haploid, haploid

Question 9

In beans yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y) and smooth (S) is dominant to wrinkled (s). What are the possible genotypes for the offspring of the following cross: YySS and YYSs.

Question 9 options:

YYSS, YYss, yySS, yyss

YS, yS, YS, yS

Yy, SS, YY, Ss

YYSS, YySS, YYSs, YySs

Question 10

Red rose color is incompletely dominant over white rose color. If a red rose is crossed with a pink rose, what percentage of the offspring will be pink?

Question 10 options:

100

Question 11

One of the products of cellular respiration is ________.

Question 11 options:

water

sucrose

cellulose

oxygen

Question 12

An ecologist is studying all the animals, plants, fungi and bacteria, as well as the interaction among them, in a forest? He is studying the _________ in the forest.

Question 12 options:

niche

biome

community

population

Question 13

The temperature optimum for an enzyme is 37C. What will most likely happen if you increase the temperature from 37C to 50C?

Question 13 options:

The enzyme activity will not be affected

The enzyme activity will increase

The enzyme activity will decrease

The pH will increase

Question 14

When celery is placed in a glass of pure water the solution inside its cells is _____ compared to the water.

Question 14 options:

selectively permeable

isotonic

hypertonic

hypotonic

Question 15

An ecosystem can be characterized as:

Question 15 options:

populations + community.

all species, population, and community interactions for organisms in a given area.

the abiotic components of the environment.

all of the biological interactions, plus interactions with the abiotic environment, in a given area.

Question 16

Enzymes

Question 16 options:

catalyze reactions

prevent reactions from occurring

are found only in prokaryotes

all of those answers are correct

Question 17

This term refers to the maintenance of internal stability in a creature:

Question 17 options:

homeostasis

mutualism

parasitism

meiosis

Question 18

Steroids and waxes are

Question 18 options:

proteins

carbohydrates

lipids

nucleic acids

Question 19

Active transport DOES NOT require ATP

Question 19 options:

True

False

Question 20

In October of 2003, a raging wildfire swept through the mountain ecosystems in Southern California, burning everything in its path to the ground and driving away all of the animals. In order for the mountain ecosystem to re-establish itself, which member of the food web has to return first?

Question 20 options:

deer

coyotes

snake

grasses

Question 21

Carbohydrates are not

Question 21 options:

stored potential energy

made mostly of nitrogen and carbon.

broken down by cellular respiration.

made by producers.

Question 22

A primary consumer would eat:

Question 22 options:

secondary consumers

plants.

Bacteria.

rabbits.

Question 23

Diffusion is

Question 23 options:

One type of active transport

The movement of water across the cell membrane

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

Question 24

Any individual organism has the potential to adapt to its environment, if it is given enough time and possesses a mechanism to generate variation.

Question 24 options:

True

False

Question 25

Once an adaptation appears, it remains in all the descendants unless the species becomes extinct

Question 25 options:

True

False

Question 26

When a founder population has a small gene pool, evolutionary change is more likely to be rapid than if the founder population has a large gene pool.

Question 26 options:

True

False

Question 27

When speciation occurs, the result is a huge dramatic change in the new species.

Question 27 options:

True

False

Question 28

When two groups are reproductively isolated, it can be reliably predicted that speciation will follow very soon.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Question 29

Codons are locate on

Question 29 options:

abiotic components

DNA

RNA

all of those

Question 30

Fossil evidence suggests that human ancestors arose one time in Africa.

Question 30 options:

True

False

Question 31

Sunlight influences vitamin D production is humans.

Question 31 options:

True

False

Question 32

Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes

Question 32 options:

True

False

Question 33

Organisms that live in habitats with high levels of competition are more likely to produce defensive chemicals than those that live with little competition.

Question 33 options:

True

False

Question 34

The human population may continue to increase even though it surpasses carrying capacity.

Question 34 options:

True

False

Question 35

A woman’s ovum will complete Meiosis II only, if fertilization has occurred.

Question 35 options:

True

False

Question 36

One human disease is caused by a change in the DNA from GAA to GTA. This change is an example of:

Question 36 options:

crossing over

a mutation

independent assortment

cytokinesis

Question 37

The main function of a ribosome is to ____________________.

Question 37 options:

extract energy from glucose

synthesize glucose

store food in the form of fat

synthesize proteins

Question 38

The effectiveness of a medication containing growth hormone is tested on a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age. The best control group would be:

Question 38 options:

any group of rabbits

a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age, not given the medication

a group of young female rabbits 3 weeks of age, not given the medication

no control is required; just measure whether the rabbits grew

Question 39

The number of _______________ in the outer shell of an atom determines the type of chemical bonds an atom can make.

Question 39 options:

electrons

protons

ions

neutrons

Question 40

You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall. Therefore, you conclude, it must be a _______________ cell.

Question 40 options:

liver

animal

bacterial

plant

Question 41

The gene pool of a population may change due to:

Question 41 options:

migration

genetic drift

natural selection and mutation

all of the above

Question 42

What are “keystone species” in a community?

Question 43

What is “pseudoscience”?

Question 44

What are dependent variables?

Question 45

(Required) You have read that inorganic fertilizers contribute to water pollution and would like to make a switch from inorganic fertilizers to organic compost in your vegetable garden. A friend graciously gives you a truck load of his compost. As a good researcher and critical thinker you are not convinced that organic compost will yield better results than the inorganic fertilizer you have used for years with good results. To draw your own conclusion based on scientific evidence you decide to conduct an experiment in your garden. State a good hypothesis, design an experiment (include test subjects, sample size, control(s), dependent and independent variables, type of data collected) and hypothetical results/conclusion. Does your conclusion support the hypothesis?

Question 46

(Required) The habitat of one species of tropical fish is red coral reefs. The large majority of the fish in this population are red. A few individual fish carry a mutation that prevents the production of the red pigment; as a result these individual fish are white.The temperature of the ocean where these fish live gets warmer and warmer over a 10 year period, and as a result the coral is bleached and turns white. Use what you have learned about natural selection to explain how this bleaching event may have affected the evolution this fish population (not including possible direct effects of warmer temperatures on the fish). Use appropriate terminology about evolution in your answer, including the terms natural selection, adaptive trait, and reproductive success.

Question 47

Describe the major land biome where you live. How have human activities affected native species? Include specific examples.

Question 48

You scoop up a water sample from a local pond nearby, because you are curious about the possible microbes that might live there. After looking at several slides that held drops of the sample, you noticed two different kinds of cells: One kind was very small and had no separate internal structures; the other kind was much larger, and it contained several kinds of internal structures that were physically different from each other. Please name each cell and briefly describe their similarities and difference

#BIOL 103 FINAL EXAMINATION

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BIAM 530 WEEK 3 ILAB ASSIGNMENT – COMPARISON OF GUI VERSUS SQL

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BIAM 530 Week 3 iLab Assignment – Comparison of GUI versus SQL

Table of Contents

College Town University (CTU). 3

GUI and SQL Differences. 3

Graphical User Interface (GUI). 6

Structured Query Language (SQL). 6

Recommendation. 7

Appendix A.. 8

Appendix B.. 8

Appendix C.. 8

Appendix D.. 9

Appendix E.. 9

References. 10

#BIAM 530 WEEK 3 ILAB ASSIGNMENT – COMPARISON OF GUI VERSUS SQL

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BI ANALYSIS/FINAL PROJECT

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BI Analysis/Final Project

this final course activity will challenge your ability to apply quantitative problem solving to analyze business performance and identity opportunities and challenges. See attached documents, installation instructions, and data files.

In this analysis project, you’re doing a consulting gig for AdventureWorks Cycles, a mid-sized American bicycle manufacturer, and your client has asked you to help them get started with business intelligence processes that can show them where they stand.

Your work for them will include a quantitative analysis of data provided using PowerPivot, as well as a general recommendation as to where they need to start to solve their operating challenges, and a working Excel dashboard for monitoring important KPIs.

Note: PowerPivot requires Excel Professional 2010 (add-in) or 2013 (component), or Mac Excel 2016 (previous versions of Mac Office do not support PowerPivot. See installation & setup instructions.

Related Files: Choose one version of project files – V1-PowerPivot or V2-Non

Both versions include: description, setup instructions, dashboard tutorial, data files

The completed Word report should be a maximum of 4 pages (plus Appendix with a dashboard screen shot), single spaced, 12 point font, blank line between block paragraphs. Include 2-4 tables or charts to illustrate your main discussion points. Each table or chart should be numbered and titled correctly, with understandable axis labels and scales, and discussed directly in your text. Also submit Excel PowerPivot working file with dashboard & slicer features. Outside sources optional.

BI Analysis Structure – Your BI analysis should include the following sections:

Executive Summary – one paragraph, appears first, but written last, with a short summary purpose, and conclusions from your analysis.

Data and Methodology – a brief overview of the key characteristics of the dataset used, what you did to arrive at your analysis and conclusions, and the KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) you focused on for your analysis.

Dataset details —time period covered, main entities addressed by the data, and also mention that the dataset source is theAdventureWorks sales system and data quality is ‘reliable’.

Tools & process used to analyze the data—Excel PowerPivot, with pivot tables and charts.

List of KPIs and dimensions you focused on in your analysis. Explain, in your own words, what each means and why you used it.

Analysis – The client wants to you to identify issues and opportunities affecting sales revenue and profit in a targeted region of your choice. All discussion shown in your analysis must be supported by the data and charts you include in your report. Your creativity is encouraged.

Description of your target Product Category in your chosen Territory. Identify factors such as gross sales, profits, percentage profit, use of discounting, performance by channel, and the major product or subcategories, etc. Use 1-2 pivot tables or charts to support and illustrate this overview. Describe what you found, referring to your data charts, tables.

Recommendations – briefly describe and discuss your recommendation for change, including the actions or changes AdventureWorksshould take to improve performance. Consider how well these actions address the specific issue or opportunity, and if acted upon, indicate what and how the area is impacted. For example, sales and/or profitability may change over the next few months or year. Please be specific about the changes, and the magnitude of change (reasonable estimate based upon your suggestion).

Dashboard Description – Describe your dashboard design and explain how the charts/tables displayed in the dashboard will allow the company to monitor the effectiveness of the recommended actions. Include the dimensions and measures used, and indicate what comparisons were made. Include a screen shot of your dashboard model in appendix.

Appendix – screen shot of your dashboard design.

Submission – submit Word report, and copy of Excel file with pivot tables, charts, and working dashboard.

#BI ANALYSIS/FINAL PROJECT

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BEHS 210 FINAL EXAMINATION

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BEHS 210 Final Examination

Answer all questions.

Your answers must include sufficient detail. Please note that very short answers consisting of a few sentences will not be given credit.

Of the six disciplines (sociology, anthropology, psychology, gerontology, political science, economics) we discussed in this course choose 3 disciplines and describe 5 ways in which those selected disciplines relate to one another.

Of the six disciplines we explored in this course, which discipline appeals to you the most? Why? Which appeals to you the least? Why? (Need some detail here. Specifically, avoid providing very short answers).

What are the advantages of using more than one disciplinary perspective to understand and resolve important social issues? Select one current social issue as an example and show briefly how that particular issue can be examined from two disciplinary perspectives.

Describe in your own words what you understand by the term “business cycle.” (Need some detail here. Specifically, avoid providing very short answers).

#BEHS 210 FINAL EXAMINATION

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BEH PS365 UNIT 9 FINAL ASSIGNMENT GUIDETo Download tutorial Copy and Paste below Link into your Browser

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BEH PS365 Unit 9 Final Assignment Guide

As you move through the course, please start thinking about the Final Project, which is due by the end of Unit 9. Your Final Project will consist of an analysis of questions related to two separate case studies. Each case presents a problem that you, the future ABA professional, will need to assess. You will design an effective behavior modification program as well as a plan to evaluate this program. Each case covers the theories, concepts, and research discussed this term. Your answers to the questions should consist of information from the text and supplemental readings.

Your primary sources should be the readings assigned for the course, but you also may use sources from the Kaplan Library or other credible Internet sources. These include:

Academic Search Premier

EBSCO

ERIC

Pub Med

This will help you demonstrate your mastery of the material covered this term.

After reading each case, please fully answer the questions below. Responses to the questions should be typed in a Word document, double-spaced in 12-point font and submitted to the Dropbox. Most students will need to write 3-4 typed pages for each case in order to address all required parts of the Final Project.

Your final paper must be your original work; plagiarism will not be tolerated. Be sure to review the Syllabus in terms of what constitutes plagiarism.

Please make sure to provide proper credit for those sources used in your case study analysis in proper APA format. Please see the APA Quick Reference for any questions related to APA citations. You must credit authors when you:

Summarize a concept, theory or research

Use direct quotes from the text or articles

Case Study 1: William

Ms. Tooley contacts you, an ABA analyst, to assist her with a child in her classroom named William. William is a healthy 6-year-old boy who has been terrorizing his classmates. The problem has been occurring since the beginning of the school year. William pushes, kicks, hits or bites other children in the class. This has often happened during recess time. Ms. Tooley first addressed the issue by scolding William. That did not appear to reduce the behavior, so she then required him to visit the principal’s office whenever an episode of hitting/biting occurred. These visits also had little effect in reducing the negative behaviors.

What is the target behavior(s) that you will plan to address? Write a target behavior definition using terms that can be observed and the appropriate behavior analytic language.

How would you first assess William? Discuss the rationale for your choice of assessment.

Discuss one reason why the teacher’s original methods of behavior management may have failed.

Design an effective behavior modification program for William using a combination approach treatment package(two or more behavior techniques from the relevant literature).

Discuss your rationale for selecting the combination approach, drawing upon behavior theory.

Explain how you would evaluate the modification program.

Discuss issues related to spontaneous recovery of behavior, extinction and maintenance of desired behavior.

Case Study 2: Annie

Hospital Administrator Rodriguez contacts you because she is experiencing difficulty with an ABA program that you designed for one of her psychiatric patients, Annie. The patient, a 40-year-old schizophrenic female, has been exhibiting a great deal of difficulty with a few daily care routines, including brushing her teeth and making her bed in the morning. The program that you originally designed was a token economy system in which she would earn one token for each completed activity and then collect a reward (extra time in the courtyard) once 10 tokens were obtained. Ms. Rodriguez reports that Annie is not completing the tasks and then as a result, not earning any tokens. She asks you to revisit the hospital to determine what is not working.

A description of the data-based intervention that you have chosen.

Your rationale for using the intervention as supported by relevant literature (your text and Journal articles)

The overall behavior goals associated with the use of the plan

The step-by-step procedures that the staff will take to implement the plan

How data will be collected

How progress will be monitored

For this project you can refer to the syllabus to ensure everything was answered properly

Grading Criteria

PointsPossible

Content

Both cases are addressed and recapped. Target behavior is accurately identified in first case, and 3 factors affecting failure are discussed in the second case

0-20

Effective behavior modification from the relevant literature is selected in case 1 and rationale is discussed fully. In Case 2 student elaborates on at least one issue affecting the client

0-30

Evaluation of the program is discussed in case 1. In case 2 a step-by-step alternative behavior plan is presented including: description of the data-based intervention, rationale supported by relevant literature, behavior goals, and steps for staff implementation.

0-80

Writing

Structure: Paper includes a title page, introduction with thesis statement, conclusion, and in-text citations and reference page using APA style.Paper is appropriate in length (body of the paper should be 3-4 pages, not including the title page or reference page).

Paper includes reference to the textbook and any other academic sources used.

0-10

Mechanics: Paper uses Standard American English including correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation, and complete sentences and paragraphs.Paper is free of typographical errors.

Paper includes a highly developed viewpoint and purpose.

Paper demonstrates superior organization; communication is highly ordered, logical and unified.

0-10

Total

150

The books for this project is: Behavior Modification Principles and Procedures by Raymond G. Miltenberger, Also the Applied Behavior Analysis second edition by John O. Cooper, Timothy E. Heron, and William L. Heward

Please pay attention to question 6 of the project which is worth more and need to be very detailed as far ration, data what you will graph and what it will look like. You don’t to do a graph, but you need to explain one.

To prepare you for your Discussion post and Assignment in this unit, it is recommended that you review the following readings, even if you have already done so in the past.

pp. 549-611 (special applications section)

pp. 217-234 (behavior skills training )

pp. 399-415 (self-management)

pp. 431-449 (token economy)

pp. 451-465 (behavior contracts)

Visit the Organizational Behavior Management (OBM) Network website.

Source: Organizational Behavior Management (OBM) Network (2011). Retrieved from http://www.obmnetwork.com.

Reviewing the website sections within the “What is OBM?” and “Publications” tabs will provide you with information on OBM and its applications.

Read the following article on behavior principles used in business:

Source: “Performance Management” (2010): Cambridge Center for Behavior Studies. Retrieved from http://www.behavior.org/resource.php?id=400

#BEH PS365 UNIT 9 FINAL ASSIGNMENT GUIDE

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BAM 421 UNIT 4 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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BAM 421 Unit 4 Examination Answers

The aggregate plan gets input or feedback from which of the following areas?

engineering

finance, marketing and human resources

the master production schedule

procurement, production and general management

All of the above.

Which portion of the master production schedule is normally fixed, frozen or firm?

the entire schedule

only the aggregate schedule

only the middle of the schedule

only the near-term portion

only the far-term portion

In continuous (stock-to-forecast) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of _______________.

end items

modules

kits

customer orders

warehouse orders

In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in

_______________.

end items

modules

kits

customer orders

warehouse orders

A document calls for the production of 50 small garden tractors in week 1, 50 small garden tractors and 100 riding mowers in week 2, 100 riding mowers and 200 garden utility carts in week 3 and 100 riding mowers in week 4. This document is most likely a(n) _______________.

net requirements document

resource requirements profile

aggregate plan

master production schedule

Wagner-Whitin finite capacity document

The _______________ is the input to material requirements planning which lists the assemblies, subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.

bill of material

master production schedule

inventory records

assembly time chart

net requirements chart

A bill of material lists the _______________.

times needed to perform all phases of production

production schedules for all products

components, ingredients and materials required to produce an item

operations required to produce an item

components, ingredients, materials and assembly operations required to produce an item

Forward scheduling _______________.

begins with a delivery date, then offsets each operation one at a time, in reverse order

is well suited where the supplier is usually able to meet precise delivery dates

tends to minimize work-in-process inventory

assumes that procurement of material and operations start as soon as requirements are known

produces a schedule only if it meets the due date

Scheduling is rather straightforward in product-focused facilities because _______________.

kanban automates the scheduling of the assembly line

demand is reasonably stable and capacities, set-up times and run times are generally known

assembly line balancing assures the highest possible production efficiency

finite capacity scheduling has made MRP much more realistic

All of the above are true.

Which file contains important information regarding an item’s flow through the shop?

item master file

work-center master file

control files

routing file

None of the above provides information regarding an item’s flow through the shop.

Which of these is not part of the planning files of a production planning and control system?

a progress file

a work-center master file

an item master file

a routing file

All of the above are all part of the planning files.

Which of the following files tracks work order progress?

work-center master files

routing files

item master files

control files

None of the above tracks work order progress.

The production database containing information about each of the components that a firm produces or purchases is the _______________.

routing file

work-center master file

control file

item master file

None of the above.

Which of the following is not one of the Seven Wastes?

overproduction

transportation

assignment

defective product

motion

The 5Ss ________________.

have the “flavor” of a housekeeping list

are a checklist for lean operations

have become a list of seven items in American practice

can be used to assist with necessary changes in organizational culture

All of these are true.

The list of 5Ss, although it looks like a housekeeping directive, supports lean production by

________________.

identifying non-value items and removing them in the “sort/segregate” item

reducing inventory in the “standardize” item

increasing variability through standardized procedures in the “standardize” item

eliminating wasted motion through ergonomic studies in the “support” item

building good safety practices in the “shine/sweep” item

Concerning relationships with suppliers, which of the following combinations is critical to the success of JIT?

close relationships with trust

close relationships with skepticism

distant relationships with trust

distant relationships with skepticism

None of the above.

Which one of the following is not a benefit of the implementation of JIT?

cost reduction

variability increase

rapid throughput

quality improvement

rework reduction

If the goals of JIT partnerships are met, which of the following is a result?

For incoming goods, receiving activity and inspection are outsourced.

In-transit inventory falls as suppliers are located closer to facilities.

The number of suppliers increases.

In-plant inventory replaces in-transit inventory.

All of the above are consequences of meeting the JIT partnership goals.

Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours each. One failed at 20 hours; all others completed the test. FR(%) is _______________ and MTBF is ________________.

10%; 1/1820

90%; 1/1820

10%; 1820 hours

10%; 1980 hours

cannot calculate from information provided

Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours each. One failed at 50 hours; all others completed the test. FR(%) is _____________ and FR(N) is _______________.

10%; 1/1850

10%; 1/2000

25%; 1850 hours

90%; 1/2000

Indeterminate; no standard deviation is given.

Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours each. One failed at 20 hours, another failed at 140 hours and all others completed the test. FR(%) is _______________ and MTBF is ________________.

20%; 880 hours

10%; 1980 hours

20%; 1760 hours

80%; 920 hours

cannot calculate from information provided

MTBF measures the average _________________.

calendar time between failures

operating time between failures

number of failures per unit time

number of operations between failures

downtime per breakdown

A system is composed of four parts, J, K, L and M. All four must function for the system to function. The four component reliabilities are .99, .98, .992 and .998. The designers are considering putting a .80 reliable backup at K. This backup will change the system reliability from ______________ to ________________.

0.9762 to 0.9605

0.9605 to 0.9762

0.9605 to some smaller value

cannot be determined

None of the above.

Suppose that a process is comprised of multiple components, each having a 75% success rate. What is the change in reliability going from a series layout to a parallel layout if the process has 5 components?

100%

76.2%

-76.2 %

unable to determine

#BAM 421 UNIT 4 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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randalhoffman-blog1 · 8 years ago

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BAM 421 UNIT 3 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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BAM 421 Unit 3 Examination Answers

BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 3 Exam

The behavioral approach to job design that involves giving the worker a larger portion of the total task is job _______________.

enlargement

enrichment

enhancement

rotation

involvement

When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilize, his/her job is characterized by _______________.

skill variety

job identity

job significance

feedback

autonomy

Which of the following terms implies an increase in responsibility and control in the vertical direction?

job rotation

job enrichment

job re-design

job enlargement

job satisfaction

Which of the following statements describes job rotation?

The job contains a larger number of similar tasks.

The job includes some planning and control necessary for job accomplishment.

The operator works on different shifts on a regular basis.

The operator’s schedule is flexible.

The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one type of CNC machine to the other.

The difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that ______________.

enlarged jobs involve vertical expansion while enriched jobs involve horizontal expansion

enriched jobs enable an employee to do a number of boring jobs instead of just one

job enlargement is more psychologically satisfying than job enrichment

job enrichment is suitable for all employees, whereas job enlargement is not

enriched jobs involve vertical expansion while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion

Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.10 and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time?

4.5 hours

4.9 hours

5.1 hours

5.6 hours

50.0 hours

A job characterized by _______________ allows a worker to use his/her dexterity, physical strength and skills to do his/her work.

feedback

skill variety

job identity

job significance

autonomy

Outsourcing ______________.

transfers traditional internal activities to outside vendors

utilizes the efficiency which comes with specialization

lets the outsourcing firm focus on its key success factors

None of the above are true of outsourcing.

All of the above are true of outsourcing.

The transfer of some of what are traditional internal activities and resources of a firm to outside vendors is ______________.

a standard use of the make or buy decision

not allowed by the ethics code of the Supply Management Institute

offshoring

outsourcing

keiretsu

The Institute for Supply Management ________________.

establishes laws and regulations for supply management

is an agency of the United Nations charged with promoting ethical conduct globally

publishes the principles and standards for ethical supply management conduct

prohibits backward integration into developing economies

All of the above are true.

In supply-chain management, ethical issues ______________.

are particularly important because of the enormous opportunities for abuse

may be guided by company rules and codes of conduct

become more complex the more global the supply chain

may be guided by the principles and standards of the Institute for Supply Management

All of the above are true.

Which one of the following is not a supply-chain strategy?

negotiation with many suppliers

vertical integration

keiretsu

short-term relationships with few suppliers

virtual companies

A disadvantage of the “few suppliers” strategy is _______________.

the risk of not being ready for technological change

the lack of cost savings for customers and suppliers

possible violations of the Sherman Antitrust Act

the high cost of changing partners

All of the above are disadvantages of the “few suppliers” strategy.

In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will _______________.

increase by about 41%

increase by 100%

increase by 200%

increase, but more data is needed to say by how much

either increase or decrease

In the basic EOQ model, if D=6000 per year, S=$100 andH=$5 per unit per month, then the economic order quantity is approximately _______________.

100

141

490

600

The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are _______________.

timing and cost of orders

quantity and cost of orders

timing and quantity of orders

order quantity and service level

ordering cost and carrying cost

Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it ______________.

makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to management

does not require the detailed records necessary when annual physical inventory is used

does not require highly trained people

allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory

does not need to be performed for less expensive items

Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs?

housing costs

material handling costs

investment costs

pilferage, scrap and obsolescence

All of the above are elements of inventory holding cost.

Most inventory models attempt to minimize _______________.

the likelihood of a stockout

the number of items ordered

total inventory based costs

the number of orders placed

the safety stock

Top executives tend to focus their attention on which type of forecasts?

short-range

medium-range

long-range

weather

the forecast for the next day’s absentee levels

Which of the following would most likely fall under the scope of only an operations manager?

research and development

new product plans

capital investments

facility location and expansion

setting inventory levels

Disaggregation _______________.

breaks the aggregate plan into greater detail

transforms the master production schedule into an aggregate plan

calculates the optimal price points for yield management

converts product schedules and labor assignments to a facility-wide plan

is an assumption required for the use of the transportation model in aggregate planning

Aggregate planning would entail which of the following production aspects at BMW for a 12 month period?

number of cars with a hi-fi stereo system to produce

number of two-door vs. four-door cars to produce

number of green cars to produce

total number of cars to produce

b, c, and d are correct.

What directly results from disaggregation of an aggregate plan?

a master production schedule

priority scheduling

a transportation matrix

a capacity-demand matrix

detailed work schedules

Dependence on an external source of supply is found in which of the following aggregate planning strategies?

varying production rates through overtime or idle time

subcontracting

using part-time workers

back-ordering during high demand periods

hiring and laying off

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BAM 421 Unit 2 Examination Answers

BAM 421 Operations Management Unit Exam 2

The analysis tool that helps determine what products to develop, and by what strategy, by listing products in descending order of their individual dollar contribution to the firm is

_______________ analysis.

In which stage of the product life cycle should product strategy focus on improved cost control?

_______________ is used to rank a company’s products to determine which products represent the best use of the firm’s resources, or, perhaps, to determine which products are to be eliminated.

Which of the following represents an opportunity for generating a new product?

What percentage of sales from new products is indicative of industry leaders?

Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?

All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality EXCEPT _______________ costs.

Quality can improve profitability by reducing costs. Which of the following is not an aspect of reduced costs by quality improvements?

Which of the four major categories of quality costs is particularly hard to quantify?

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Frito-Lay is to _____________ focus as Harley Davidson is to _____________ focus.

One of the similarities between repetitive focus and mass customization is _____________.

Flexible equipment with rapid changeovers is most closely associated with which approach?

Swift movement through the facility is typical of goods in which approach?

High fixed costs and low variable costs are typical of which approach?

Instead of comparing the salaries of Detroit autoworkers to foreign autoworkers to determine if Union labor prices are the cause of Detroit’s financial woes, which of the following should be used?

The reason fast food restaurants often are found in close proximity to each other is ______________.

Currency risk is based on what assumption?

Governmental attitudes toward issues such as private property, intellectual property, zoning, pollution and employment stability may change over time. The term associated with this phenomenon is _____________ risk.

A location decision for an appliance manufacturer would tend to have a(n) _____________.

Slotting fees _____________.

Which of the following is not a retail layout practice?

What is the primary reason why retailers tend to locate high-draw items around the periphery of the store?

The fixed-position layout would be most appropriate in which of the following settings?

For which of the following operations would a fixed-position layout be most appropriate?

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BAM 411 HUMAN RESOURCE UNIT 4 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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BAM 411 Human Resource Unit 4 Examination Answers

The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.

judgments

ethics

norms

laws

Procedural justice refers to the ________.

degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse ordisrespect

fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision

manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees

fairness of a decision’s result

The Enron debacle, “It’s not the rules but what employees feel they should do that determinesethical behavior,” is a description of ________.

national culture

organizational culture

organizational climate

organizational ethics

The CEO of Southwest Airlines can sometimes be seen helping out at a gate, handling luggage,and assisting cabin attendants while in flight. This is an example of ________ to create andsustain the company’s culture.

organizing ceremonies

providing physical support

using signs and symbols

clarifying expectations

All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except:

if no further incidents purge the one-day suspension from the file

contact others involved

give a paid, one-day “decision-making leave”

None of the above.

The most drastic step a manager can take in response to an employee offense is ________.

dismissal

time off without pay

written warning

warning documented in employee file

Which of the basis for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned dutiesor to meet prescribed standards on the job?

misconduct

changed requirements of job

unsatisfactory performance

lack of qualifications for job

Misconduct, one of the basis for dismissal, is defined as ________.

an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence

the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination

the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job

What law requires that employers of 100 or more employees receive 60 days’ notice beforeclosing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more?

Electronic Communications Privacy Act

ERISA

Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

COBRA

The plant closing law requires employers with ________ or more employees to give advance notification prior to closing a facility.

150

100

What is the second step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

plan the interview carefully

get to the point

describe the situation

listen

The ________ shop form of union security means that the company can hire non-union people,but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.

union

open

closed

agency

In what year was the Wagner Act passed?

1886

1935

1947

1932

Which law gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization?

Gompers Act

Landrum-Griffin Act

Taft-Hartley Act

Norris-LaGuardia Act

________ is an organizing tactic by which full-time undercover union organizers are hiredunknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections.

Union salting

Infiltration

Espionage

Featherbedding

All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except:

overtime pay

use of union label

indemnity bonds

cafeteria prices

Illegal bargaining items are ________.

items which must be negotiated according to law

a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union

forbidden by law

All of the above.

Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________.

communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike

interpreting existing contract terms

studying the issue in a dispute and making a public recommendation

assisting the principals in reaching an agreement

Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responsesexcept:

shut down the affected area until the strike ends

hire permanent replacement workers

contract out work to other operations

continue operations with supervisors filling in

Which of the following is not a basis for reducing and preventing accidents at work?

reducing unsafe conditions

training employees

reducing unsafe acts

hiring non-accident-prone workers

Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of possible alcoholism in an employee?

lying

tardiness

avoidance of fellow employees

domestic problems

A drug-free workplace program includes how many components?

All of the following are symptoms of employees in the middle stage of alcoholism except:

anxiety

untrue statements

frequent absences

mood swings

Which of the following is an external factor that can lead to job stress?

workaholic personality

pessimism

job security

locus of control

Which of the following safety concerns only became a top priority of employers following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001?

internet security

physical asset security

workplace violence

employee selection and screening

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BAM 411 HUMAN RESOURCE UNIT 3 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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BAM 411 Human Resource Unit 3 Examination Answers

The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called ________.

employee selection

recruitment

performance appraisal

organizational development

The “S” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________.

straightforward

specific

strategic

support

Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’sperformance?

the EEO contact person

the company appraiser

the employee’s direct supervisor

None of the above.

Because in most organizations there is a hierarchy of goals, employee performance standardsshould ________.

make sense in terms of the broader organizational goals

be standard

be decided by the top executive

All of the above.

Besides the supervisor, which of the following is available to managers as an alternative sourceof performance appraisal information?

the employee

rating committees

peers

All of the above.

Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluate Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the________ method of performance appraisal.

forced distribution

alternation ranking

paired comparison

graphic ranking scale

To protect against bias claims when using the forced distribution method, employers should

________.

train raters to be objective

appoint a review committee to review any employee’s low ranking

consider using multiple raters in conjunction with the method

All of the above.

All of the following are advantages of using the critical incident method for appraisingperformance except that:

incidents can be tied to performance goals.

it does not include a numerical rating.

it provides examples of good performance.

it provides examples of poor performance.

What is the fourth step in the Management by Objectives Method?

set the organization’s goals

set departmental goals

discuss departmental goals

define expected results

One personality study focused on how individual traits influenced the evaluations that studentsgave their peers. Raters who scored higher on ________ tended to give their peers lowerratings.

openness

agreeableness

conscientiousness

extroversion

One way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to________.

consider the purpose of the appraisal

be aware of the problem

train supervisors to avoid it

rank employees

When an employee’s personal characteristics, such as gender, influence a supervisor’sevaluation of his or her performance, the problem of ________ has occurred.

stereotyping

halo affect

central tendency

bias

When subordinates provide feedback for supervisors, the comments should be anonymousbecause identifiable responses tend to result in more ________.

critical ratings

inflated ratings

negative attitudes from managers receiving the feedback

All of the above.

The process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishesaction plans to attain those goals is called ________.

career management

career development

career planning

organizational development

Responsibility for career development should always be left to the ________.

employee

manager

career success team

supervisor

What is another term for 360-degree feedback?

multi-source feedback

upward feedback

wheel feedback

feedback loop

Direct financial payments include all of the following except:

insurance

salaries

incentives

wages

Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards Act?

child labor

minimum wage

maximum hours

All of the above.

According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ________ of normal pay for any hoursworked over 40 in a workweek.

150%

50%

125%

100%

Which of the following occupations is exempt from overtime and minimum pay provisionsstated in the Fair Labor Standards Act?

hourly cashiers

data entry

department heads

none of the above

Under which condition is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive differentpay for doing roughly equivalent work?

it is never acceptable

when the difference exists because of a merit system

when the difference exists despite similar responsibility

when the difference exists despite equal skills

The ________ prohibits discriminating against employees who are 40 years of age and older inall aspects of employment, including compensation.

Civil Rights Act

Fair Labor Standards Act

Equal Pay Act

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

The ________ allows a firm to borrow against employee stock held in trust.

Employer Retirement Income Security Act

Fair Labor Standards Act

National Labor Relations Act

Civil Rights Act

A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as establishedby job evaluation.

class

pay grade

benchmark

pay group

Which health benefit listed below is offered by almost all employers?

wellness program

chiropractic insurance

medical care insurance

mental health insurance

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BAM 411 HUMAN RESOURCE UNIT 1 EXAMINATION ANSWERS

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BAM 411 Human Resource Unit 1 Examination Answers

________ plan training activities.

Managers

Training specialists

Corporate teachers

Job analysts

________ organize the training opportunities for a company.

EEO representatives

Trainings specialists

Change managers

Communication directors

The ________ HR group may provide specialized support for organizational change.

centers of expertise

embedded

corporate

transactional

The proportion of younger workers in the workforce is projected to ________.

stop growing

decrease

decrease at a faster rate

increase at a slower rate

Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________.

people are living longer

there are fewer people entering the job market than there are retiring baby boomers

one-third of single mothers are not in the labor force

All of the above.

What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?

hiring more women

instituting flexible work hours

rehiring retirees

lowering the retirement age

Strategic human resource management refers to ________.

planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage

extending a firm’s sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets

formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce theemployee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic aims

emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm’s workers

8 . Which term refers to letting vendors abroad provide services for a firm?

offshoring

application service providers

data warehousing

external work systems

________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their ownership to new markets abroad.

Trend analysis

Globalization

Outsourcing

Strategic human resources

Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers?

Association of Business Administration

Academy of HR Partners

Academy of Management

Society for Human Resource Management

Which of the following is an example of HR management’s changing role?

HR managers must be individually centered so as to ensure that there will be nofavoritism.

HR managers must represent the organization even when they are off the clock.

HR managers must measurably improve organizational performance.

None of the above.

Which of the following is not a factor changing the environment of HRM?

economic trends

demographic trends

“generation Y”

None of the above.

All of the following are new HRM skills except:

improving internal consulting skills.

improving off shoring skills.

supplying transactional services while serving more strategic, internal consulting activities.

All of the above.

A ________ is a system that enables employees to manage their own benefits and update their personal information.

software based system

company portal

cybernetic portal

formulation system

Of the ten most serious ethical issues, how many were HR related?

four

ten

six

seven

Which of the following is an issue that HR managers have to deal with today?

managing ethics

adding value

managing employee engagement

All of the above.

The ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states, “no person shall be deprived of life,liberty, or property, without due process of the law.”

Tenth

Fifth

First

Thirteenth

The establishment of the EEOC ________ the ability of the federal government to enforce equal employment laws.

hampered

greatly enhanced

greatly reduced

truncated

Jack is a 55-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is intended to protect Jack from discrimination?

Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

Equal Pay Act of 1963

Executive Order 11246

Title VII

The Vocational Rehabilitation Act requires that employers accommodate disabled workersexcept when doing so imposes ________.

any form of inconvenience

any objection by the customers

an undue hardship

any financial burden

What was the name of the landmark case the Supreme Court used to define unfair discrimination?

Griggs v. Duke Power Company

Meritor Savings Bank FSB v. Vinson

Faragher v. City of Boca Raton

Roe v. Wade

22. All of the following are ways of proving sexual harassment except:

visiting the ombudsman.

hostile working environment.

quid pro quo.

b and c only

Under the Federal Agency Uniform guidelines, it may be ________ to discriminate againstpersons even within the 40+ age bracket.

unlawful

necessary

lawful

b and c only

All of the following are useful in minimizing liability for sexual harassment except:

establishing a management response system.

taking all complaints about harassment seriously.

adopting a policy that forgives the first offense.

issuing a strong policy statement condemning harassment.

Which of the following is not a guideline arising out of Griggs v. Duke Power?

job relatedness

discrimination must have disparate impact only

discrimination need not be intentional

burden of proof on employer

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BAM 401 unit4

in general, companies that have low levels of ownership advantages ____________.

enter foreign markets through franchising

enter foreign markets through joint ventures

enter foreign markets through FDI d. do not enter foreign markets

The ____________ of a rm is the share of its total output that is exported.

export intensity b. incremental export

intermodal export

freight forward

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases in the process of incremental export development?

initial exporting

serendipity c. preengagement

advanced

Which of the following explanations is commonly cited as a reason that rms do not seek export opportunities more aggressively?

Firms are reluctant to adjust their nancial practices. b. It is dif cult for foreign customers to communicate their needs to an exporter.

Exporting is an activity best left to large rms. d. Firms are unaware of foreign market opportunities.

An import strategy may be driven by the fact that companies ____________.

can tap a wide range of government subsidies to support their import strategy b. cannot buy goods or services needed in their production processes from local companies

can nd goods or services of lower quality than similar goods produced locally d. can buy goods or services at higher prices from foreign suppliers

Unit 4 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

162

As companies initiate their activities in export markets with a preference for an indirect selling strategy, they tend to ____________.

establish a small cadre of export professionals to handle the specialized functions of exporting

use external specialists to assist in the export process c. use freight forwarders to act as distributors in foreign markets d. use the International Trade Administration to handle their exports

The company that hires an intermediary in the belief that indirect selling has the most appeal in helping it manage the export process must accept ____________.

greater control over aspects of its international sales

lower pro t margins c. more responsibility for customer satisfaction d. the need to better understand trade regulations

Which of the following is a difference between export management companies (EMCs) and export trading companies (ETCs)?

ETCs deal with both exports and imports, while EMCs deal only with exports. b. ETCs operate more on the basis of demand, while EMCs operate more on the basis of

supply. c. ETCs typically carry inventory, while EMCs typically do not.

ETCs are subject to antitrust laws, while EMCs are not.

Exporters who opt for direct selling in foreign markets most commonly do so ____________.

because they are usually the only ones who really understand the product characteristics

in order to spread the risk c. by working with a foreign distributor d. by allowing export management companies to act as agents for them

An American company looking to get into exporting could look to government agencies for assistance in all of the following ways EXCEPT which one?

providing information about market demographics and product demand b. understanding how to comply with domestic and foreign trade regulations c. organizing trade events that help potential exporters make foreign contacts and explore

export opportunities d. acting as an export marketing department or international department for the company

Unit 4 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

163

Countertrade is an alternative means of structuring an international sale when ____________.

conventional forms of payment are dif cult, costly, or nonexistent

an importer is able to obtain a bank loan c. an importer does not belong to the World Bank d. an importer is able to raise the cash to settle a bill

Consumers may prefer domestically made products over imports for all the following reasons EXCEPT ____________.

a negative image associated with products from a certain country b. a belief that just-in-time manufacturing systems have reduced the need for imports

fears that parts and service will be dif cult to obtain for foreign products d. nationalistic sentiments

Internalization of foreign operations may lead to cost savings because ____________.

companies can avoid high start-up costs b. companies can avoid the costs of enforcing an agreement c. the elimination of the middleman reduces pro ts for that level

companies can avoid spreading costs with other companies

Risk is an important factor for companies engaged in international business. One way a collaborative arrangement helps minimize risk when operating abroad is by ____________.

providing more control over competitors’ entry b. freeing up resources so a company can diversify into more countries

eliminating losses from exchange rate depreciation abroad d. increasing the amount of compensation in case of expropriation

The advantages of contracting another company to handle production and sales abroad are less important when ____________.

the foreign country has high political risk b. foreign tax rates are the same as domestic taxes c. the company already has facilities in place within the foreign country

the company lacks nancial resources

When one rm grants another the use of a trademark and provides operational assistance on a continuing basis, the arrangement is known as ____________.

franchising b. appropriability c. a trademark convention

a management contract

Unit 4 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

164

When a company transfers specialized personnel abroad for a fee to work for another organization’s operation, the activity is known as ____________.

a management contract

franchising c. a joint venture d. a turnkey operation

What is an international joint venture?

an international agreement between two or more rms for the use of a trademark b. an agreement between two or more companies to manage a foreign business for a fee

the ownership of a company by two or more companies, of which at least one is a

foreign company where the venture is located d. an agreement between two or more organizations to share management expertise

The degree of ____________ differentiation in a company determines where it has opted to assign decision making authority within the context of its organization structure.

schematic

vertical c. horizontal

systemic

A ____________ structure is the ideal way to organize work when global integration is more important than local responsiveness and the industry structure encourages cost leadership.

decentralized

functional c. divisional d. matrix

Which of the following organizational structures is particularly popular among companies that market a diverse portfolio of products?

functional division structure b. international division structure

product division structure d. geographic division structure

Which of the following statements about a matrix structure is false?

It speci es extensive communication channels. b. It slows decision making. c. It creates dual career ladders. d. It is more easily managed than a divisional structure.

Unit 4 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

165

Which of the following is NOT one of the three prevalent approaches to coordination?

adaptation b. mutual adjustment

standardization d. planning

Organizational ____________ is a system of shared values about what is important and beliefs about how the world works among the employees of an organization.

vision b. structure

system

culture

A company adopting a(n) ____________ strategy will likely aim to develop an organization culture that helps employees around the world unquestioningly accept common goals and practices.

transnational

multidomestic

global d. international

Unit 4 Examination

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BAM 401 UNIT 2 EXAMINATION

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Which of the following stakeholders groups wants additional sales and increased productivity,

which result in higher pro ts and larger returns going to them?

shareholders

society at large

customers d. government

If a British company sets up a subsidiary in France that produces products for the French market, this investment is most likely to result in what type of economic effect in the short run?

capital export from France b. import displacement in France

export stimulus for France d. capital in ow for Britain

In what ways can FDI bene t the host country?

through the transfer of technology and capital and the creation of new jobs

by exploiting natural resources c. through bidding up prices so local investors cannot compete d. by undermining the competitive con dence of local businesspeople

Why is the argument that “anything legal is ethical” insuf cient?

Laws can never be changed; thus, rules for all possible ethical dilemmas are found in the law.

Everything that is unethical is also illegal. c. The law is an extremely ef cient way to solve most ethical dilemmas.

The law is often based on imprecisely de ned moral concepts.

Which of the following is a reason for an MNE to base its standards for ethical behavior on a country’s laws?

The law provides a vaguely de ned set of rules. b. The law represents a consensus derived from signi cant experience and deliberation.

The law embodies many of a country’s moral beliefs but is an inadequate guide for

proper conduct. d. The law contains unenforceable rules that are impossible to follow.

Unit 2 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

Which of the following statements describes an inconsistency of the FCPA?

Facilitation payments (or grease money) are excluded from the FCPA’s de nition of bribery.

Payments to foreign of cials who carry out the law are illegal. c. Payments to of cials who are not directly responsible for carrying out the law are legal.

Facilitation payments (also known as grease money) are classi ed as bribery.

At the core of the Kyoto Protocol is the theory that ____________ is a result of an increase in the emissions of carbon dioxide and other gases.

global warming b. soil contamination c. depletion of natural resources

climate control

Which of the following is the most persuasive reason for companies to act more ethically and responsibly?

The U.S. government provides tax breaks to companies that donate to international charities.

Companies face no outside pressures to act responsibly. c. Unethical or irresponsible behavior can negatively impact employee morale. d. Companies that have good ethical behavior are proven to have higher earnings than

unethical companies.

Companies need to act responsibly because unethical and irresponsible behavior ____________.

usually improves employee morale b. could result in consumer boycotts c. rarely results in legal sanctions d. almost always results in lower pro t margins

Which of the following is a problem that Anglo American PLC is facing as it tries to adopt an aggressive strategy against HIV/AIDS?

Many employees are not following through on their treatments. b. Its programs have been much more effective than imagined and costs to treat

employees have dropped. c. HIV/AIDS prevention programs are more effective than treatment programs. d. They have been incurring huge costs to help migrant workers who generally do not have

HIV/AIDS and do not take the disease back to their home villages.

Unit 2 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

Which of the following undesirable results may come about for a country running a favorable balance of trade?

It may have to devalue its currency. b. Its credit to other countries may buy insuf cient goods and services when repaid.

Its unemployment increases. d. It cannot as easily repay its external debt.

Which of the following is most likely a basis for a Jamaican natural advantage in the export of goods and services?

product technology developed by a Jamaican company b. the use of English as the primary language c. low literacy rate in comparison with most other developing countries

clear, warm Caribbean waters

According to the theory of comparative advantage, a country gains from foreign trade even though it may have an absolute advantage in the production of all products because ____________.

the country will forego producing its less ef cient output in order to produce its more ef cient output

workers become more ef cient through specialization c. there will be more incentive to develop cost-saving technologies

economies of scale will reduce cost

Which of the following is the strongest argument for using a strategic trade policy?

Governments, rather than entrepreneurs, should take the risks of developing new industries.

Because government in uence is seldom neutral, government actions should concentrate on helping those industries that will give them the best export advantages.

Consumer needs would otherwise not be met. d. The policies have usually resulted in big payoffs.

A governmental strategic trade policy is one that ____________.

seeks reciprocal free trade agreements b. limits imports to encourage domestic production of what would otherwise be imported

develops industries to lessen dependence on foreign military goods d. targets the resources needed to support industries that t best with the country’s

advantages

Unit 2 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

The most internationally mobile factor of production is ____________.

labor b. management c. short-term capital

long-term capital

Costa Rica’s recent economic transformation to dependence on high-tech manufacturing is largely due to its adoption of _____________ trade policy.

a comparative advantage

an import substitution

a strategic d. a factor proportions

Why have many countries come to believe that an export-led development policy is better than an import substitution policy?

Some countries have achieved more economic growth through export-led development policies than other countries have achieved through import substitution policies.

When targeting industries to develop, it is easier to identify potentially competitive ones when using export-led development policies.

Export-led development policies negate the need to attract foreign investment.

Economies diversify more when using export-led development policies.

All of the following are reasons a country might institute import restrictions to improve its balance of trade position with other countries EXCEPT which one?

to get comparable market access for its companies

to maintain essential industries c. to reduce imports d. to bargain away restrictions by other countries

All of the following are potential problems of using export controls EXCEPT which one?

There is more incentive for smuggling. b. Import prices may go down for the country imposing the controls. c. There will be an incentive for other countries to develop production of their own.

Domestic producers may have less incentive to increase output.

The most common type of tariff is the ____________ tariff.

ad valorem

transit c. import d. export

Unit 2 Examination

BAM 401 International Business

The European Union is an example of ____________ integration.

bilateral

regional

global

relative

As companies expand internationally, they should change their ____________ to take advantage of regional trading groups.

economic integration b. bilateral trade agreements

market opportunities d. operating strategies

Trade ____________ allows consumers access to more goods at a lower price than would have been possible without integration.

Trade specialization

Trade creation c. Trade diversion d. Trade internalization

The ____________ is a preferential trade agreement that was organized in 1967 and comprises Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

OAU b. CAFTA c. APEC d. ASEAN

#BAM 401 UNIT 2 EXAMINATION

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