siva3155

[siva3155]

300+ TOP Social Psychology 1 MCQs and Answers Quiz

Social Psychology 1 Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Prisoners' Dilemma is an example of: A. free riding B. a social dilemma C. a solution to a social dilemma D. the opposite of a social dilemma Answer: B. a social dilemma 2. What has, according to an eminent social psychologist, been‘treated like a rude bastard relative at a family gathering’? A. downward comparison B. impression management C. civility D. stereotyping Answer: B. impression management 3. Why is it generally felt that members of some societies might develop a stronger preference for dispositional explanations? A. many western societies are characterized by a culture of individualism, and this makes people lean more towards understanding the actor than the situation B. many western societies are characterized by a culture of collectivism, and this makes people lean more towards understanding the situation than the actor C. many non-western societies are characterized by a culture of individualism, and this makes people lean more towards understanding the actor than the situation D. many non-western societies are characterized by a culture of collectivism, and this makes people lean more towards understanding the situation than the actor Answer: A. many western societies are characterized by a culture of individualism, and this makes people lean more towards understanding the actor than the situation 4. In Heider’s (1948) balance theory, which of the following would represent an unbalanced triad? A. agreeing with someone you like B. agreeing with someone you dislike C. disagreeing with someone you dislike D. agreeing with a friend of a friend Answer: B. agreeing with someone you dislike 5. Completing a task which requires self-control may make it: A. easier to self-regulate on a following task B. harder to self-regulate on a following task C. impossible to self-regulate on a following task D. neither easier nor harder to self-regulate on a following task Answer: B. harder to self-regulate on a following task 6. You decide to train for a marathon, and for a month you force yourself to get up at 6am every day to go running. At the end ofthe month, you notice that you have also been more successful recently at resisting the temptation to eat junk food. How would the strength model explain this: A. succeeding at a goal has increased your self-efficacy B. practicing self-control has increased your self-control resources C. forming a goal has increased your motivation to overcome obstacles D. similar goals facilitate each other Answer: B. practicing self-control has increased your self-control resources 7. According to Ajzen and Fishbein (1977), measures of attitude and behavior need to correspond in four key ways. But which of the following is NOT one of these? A. action B. content C. target D. time Answer: B. content 8. Which of the following would suggest that a person has lowimplicit self-esteem? A. they associate positive words more quickly than negative words with the self B. they associate negative words more quickly with the self than with others C. they show a greater than average liking for letters that are in their name D. they show a cautious style of self-presentation Answer: B. they associate negative words more quickly with the self than with others 9. Which of these statements about conformity is correct? A. the more members of the majority there are, the more dramatically conformity increases B. genuine social support has a stronger influence over conformity than does broken unanimity C. group size has a greater impact on conformity than any other moderator of group influence D. people in western cultures find greater acceptance of others judgements than those in eastern cultures Answer: B. genuine social support has a stronger influence over conformity than does broken unanimity 10. According to Moscovici (1976, 1980), what process of influence do minorities induce? A. validation B. conversion C. compliance D. comparison Answer: A. validation 11. Below are three strongly-held views over which source condition (minority or majority) elicits the highest cognitive scrutiny of a message. But which one have studies shown to be correct? A. "superior message processing is associated with a minority." B. "superior message processing is associated with a majority." C. "both a majority and minority can lead to superior message processing under different conditions." D. none of these Answer: C. "both a majority and minority can lead to superior message processing under different conditions." 12. In Gottman and Levenson’s study of married couples’ social interactions, what was the strongest predictor of divorce? A. criticism B. contempt C. anger D. infidelity Answer: B. contempt 13. At what age do children reach an understanding of pride? A. 3-4 B. 5-6 C. 7-9 D. 10-12 Answer: C. 7-9 14. Self-categorisation theory suggests that social category salience is a function of: A. fit x perceiver readiness B. perceiver readiness x accessibility C. identification x normative fit D. identification x comparative fit Answer: A. fit x perceiver readiness 15. A cognitive miser is a person who: A. hoards good ideas that should be shared with others B. gives little time to thinking about personal matters C. is good at disguising thoughts from other people D. uses little effort in making judgments about other people Answer: D. uses little effort in making judgments about other people 16. Being in a good mood does not reduce our_______, but reducesour________. A. motivation to do hard cognitive work, incentive for doing hard cognitive work B. incentive to do hard cognitive work, motivation for doing hard cognitive work C. motivation to do hard cognitive work, capacity for doing hard cognitive work D. capacity to do hard cognitive work, motivation for doing hard cognitive work Answer: D. capacity to do hard cognitive work, motivation for doing hard cognitive work 17. Prejudice is: A. the affective component of an attitude B. a genetically-controlled emotional response to people C. a belief usually acquired by contact with the attitude object D. a pre-judgement based on a persons’ group membership Answer: D. a pre-judgement based on a persons’ group membership 18. Which stereotype-participant combination is likely to result in the weakest rebound effect? A. skinheads stereotype; high prejudice participant B. gay stereotype; low prejudice participant C. skinheads stereotype; low prejudice participant D. gay stereotype; high prejudice participant Answer: B. gay stereotype; low prejudice participant 19. Which of the conditions below is MOST likely to producestereotype change following the bookkeeping model? A. disconfirming information is concentrated on a few atypical group members B. disconfirming information is concentrated on a few typical group members C. disconfirming information is dispersed across many typical group members D. the stereotype is dramatically disconfirmed Answer: C. disconfirming information is dispersed across many typical group members 20. According to social identity theory, which of the following strategies is LEAST likely to improve relations between socialgroups in an intergroup contact situation? A. providing information about similarities between groups B. providing information about differences between groups C. acknowledging particpants’ group memberships D. recategorising participants into a common group Answer: A. providing information about similarities between groups 21. Many findings suggest that intergroup contact improves attitudes among the people actually involved, but it does not generalise to the groups from which they were drawn. This islikely to follow from the fact that: A. participants are affected by the acquiescent response bias B. most intergroup contact is actually interpersonal contact C. questionnaire measures are mostly used in this research D. an insufficient number of cross-cultural studies have been carried out Answer: B. most intergroup contact is actually interpersonal contact 22. Which of the following is an example of using a ‘derived etic’approach to cross cultural research? A. research that examines a single culture in its own terms B. research that compares members of thirty cultures on a measure that has been well validated in one of the cultures C. research that compares members of two cultures on a task that was developed jointly by researchers from both cultures D. none of the above Answer: C. research that compares members of two cultures on a task that was developed jointly by researchers from both cultures 23. What is the ‘ecological fallacy’? A. interpreting an individual-level finding as if it were at the ecological-level B. interpreting an ecological-level finding as if it were at the individual level C. failing to look after the environment D. disbelief in global warming Answer: B. interpreting an ecological-level finding as if it were at the individual level 24. Social psychology is the scientific study of how people_______________, ____________, and ____________ one another. A. understand, feel about, act toward B. perceive, think about, act toward C. think about, influence, relate to D. observe, influence, conflict with Answer: C. think about, influence, relate to 25. Social psychology began to emerge as the vibrant field it is today during A. the depression of the early 1930s when researchers examined the effects of deprivation on aggression and altruism B. world war i when psychologists conducted studies of social conflict and cooperation C. world war ii when researchers performed studies of persuasion and soldier morale D. the korean war when psychologists examined the effects of brainwashing on prisoners of war Answer: C. world war ii when researchers performed studies of persuasion and soldier morale 26. In comparison to the sociologist, the social psychologist A. is more likely to study the social causes of behavior B. is more likely to study individuals than groups C. gives less attention to our internal functioning D. relies more heavily on correlational research Answer: B. is more likely to study individuals than groups 27. In comparison to personality psychology, social psychology A. has a shorter history B. is more concerned with the biological causes of behavior C. is more likely to use case studies in theory development D. has greater concern for differences between individuals Answer: A. has a shorter history 28. In comparison to personality psychology, social psychology A. focuses more on our common humanity B. has more famous, well-known theorists C. is an older specialty within the discipline of psychology D. provides more "grand" or comprehensive theories of human functioning Answer: A. focuses more on our common humanity 29. Most social-psychological research is conducted either in the field or in the ___________ and is either correlational or_______________. A. clinic; survey B. laboratory; experimental C. laboratory; survey D. clinic; experimental Answer: B. laboratory; experimental 30. Survey researchers obtain a representative group A. through random assignment B. by selecting at least 2000 respondents to be interviewed C. by taking a random sample D. either through telephone books or automobile registrations Answer: C. by taking a random sample 31. The great strength of _____________________ is that it tends to occur in real-world settings where it can examine questions regarding important factors like race, sex, and social status. A. correlational research B. field experimentation C. laboratory experimentation D. quasi-experimentation Answer: A. correlational research 32. Which of the following distinguishes the correlational method from experimentation? A. the correlational method uses a smaller group of subjects B. the correlational method enables researchers to study social attitudes C. no attempt is made to systematically manipulate one or more factors with the correlational method D. the findings from the correlational method are more likely to Answer: C. no attempt is made to systematically manipulate one or more factors with the correlational method 33. Random assignment means that each person taking part in an experiment must A. have an equal chance of being in a given condition in the experiment B. be assigned to all the conditions of the experimental treatment C. be randomly selected from the larger population D. be given random responses to the experimenters questions Answer: A. have an equal chance of being in a given condition in theexperiment 34. The experimental factor that the experimenter manipulates iscalled the _______________ variable. A. dependent B. control C. independent D. experimental Answer: C. independent 35. In an experiment, the variable being measured is called the__________________ variable. A. control B. independent C. experimental D. dependent Answer: D. dependent 36. The experimental method is used in about ___________________________ of all social-psychological researchstudies. A. one-fourth B. one-half C. three-fourths D. nine-tenths Answer: C. three-fourths 37. Hypotheses are best characterized as A. axioms B. principles C. predictions D. conclusions Answer: C. predictions 38. According to the text, ___________________________ tends to make people overconfident about the validity of their judgmentsand predictions. A. the fundamental attribution error B. illusory correlation C. the naturalistic fallacy D. the hindsight bias Answer: D. the hindsight bias 39. In an experimental study of the effects of failure on selfesteem, self-esteem would be the A. control condition B. independent variable C. dependent variable D. experimental condition Answer: C. dependent variable 40. The text suggests that adjectives such as "self-actualized," "mature," and "well-adjusted" demonstrate A. how psychological concepts have hidden values B. how psychological concepts are individualistic C. an inordinate concern with mental health D. how personality psychologists are more influential than social psychologists Answer: D. how personality psychologists are more influential than social psychologists 41. According to the text, the fact that human thinking alwaysinvolves interpretation A. provides a valid reason for dismissing science B. is precisely why we need scientific analysis C. is a reason for preferring experimental over correlational research D. has been more frequently recognized by those in the sciences than by those in the humanities Answer: A. provides a valid reason for dismissing science 42. The naturalistic fallacy provides an example of A. the hindsight bias B. how values penetrate the work of the scientist C. how commonsense notions are often wrong D. how naturalistic observation is unable to answer questions about cause-effect relationships Answer: B. how values penetrate the work of the scientist 43. In comparison to North American social psychologists, European social psychologists tend to give more attention to the_______________ levels of explanation. A. intrapersonal and interpersonal B. intergroup and societal C. interpersonal and intergroup D. intrapersonal and societal Answer: B. intergroup and societal 44. Who of the following is most likely to study how religiousattitudes develop within the typical individual? A. a sociologist B. a social worker C. a social psychologist D. a theologian Answer: B. a social worker 45. Who of the following would be most likely to study how the political attitudes of middle-class people differ from those oflower-class people? A. a personality psychologist B. a social psychologist C. a social biologist D. a sociologist Answer: C. a social biologist 46. You would like to know the relationship between the number of psychology courses people take and their interpersonal sensitivity. You survey university students to determine how much psychology they have taken and then have them complete a testof social sensitivity. Finally you plot the relationship. This is an example of A. a laboratory experiment B. a field experiment C. a correlational study D. participant observation Answer: D. participant observation 47. The telephone company wants to survey its 100,000 customers. Four proposals for sampling the customers are being considered. Which would you recommend? A. interview every 75th person listed in the telephone directory B. mail a questionnaire to all 100,000 customers and assume at least 1200 will respond C. interview the people in every 50th residence from a postal listing of all addresses D. interview those 1000 persons with the highest phone bills Answer: C. interview the people in every 50th residence from a postal listing of all addresses 48. A research psychologist manipulates the level of fear in human subjects in the laboratory and then examines what effectthe different levels of fear have on the subjects' reaction times. In this study, reaction time is the _______________ variable. A. dependent B. correlational C. independent D. experimental Answer: A. dependent 49. Which of the following research methods would be mosteffective in demonstrating that the presence of others improves our performance of a task? A. an experiment B. correlational study C. a survey D. a field study Answer: A. an experiment 50. Which of the following techniques would be the most effective way of investigating the relationship between the political preferences and the age of Canadian citizens? A. an experiment B. a case study C. a correlational study D. participant observation Answer: A. Read the full article

[siva3155]

2500+ TOP Computer MCQs with Answers for Competitive Exams Pdf

Computer Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following does not affect the resolution of a video display image? A. Bandwidth B. Raster scan rage C. Vertical and horizontal lines of resolution D. Screen Size E. None of these Answer: A. Bandwidth 2. Latency time is A. Time to spin the needed data under head B. Time to spin the needed data under track C. Time to spin data under sector D. All of these E. None of these Answer: A. Time to spin the needed data under head 3. DPI stands for A. Desktop projection Ink B. Dot per inch C. Dot-matrix printer ink D. Desktop pixel Inch E. None of these Answer: B. Dot per inch 4. Databases software may be divided into A. five distinct categories B. four distinct categories C. three distinct categories D. two distinct categories E. None of these Answer: C. three distinct categories 5. File record length A. Should always be fixed B. Should always be variable C. Depends upon the size of file D. Should be chosen to match the data characteristics. E. None of these Answer: D. Should be chosen to match the data characteristics. 6. ………….is the time required by a sector to reach below read/write heat A. Seek Time B. Latency Time C. Access Time D. None E. None of these Answer: B. Latency Time 7. ………….is a technique of improving the priority of process waiting in Queue for CPU allocation A. Starvation B. Ageing C. Revocation D. Relocation E. None of these Answer: B. Ageing 8. A grammar for a programming language is a formal description of A. Syntax B. Semantics C. Structure D. Code E. None of these Answer: C. Structure 9. …………is a technique of temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory of computer system A. Swapping B. Spooling C. Semaphore D. Scheduler E. None of these Answer: A. Swapping 10. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is A. segmentation B. swapping C. pure demand paging D. multiple fixed contiguous partitions E. None of these Answer: A. segmentation 11. Virtual memory is A. simple to implement B. used in all major commercial operating systems C. less efficient in utilization of memory D. useful when fast I/O devices are not available E. None of these Answer: B. used in all major commercial operating systems 12. Before proceeding with its execution, each process must acquire all the resources it needs is called A. hold and wait B. No pre-emption C. circular wait D. starvation E. None of these Answer: A. hold and wait 13. The main reason to encrypt a file is to…………… A. Reduce its size B. Secure it for transmission C. Prepare it for backup D. Include it in the start-up sequence E. None of these Answer: B. Secure it for transmission 14. ‘LRU’ page replacement policy is A. Last Replaced Unit B. Last Restored Unit C. Least Recently Used D. Least Required Unit E. None of these Answer: C. Least Recently Used 15. Which of the following is not a fundamental process state A. ready B. terminated C. executing D. blocked E. None of these Answer: D. blocked 16. ODBC stands for A. Object Database Connectivity B. Oral Database Connectivity C. Oracle Database Connectivity D. Open Database Connectivity E. None of these Answer: D. Open Database Connectivity 17. Which two files are used during operations of the DBMS A. Query languages and utilities B. DML and query language C. Data dictionary and transaction log D. Data dictionary and query language E. None of these Answer: C. Data dictionary and transaction log 18. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place A. between peers B. between an interface C. between modems D. across an interface E. None of these Answer: A. between peers 19. In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as A. detector B. modulator C. stations D. transponders E. None of these Answer: D. transponders 20. Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers? A. communications software B. protocol C. communication hardware D. all of above including access to transmission medium E. None of these Answer: D. all of above including access to transmission medium 21. Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission? A. resistance to data theft B. fast data transmission rate C. low noise level D. All of these E. None of these Answer: D. All of these 22. Which of the following is not a transmission medium? A. telephone lines B. coaxial cables C. modem D. microwave systems E. None of these Answer: C. modem 23. A technique for direct search is A. Binary Search B. Linear Search C. Tree Search D. Hashing E. None of these Answer: D. Hashing 24. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are A. Processor and memory B. Complexity and capacity C. Time and Space D. Data and Space E. None of these Answer: C. Time and Space 25. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by A. Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm B. Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm C. Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm D. Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm E. None of these Answer: A. Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm 26. The memory address of the first element of anarray is called A. floor address B. foundation address C. first address D. base address E. None of these Answer: D. base address 27. The term “push” and “pop” is related to the A. array B. lists C. stacks D. all of these E. None of these Answer: C. stacks 28. What does Router do in a network? A. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links B. Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link C. Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded D. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the original link E. None of these Answer: C. Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded 29. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model? A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer E. None of these Answer: A. Physical layer 30. GIF images can have only upto …………. colors A. 128 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024 E. None of these Answer: B. 256 31. …………is stored on a client and contains state information of the website visited A. Cookies B. Servelet C. History D. Resident Page E. None of these Answer: A. Cookies 32. ………..are small applications that are accessed on an internet server, transported over the internet, automatically installed and run as part of a web document. A. Applets B. Java Bean C. Sockets D. Java Component E. None of these Answer: A. Applets 33. Encryption is the conversion of data in some intelligible format into an unintelligible format called……….to prevent the data from being understood if read by an unauthorized party. A. Clear Text B. Encrypted Text C. Cipher Text D. Coded Text E. None of these Answer: C. Cipher Text 34. The method for storing data temporarily such that the input-output of the same job is overlapped with its own processing, is known as : A. Spooling B. Contention C. I/O wait D. Buffering E. None of these Answer: D. Buffering 35. Each cell in Microsoft Office Excel documents is referred to by its cell address, which is the………….. A. cell’s column label B. cell’s column label and worksheet tab name C. cell’s row and column labels D. cell’s row label E. None of these Answer: C. cell’s row and column labels 36. The lowest form of computer language is called A. BASIC B. FORTRAN C. Machine Language D. COBOL E. None of these Answer: C. Machine Language 37. The portion of the application that you work with in an application software package is the A. user interface B. utility interface C. processing interface D. analytical interface E. None of these Answer: A. user interface 38. A……………provides access to features of the program. A. menu bar B. brows r C. Office Assistant D. feature presentation E. None of these Answer: A. menu bar 39. Menus are a part of the A. hardware B. monitor C. Status Bar D. user interface E. None of these Answer: D. user interface 40. Which of the following is the term for a request for specific data contained in a database? A. question B. query C. inquiry D. quiz E. None of these Answer: B. query 41. Windows 7 is an example of a(n) A. application software B. browser C. Operating system D. shareware E. None of these Answer: C. Operating system 42. The most powerful type of computer. A. mainframe computers B. microcomputers C. minicomputers D. supercomputers E. None of these Answer: D. supercomputers 43. The system component that controls and manipulates data in order to produce information is called the A. keyboard B. microprocessor C. monitor D. mouse E. None of these Answer: B. microprocessor 44. Which of the following is not an operating system for mobile phones? A. Android B. Symbian C. iOS D. Bada E. All of these are OS for mobile phones Answer: E. All of these are OS for mobile phones 45. This type of file is created by word processors. A. worksheet B. document C. database D. presentation E. None of these Answer: B. document 46. Many experts are predicting that this revolution is expected to dramatically affect the way we communicate and use computer technology. A. graphics B. input C. memory D. wireless E. None of these Answer: D. wireless 47. The Internet was launched in 1969 when the United States funded a project that developed a national computer network called A. Web B. ISP C. CERN D. ARPANET E. None of these Answer: D. ARPANET 48. A(n)………..program provides access to Web resources. A. Web B. ISP C. browser D. URL E. None of these Answer: C. browser 49. Rules for exchanging data between computers are called A. programs B. procedures C. protocols D. hyperlinks E. None of these Answer: C. protocols 50. The last part of the domain name following the dot(.) is the top……….domain A. Level B. link C. locator D. language E. None of these Answer: A. Level 51. Many individuals create their own personal sites called Web logs, or…………. A. social networks B. blogs C. wikis D. search engines E. None of these Answer: B. blogs 52. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called………… A. meta search engines B. inclusive search engines C. spiders D. hits E. None of these Answer: A. meta search engines 53. …………..cash is the Internet’s equivalent to traditional cash. A. Universal B. Web C. Premium D. Digital E. None of these Answer: D. Digital 54. These programs allow parents as well as organizations to block out selected sites and set time limits on Internet access. A. plug-ins B. filters C. FTP D. DSL E. None of these Answer: B. filters 55. This type of software works with end users, application software, and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details. A. application software B. communications software C. system software D. Web software E. None of these Answer: C. system software 56. ………….are narrowly focused on specific disciplines and occupations. A. Basic applications B. Business suites C. Specialized applications D. Utility programs E. None of these Answer: C. Specialized applications 57. The primary purpose of this type of software is to create text-based documents. A. spreadsheet B. presentation C. word processing D. web development E. None of these Answer: C. word processing 58. Letters, memos, term papers, reports, and contracts are all examples of A. models B. spreadsheets C. documents D. menus E. None of these Answer: C. documents 59. The acronym DBMS stands for what? A. double-blind management setup B. document binder management system C. data binding and marketing structure D. database management system E. None of these Answer: D. database management system 60. Database…………..are primarily used to enter new records and to make changes to existing records. A. reports B. tables C. forms D. queries E. None of these Answer: C. forms 61. A file that includes predefined settings that can be used to create many common types of presentations is called a A. pattern B. model C. template D. blueprint E. None of these Answer: C. template 62. A(n)……....is a single program that provides the functionality of a word processor, spreadsheet, database manager, and more. A. specialized application B. integrated package C. basic application D. software suite E. None of these Answer: B. integrated package 63. A Computer that is on the Network is a………. A. Node B. Terminal C. Client D. Online E. None of these Answer: A. Node 64. Network operating systems from Novell is….…….. A. NOS B. UNIX C. NetWare D. Solaris E. None of these Answer: C. NetWare 65. NIC Stands for ………… A. Network Interface Card B. Network Internal Card C. Network Internet Client D. Network Input Card E. None of these Answer: A. Network Interface Card 66. Older network often use another type of cable, called……….. A. Twisted-pair cable B. Unshielded twisted-pair cable C. Coaxial cable D. Optical Fiber E. None of these Answer: C. Coaxial cable 67. Magnetic Media is an Example of………layer A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network Layer D. Application Layer E. None of these Answer: A. Physical Layer 68. This power protection device includes a battery that provides a few minutes of power. A. surge suppressor B. line conditioner C. generator D. UPS E. None of these Answer: D. UPS 69. Which layer defines the mechanical, electrical, and timing interfaces to the network? A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network Layer D. Application Layer E. None of these Answer: A. Physical Layer 70. SCSI port (pronounced skuzzy) stands for A. System Computer Scanning Interface B. Small Computer System Interface C. Small Computer System Internet D. System Computer, System Interfaced E. None of these Answer: B. Small Computer System Interface 71. LPT stands for A. Laser Printer B. Link Port C. Line Printer D. Line Port E. None of these Answer: C. Line Printer 72. Spool stands for A. Serial Printer Object Oriented Language B. Simultaneous Peripheral Output On-Line C. System Protocol Optimization Outliner D. Single Program Operating System Operation E. None of these Answer: B. Simultaneous Peripheral Output On-Line 73. Which of the following field is not a part of Frame? A. kind B. seq C. header D. info E. None of these Answer: C. header 74. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgments so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is known as A. Correcting B. Piggybacking C. Sliding D. None of these E. None of these Answer: B. Piggybacking 75. The data link layer is used for A. Providing a well-defined service interface to the network layer. B. Dealing with transmission errors C. Regulating the flow of data so that slow receivers are not swamped by fast senders D. All of these E. None of these Answer: D. All of these 76. What does SDLC mean in Networking protocol? A. Software Data Link Control B. Synchronous Data Link Control C. Software Development Life Cycle D. Synchronous Data Development Cycle E. None of these Answer: B. Synchronous Data Link Control 77. ADCCP means A. Analog Data Code Check Procedure B. Active Database Communication Control Program C. Application Data Cache Call Procedure D. Advanced Data Communication Control Procedure E. None of these Answer: D. Advanced Data Communication Control Procedure 78. According to ISO, HDLC means A. High-Level Data Link Control B. High-Level Data Language Control C. Hardware Data Link Control D. High Definition Link Control E. None of these Answer: A. High-Level Data Link Control 79. …………..act as a central transmitter and receiver in wireless local area network A. Access Nodes B. Access Points C. Access Hubs D. Access Switch E. None of these Answer: B. Access Points 80. IP address means A. Internet Protocol B. Internal Power C. Intranet Protocol D. Internal Protocol E. None of these Answer: A. Internet Protocol 81. Read the full article

[siva3155]

Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers

civil engineering interview questions and answers pdf download for freshers experienced technical & typical civil engineer book entrance questions 1. What are the causes of building collapse? The passage of time is one reason. Buildings also collapse due to weak foundations. Earthquakes, hurricanes and other natural disasters can also damage the structure of the buildings and cause it to collapse. Bombings or demolition of buildings is also other reasons. 2. What is Civil Engineering ? Civil engineering is arguably the oldest engineering discipline. It deals with the designed setting and may be dated to the primary time somebody placed a roof over his or her head or set a stalk across a stream to form it easier to urge across. The designed setting encompasses abundant of what defines fashionable civilization. Buildings and bridges area unit usually the primary constructions that come back to mind, as they're the foremost conspicuous creations of structural engineering, one in every of civil engineering's major sub-disciplines. Roads, railroads, subway systems, and airports area unit designed by transportation engineers, another class of engineering. so there area unit the less visible creations of civil engineers. each time you open a water tap, you expect water to return out, doltishly that civil engineers created it attainable. the big apple town has one in every of the world’s most spectacular water system systems, receiving billions of gallons of high-quality water from the mountain chain over 100 miles away. Similarly, not many of us appear to fret regarding what happens to the water once it's served its functions. The recent engineering discipline of sanitary engineering has evolved into fashionable environmental engineering of such significance that almost all educational departments have modified their names to civil and environmental engineering. These few examples illustrate that civil engineers do lots quite style buildings and bridges. they'll be found within the region business, coming up with jetliners and house stations; within the automotive business, perfecting the load-carrying capability of a chassis and rising the crash worthiness of bumpers and doors; and that they is found within the ship building business, the ability business, and lots of different industries where made facilities area unit concerned. and that they arrange and supervise the development of those facilities as construction managers. 3. What are the applications of modulus of elasticity? As the term implies, “Modulus of Elasticity” relates to the elasticity or “flexibility” of a material. The value of modulus of elasticity is very much significant relating to deflection of certain materials used in the construction industry. Take for example the general E value of mild carbon steel is about 200 Gpa compared to about 70 Gpa for aluminum. This simply translate that aluminum is 3 times flexible than steel. 4. Define What is the difference between routing maintenance and major maintenance in school facilities? - The routine maintenance is the minor and consistent repairs that are engaged in the school premises. Examples could include painting, replacement of fixtures, louver blades, furniture repairs, and patching cracks in the school buildings. - The major maintenance could also be a total rehabilitation of the school, either school buildings or any other project within the school community. It could be total restructuring of the lighting system in the school or sanitary system. 5. How are freeway bridges built? After calculating the anticipated traffic for the bridge, cement/reinforced- with- rebar stanchions are spaced over the freeway to accommodate the bridge. An ‘off-ramp’ from the freeway to the bridge is constructed, as is an ‘on-ramp’ to the subsequent road. Cement/rebar slabs are built and lifted with cranes to form the platform, and voila! Drive carefully. Although the bridge deck/roadway is almost always a concrete slab, the structure that holds up the bridge deck can be reinforced concrete, structural steel, or a combination of steel and concrete.                                             Click Here  ----> MCQs 6. What is the difference between absorption & adsorption and sorption? - Absorption generally refers to two phenomena, which are largely unrelated. In one case, it refers to when atoms, molecules, or ions enter some bulk phase – gas, liquid or solid material. For instance, a sponge absorbs water when it is dry. - Absorption also refers to the process by which the energy of a photon is taken up by another entity, for example, by an atom whose valence electrons make transition between two electronic energy levels. The photon is destroyed in the process. The absorbed energy may be re-emitted as radiant energy or transformed into heat energy. The absorption of light during wave propagation is often called attenuation. The tools of spectroscopy in chemistry are based on the absorption of photons by atoms and molecules. - Adsorption is similar, but refers to a surface rather than a volume: adsorption is a process that occurs when a gas or liquid solute accumulates on the surface of a solid or, more rarely, a liquid (adsorbent), forming a molecular or atomic film (the adsorb-ate). It is different from absorption, in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or solid to form a solution. 7. How do you measure concrete? Cubic feet, Cubic yards, Cubic Meter 8. Define What is the tallest man made structure in the world? The tallest man made structure is the KVLY-TV mast which is 2063 feet tall. The worlds tallest man made structure is Burj Dubai which is 800 meter tall. 9. Define What are the uses of alloys in daily life and how are alloys made? - Alloying is not always done to produce a ‘superior’ material, but to produce materials having a desired requirement in the industry or elsewhere. A classic case is of lead solder (containing lead & tin), in which the melting point of the constituent elements are lowered, not necessarily a desirable property. - Alloying can be carried out using hot press method (a sheet of material is sandwiched with alloying material), rolling the heated base metal in a drum full of alloying metal powder, using hot spraying, galvanizing (dipping the base in a molten solution of alloying material) etc. Sometimes the alloying material is added in small proportions to the molten base metal (e.g., in production of different types of steel). 10. What is the worlds largest concrete dam? The Grand Coulee Dam is said to be the largest concrete dam. Currently the world’s largest concrete dam is the Itaipu Dam, an accomplishment of two neighboring countries, Brazil and paraguay in South America. Though it is not finished yet, the Three Gorges (or Sandapong) Dam on the Yangtze River in China will take over as the largest upon its completion, which is slated for 2009.

CIVIL ENGINEERING Questions 11. What is braced excavation all about? Excavations are braced to prevent the cave-in of surrounding unstable soil. 12. What is the meaning of soil reinforcement? Soil reinforcement is the act of improving soil strength to enable it support or carry more load. Two common examples are: - Mixing a soil amendment such as lime into weak clayey soil and re-compacting to improve soil-bearing capacity (often done under the road base in highway construction) - Installing plastic or composite webbing layers (called geo-grid material) alternating with compacted soil to produce a stronger sloped soil structure (often done on steep roadway embankments to improve strength and stability) 13. Define What is aggregate? Aggregate is the component of a composite material used to resist compressive stress. 14. What year was the keystone power plant in Indiana County constructed? 1967 began commercial operation on unit 1. 15. Define What is the force exerted by the Tacoma narrows bridge? The force exerted to the Tacoma narrows bridge was initially the wind resistance. The wind resistance caused the whole bridge to act as a system with forced vibration with damping.                           Click Here For ----> LAB VIVA Questions 16. How do you calculate the power of a centrifugal pump? The input power, that is, the power required to operate the pump should be stated in Hp (horsepower) on the pump’s nameplate. It can also be calculated by the 3-phase power equation: P(in Hp) = VI(1.7c) = Rated Voltage x Rated Current x 1.73/ %Efficiency If this is a consumer grade pump that operates on 120Vac, then the equation becomes P = VI, simply multiply the operating voltage, 120 x current (which is the number followed by the letter “A”. The output power, which really is not technically power, but rated in Gpm (gallons per minute), or capacity should also be on the nameplate. If you have the make, model, and (not necessarily needed) the serial number (also on the nameplate) you could call the manufacturer’s customer service dept. As an application engineer, I have contacted countless manufacturers’, and service dept’s for assistance. It is now big deal to them, they will be happy to answer your questions. 17. Why nautical mile is different from statute mile? One nautical mile is defined by one latitude minute of arc (there are 60 such minutes to a degree). This equals 1852 meters, and roughly (but coincidentally) 2000 yards or 6000 feet. (Edit: actually, a standard nautical mile is 6076 feet, 6000 feet and 2000 yards are commonly used approximations, but produce an error of about 1%). The statute mile had a little fuzzier definition to start with, as one mile was the same as 1000 roman paces/steps. The definition has since changed, but one statute mile equals about 1609 meters. 18. Define What is rigging? In sailing, the ropes used to move the sails around so the boat will move in the right direction when the wind blows. 19. What is absolute pressure? Absolute pressure is simply the addition of the observed gage pressure plus the value of the local atmospheric pressure. 20. How do we calculate absolute pressure? Absolute is equal to gauge pressure plus atmospheric.                                Click Here For ----> Class Notes Pdf 21. What is Gravity flow? Gravity flow is fluid flowing due to the forces of gravity alone and not to an applied pressure head. In the Bernoulli equation, the pressure term is omitted, and the height and velocity terms are the only ones included. 22. What is horizon or horizontal mining? - Horizon or horizontal mining can be applied to extraction of material from seams of any stratified mineral such as limestone or ironstone, but it is more usually associated with coal – particularly where there are several seams that are inclined or folded and/or faulted. - Horizon mining involves long level roadways (horizons) being driven from the shafts to the extremity of the area to be mined. - The levels of the horizons are chosen to intersect the maximum number of seams the maximum number of times. As the seams are intersected, headings will be driven into the seam so that the desired material may be extracted. This method of mining requires a thorough understanding of the geological structure of the area to be mined so that the level of the horizons can be chosen for optimum results. - This method of mining is popular in modern coalmines with seams worked from several horizons. The considerable capital outlay of driving horizons before production can begin is recouped by the advantage of having long straight level roadways of generous dimensions unaffected by the crushing effect of nearby extraction of the mineral. 23. What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress? In biology, Stress is something that disrupts homeostasis of an organism. In engineering, Stress is an external force that pushes, pulls, twists, or otherwise puts force on something. Engineering stress assumes that the area a force is acting upon remains constant, true stress takes into account the reduction in area caused by the force. 24. Define What is a kip? 1 kip = 1000 lbs 25. What are some structures that may be subjected to fatigue? Bridges, hydraulic presses, burners trains                               Click Here For ----> Seminar Topics 26. Will going from a 3-tap to 6-tap increase water pressure? No, the pressure will be the same, you will get more volume only if your pumps can handle the GPM, to increase pressure you may need a booster pump or a single pump that is rated for your needs. 27. Why does the pressure increase under soil? Soil pressure increases with depth due to the overburden or self-weight of the soil and due to loads imposed upon the soil. For example, the pressure variation below the depth of soil is linear and the relation is given by pressure = unit wt * depth. As depth increases, there will be a linear increase in the soil pressure. 28. Define What is the distance between railway tracks? 4 feet, 8 1/2 inches 29. How high should the water tank be to provide a 60 PSI at base of this water tower? 138.60ft 2.31ft of water= 1 PSI

civil engineering interview questions

30. Define What are the reasons for geotechnical site investigations in Uganda? - To know the soil properties, in so doing be in position to determine whether the particular site is suitable for the purpose intended - To know the history of the site - To know what remedies need to be put in place before construction can start - Based on the soil properties, that can be determined on site and in the lab, design the appropriate foundation for the structure. 31. What do you mean by honeycomb in concrete? Some people call it an air pocket in the concrete or a void. 32. What is the purpose of the gap in the road on this bridge? Purpose of the gap in the road is to allow the road to expand and contract with temperature changes without causing damage or deformation to the road. 33. Define What is the tensile strength of wood? The tensile strength of a material is the value at which the material fails when subjected to a tensile force. (Tensile means a force pulling the wood fibers lengthwise, as opposed to a compression force.) There are a lot of different types and load cases for wood, so there is not one answer to this question. For example, wood used outside will fail at a lower load than wood inside. Wood is also an isotropic, i.e. it has different strength in different directions. Example values of tensile strength vary anywhere from 175 pounds per square inch for Utility Grade pine to 1400 PSI for Dense Select Structural grade Douglas Fir. A good reference for material strength data for most species and grades of commercially available wood can be found in the American Institute of Timber Construction handbook. 34. How many Lbs are there in a yard? A pound (Lb) is a unit of measurement for weight while a yard is a unit of measurement for distance. If you are referring to common measurements used on a construction site, a “yard” is a common abbreviation for a “cubic yard”, which is a unit of measurement of volume. (A cubic yard equals 27 cubic feet.) Since dirt weighs about 110 pounds per cubic feet, a cubic yard of dirt weighs about 2970 Lbs. Since concrete is heavier (150 PCF), a cubic yard of concrete weighs about 4050 Lbs. 35. Define What is a projection line? Projection line is the way, in which the earth is shown on a flat piece of paper. 36. What are moment of inertia and its importance in civil engineering? The moment of inertia measures the opposition any kind of body will have against a certain momentum (along that same axis) trying to rotate that body. 37. Define What is the origin of name Railway Sleepers? When sleepers were added below the railway, lines the trains ran more smoothly and people fell asleep on their journeys. 38. What is BMC stands for in BMC Software? BMC Software founders Scott Boulette, John Moores, and Dan Cloer began a contract programming partnership that operated in and around Houston, Texas. 39. Does brick grows bigger every year. Usually bricks do not grow, but since stuff gets all over, it looks like it grows. 40. How did street originate in the plumbing term street ell? A “street ell” may have gotten its name because it describes a 90° fitting particularly useful in tight, street ditches. When installing water pipes under a street, or from a water service, again under the street, into a home or business, this street ell allows one to change pipe direction with one less fitting, and in less space, than with a standard ell. 41. What is the absolute pressure scale? Absolute pressure is calculated from a vacuum (0 PSI) and atmospheric pressure is14.7PSIa or 14.7 PSI above a vacuum 1PSI on a tire pressure gauge is called 1PSIg = 15.7PSIa 10PSIg=24.7PSIa 100PSIg=114.7PSIa etc. 42. What is the difference between QA and QC? Many people and organizations are confused about the difference between quality assurance (QA), quality control (QC), and testing. They are closely related, but they are different concepts. Since all three are necessary to manage the risks of developing and maintaining software, it is important for software managers to understand the differences. They are defined below: - Quality Assurance: A set of activities designed to ensure that the development and/or maintenance process is adequate to ensure a system will meet its objectives. - Quality Control: A set of activities designed to evaluate a developed work product. - Testing is the process of executing a system with the intent of finding defects. (Note that the “process of executing a system” includes test planning prior to the execution of the test cases.) 43. How did the Romans get water up hills using aqua ducts? Technically, the Romans were not able to get water to move uphill in a general sense. Read the full article

[siva3155]

1000+ Andhra Pradesh GK Bits in Telugu | APPSC-Job Guarantee

Andhra Pradesh General Knowledge Questions and Answers | Andhra Pradesh GK Quiz Questions with Answers | Gk Questions on AP pdf | ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ Basic GK Bits Appsc Examination Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 AP Grama Sachivalayam

Andhra Pradesh GK For APPSC Examinations

appsc - అంతర్జాతీయ దినోత్సవాలు - ముఖ్యమైన గుర్తులు - సూచించే అంశాలు - సమానతలను తెలిపే రేఖలు - పేరెన్నికగన్న ఉద్యమాలు/ సంస్థలు - ప్రారంభించిన వ్యక్తులు - ప్రముఖ వ్యక్తులు నినాదాలు - వివిధ మత సిద్ధాంతాలు - మూల పురుషులు - ప్రముఖ వ్యక్తులు బిరుదులు - పలు శాస్త్రాలు - వాటి పితామహులు - జాతీయ దినోత్సవాలు - రకరకాల ఫోబియాలు (భయాలు) - ప్రముఖ ఆవిష్కరణలు - ఆవిష్కర్తలు - జాతీయ, అంతర్జాతీయ తొలి సంఘటనలు - తొలి వ్యక్తులు - విటమిన్లు - మానవుల్లో బ్యాక్టీరియా వల్ల వచ్చే వ్యాధులు - మానవుల్లో వైరస్ వల్ల వచ్చే వ్యాధులు - మానవుల్లో ప్రొటోజోవాల వల్ల వచ్చే వ్యాధులు - మానవుల్లో శిలీంద్రాల వల్ల వచ్చే వ్యాధులు - మానవుల్లో హెల్మింథిస్ / నెమటోడ్స్ వల్ల వచ్చే వ్యాధులు - వృక్ష శాస్త్రంలో ప్రపంచంలో అతి పెద్దవి, అతి చిన్నవి - మొక్కలు - శాస్త్రీయ నామాలు - ప్రపంచంలో జంతు శాస్త్రంలో అతి పెద్దవి, అతి చిన్నవి - క్షీరదాలు - గర్భావధి కాలం (రోజుల్లో) - వృక్షశాస్త్రంలో వృక్షాల మారు పేర్లు - మూలకాలు - ప్రత్యేకతలు - శ్వాస క్రియ - తెలుగు జనరల్ నాలెడ్జ్ బిట్స్ - ప్రపంచంలోని పారిశ్రామిక నగరాలు - భారత దేశంలోని పారిశ్రామిక నగరాలు - ప్రపంచంలో అతి పెద్దవి, చిన్నవి, లోతైనవి, ఎత్తయినవి, పొడవైనవి - భారతదేశంలో అతి పెద్దవి, చిన్నవి, లోతైనవి, ఎత్తయినవి, పొడవైనవి - ప్రపంచంలోని ప్రధాన సరస్సులు - భారతదేశంలోని ప్రధాన సరస్సులు - ప్రపంచంలో ప్రసిద్ధ జలపాతాలు - ప్రసిద్ధ కట్టడాలు - అవి ఉండే ప్రదేశాలు - భారత దేశంలోని ప్రముఖ దేవాలయాలు, గుహలు, స్మారక చిహ్నాలు - ప్రధాన ఆవిష్కరణలు – ఆవిష్కర్తలు - గ్రంథాలు – రచయితలు (ప్రపంచంలో...) - గ్రంథాలు – రచయితలు (భారతదేశంలో...) - ప్రముఖ క్రీడాకారుల పుస్తకాలు - భారత దేశంలో ముఖ్యమైన వ్యక్తులు – సమాధుల పేర్లు - ముఖ్యమైన కమిటీలు – కమిషన్లు - ముఖ్యమైన ఆపరేషన్లు - భారత దేశ చరిత్రలో ముఖ్య సంఘటనలు - పరిశోధనా సంస్థలు - అకాడమీలు - సంస్థలు - ప్రభుత్వ రంగ సంస్థలు - నెలకొన్న ప్రదేశాలు - పాత్రలు - సృష్టికర్తలు - వివిధ రకాల పెంపకాలు - రెవెల్యూషన్స్ - రకరకాల అధ్యయన శాస్త్రాలు - gk bits in telugu - andhra pradesh general knowledge questions and answers in telugu pdf - gk bits with answers in telugu - gk questions in telugu 2020 pdf - gk bits in telugu pdf - gk bits in telugu 2021 - important gk bits in telugu - gk bits in telugu 2021 pdf download - gk questions in telugu pdf - gk questions in telugu online test - gk questions on andhra pradesh Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on Ecological Pyramids and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Ecological Pyramids ”. 1. What is a graphical representation of the relationship (producers forming the base and top carnivores forming the tip) between the individuals present in various trophic levels of a food chain called? a) Ecological succession b) Ecological pyramid c) Ecological problems d) Ecological Services Answer: b Clarification: A graphical illustration of the relationship (producers forming the bottom and top carnivores forming the tip) between the individuals present in various trophic levels of a food chain is called an ecological pyramid. In 1927, Charles Elton formulated ecological pyramids. 2. In which terms are the representation of the relationship between producers and consumers did? a) Number b) Age c) Ecological succession d) Issues Answer: a Clarification: The relationship between producers and consumers (at each trophic level) is depicted based on the number of individuals. This relationship can also be depicted based on energy and biomass content at every level. 3. In which terms are the representation of the relationship between producers and consumers did? a) Problems b) Biomass c) Ecological success d) Age Answer: b Clarification: The relationship between producers and consumers at each trophic level is represented on the basis of biomass or the total dry weight of living matter. It can also be represented on the basis of the number of individuals and the energy at each level. 4. In which terms are the representation of the relationship between producers and consumers did? a) Age b) Problems c) Ecological success d) Energy Answer: d Clarification: The relationship between producers and consumers at each trophic level is represented on the basis of energy or productivity at each trophic level. It can also be represented on the basis of the number of individuals and biomass at each level. 5. Who formulated the ecological pyramids? a) Charles Darwin b) Raymond Lindemann c) Charles Elton d) Gregor Mendel Answer: c Clarification: In 1927, Charles Elton formulated ecological pyramids. A graphical illustration of the link (producers forming the bottom and top carnivores forming the tip) between the individuals present in various trophic levels of a food chain is called an ecological pyramid. 6. What are ecological pyramids alternatively called? a) Pyramid of age b) Eltonian pyramids c) Devonian pyramids d) Circular pyramids Answer: b Clarification: A graphical representation of the relationship between the individuals present in various trophic levels of a food chain is called an ecological pyramid. Ecological pyramids are alternatively called Eltonian pyramids. The ecological pyramids were formulated by Charles Elton in 1927. 7. Which of the following pyramid represents the number of individuals at each level? a) Pyramid of energy b) Circular pyramid c) Pyramid of age d) Pyramid of numbers Answer: d Clarification: The pyramid of numbers represents the number of individuals at each level (producers forming the base and top carnivores forming the tip). Depending upon the nature of the food chain, the pyramid is inverted or upright. 8. Which of the following pyramid represents the total dry weight of the total amount of living matter at each level? a) Pyramid of energy b) Pyramid of age c) Pyramid of biomass d) Pyramid of numbers Answer: c Clarification: The total dry weight of the total amount of living matter at each level (from producers to consumers) is represented by the pyramid of biomass. Depending upon the nature of the food chain, the pyramid is inverted or upright. 9. Which of the following pyramids represent the rate of flow of energy at successive level? a) Animals b) Age structure c) Plants d) Pyramid of energy Answer: d Clarification: The rate of flow of energy or productivity at successive level (from producers to consumers) is represented by the pyramid of energy. Depending upon the nature of the food chain, the pyramid is always upright. 10. Which of the following pyramids is always upright? a) Pyramid of numbers b) Age structure c) Pyramid of energy d) Pyramid of biomass Answer: c Clarification: The pyramid of energy is always upright, depending upon the nature of the food chain. The pyramid of energy usually represents the rate of flow of energy or productivity at the successive level. 11. Which of the subsequent pyramid can either be upright or inverted? a) Pyramid of energy b) Pyramid of number c) Ecological succession d) Age structure Answer: b Clarification: The pyramid of the number is inverted or upright, depending upon the nature of the food chain (organic and inorganic matter). The pyramid of the number represents the number of individuals at every level (producers forming the bottom and high carnivores forming the tip). 12. Which of the following pyramid may be upright or inverted? a) Pyramid of energy b) Age structure c) Pyramid of biomass d) Ecological succession Answer: c Clarification: Depending upon the nature of the food chain, the pyramid of biomass is inverted or upright. The total dry weight of the total amount of living matter at each level (from producers to consumers) is represented by the pyramid of biomass. 13. In a forest ecosystem, how is the pyramid of numbers depicted? a) Elliptical b) Upright c) Circular d) Inverted Answer: b Clarification: In a forest ecosystem the pyramid of the number depicted is always upright. The pyramid of numbers represents the number of individuals at every level. 14. Which pyramid is developed to represent the total amount of living material in a food chain? a) Ecological succession b) Age structure c) Pyramid of energy d) Pyramid of biomass Answer: d Clarification: The total amount of living material (biomass) in a food chain is represented using the pyramid of biomass. The living matter at each level is represented in this pyramid. Depending upon the nature of the food chain, the pyramid of biomass is inverted or upright. 15. Which inverted pyramid is observed in a sea or pond ecosystem? a) Pyramid of biomass b) Pyramid of number c) Age structure d) Ecological succession Answer: a Clarification: The total amount of living material (biomass) in a food chain is depicted using the pyramid of biomass. The pyramid of biomass for an ocean scheme is inverted. This is often as a result of the biomass of fishes is quite that of phytoplankton. Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on Railway Line and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Railway Line”. 1. ______ percentage of Indian rails routes are electrified. a) 66% b) 25% c) 45% d) 76% Answer: c Clarification: It is the fourth largest railway network in the world by size, comprising 119,630 kilometres (74,330 mi) of total track and 92,081 km (57,216 mi) of running track over a route of 66,687 km (41,437 mi) at the end of 2015-16. Forty-five percentage of its routes are electrified, using entirely 25 kV AC electric traction. The track is mostly broad gauge with small stretches of metre and narrow gauge track. 37% of the tracks are double or multiple tracked. 2. ____________ is the predominant gauge used by Indian railways. a) Broad gauge b) Narrow gauge c) Metre gauge d) Standard gauge Answer: a Clarification: Indian gauge 1,676 mm (5 ft 6 in) (a broad gauge) is the predominant gauge used by IR. Broad Gauge: width 1676 mm to 1524 mm or 5’6” to 5’0” Standard Gauge: width 1435 mm and 1451 mm or 4′-8⅟2” Metre Gauge: width 1067 mm, 1000 mm and 915 mm or 3′-6”, 3′-33/8” and 3′-0” Narrow Gauge: width 762 mm and 610 mm or 2′-6” and 2′-0”. 3. Sleepers (ties) are mostly made up of _______________ a) wood b) prestressed concrete c) metal d) steak Answer: b Clarification: Prestressed concrete is a form of concrete used in construction which is “pre-stressed” by being placed under compression prior to supporting any loads beyond its own dead weight. Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ PEGA Interview Questions and Answers

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/pega-interview-questions-answers/ Pega interview questions and answers topic wise for experienced - freshers. Real time pega interview questions with latest PEGA Job top Important Questions. pega Interview Questions for freshers experienced :- 1. In Pega 8.4 what are the new components added for application development? From app dev point of view, couple of new features added in 8.4 - We can use role based workspaces - Developers now has the capability to review complete project highlights on a single page - Effective management of resuable component 2. What do you mean by work-space or studio? It is an environment that provides specific tools and features 3. What are the various workspace supported in the latest release? There are four types - App Studio, - Dev Studio - Admin Studio - Prediction Studio 4. Can you use Pega Express in 8.4? The App Studio is nothing but former Pega Express 5. A system admin complained that he is not able to access the admin studio? What could be the potential reason? To access Admin Studio, one should have the following Privileges - SysAdmin4 - PegaRULES:SysOpsAdministrator - PegaRULES:SysOpsObserver 6. Like we used to switch portal, similarly, is there any way to switch studio as such? Yes. In the header of the workspace, we need to click the Switch Studio menu. 7. How can you show the relevant record? We can show it by right clicking the relevant record management tab for a specific class in the App Explorer. 8. Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ TOP World Trade Organization MCQs and Answers

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/world-trade-organization-mcqs/ WTO Multiple Choice Questions :- 1. Which of the following institutions is not part of the World Bank community? A. IBRD B. WTO C. IDA D. IFC 2. At present how many members are in the WTO? A. 160 B. 164 C. 207 D. 195 3. Which of the following statements is not correct? A. Both the IMF & IBRD have headquarters in Washington B. Both IMF & World Bank are the known as the Bretton Woods twins C. IBRD is known as World Bank also D. India's vote share in the International Monetary Fund is 10% 4 Which of the following is not the objective of the WTO? A. To improve the standard of living of peoples of the member countries B. To enlarge production and trade of goods C. To protect environment D. To improve the Balance of Payment situation of the member countries 5. India has ratified the WTO trade facilitation agreement becoming the ____ WTO member to accept the TFA A. 75th B. 77th C. 78th D. 76th 6. Which country becomes the 161st member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) on 26th April 2015? A. Vanuatu B. Yemen C. Samoa D. Seychelles 7. Which of the following is the main objective behind the establishment of WTO? A. To settle disputes between nations B. To widen the principle of free trade to sectors such as services and agriculture C. To cover more areas than GATT D. All of them 8. China became a member of world trade Organization in_________? A. 1945 B. 1960 C. 1990 D. 2001 9. 10th WTO Ministerial Conference was held in which city? A. Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on Geometrics of Hill Roads and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Geometrics of Hill Roads”. 1. What is the minimum design speed on the major district road of hill? a) 30 Kmph b) 40 Kmph c) 50 Kmph d) 20 Kmph Answer: a Clarification: The minimum design speed is 30 Kmph, maximum is 40 and for steep terrain it is 20 and maximum on highway is 50 Kmph. 2. What is the width of a pavement of 2 lane national highway? a) 7.0 m b) 3.75 m c) 8.80 m d) 3.00 m Answer: a Clarification: The width of a pavement of a two lane national highway is 7.0 m, for single lane it is 3.75 m and including parapet it is 8.8 m. 3. What is the minimum setback? a) 0.4 m b) 0.2 m c) 3.0 m d) 5.0 m Answer: c Clarification: Desirable setback is 5.0m, whereas minimum is 3.0m, near rocks it may be reduced by 0.4m and 0.2 m in other cases. 4. What is the camber for high bitumen road? a) 1.7 b) 2.0 c) 2.5 d) 3.0 Answer: a Clarification: The camber for high type bitumen is 1.7 to 2.5 and for thin it is 2.0 to 2.5, for gravel it is 2.5 to 3.0%. 5. What is the SSD value for speed of 20 Kmph? a) 20 m b) 40 m c) 25 m d) 50 m Answer: a Clarification: The SSD value of the vehicle is same as the speed of the vehicle upto 40 Kmph and thereafter it increases slightly. 6. What is the ISD value of the hill road with a speed of 50 Kmph? a) 50m b) 100m c) 60m d) 120m Answer: d Clarification: Read the full article

[siva3155]

Top 50+ Civil Engineering Interview Questions and Answers

Click here to download civil engineering interview questions Pdf 1. What are the duties and responsibilities of civil site engineer in road and building construction? While in duty of supervision of building, you should ensure that the concrete mixing is according to the grade specified. While supervision of road, you should ensure that the different layers of the road are laid in proper thickness. Civil site engineer. Is responsible for execution of all construction activity allowed to him & he should take responsibility towards all scope of work under him. He should carryout work allowed to him. There are two types of site civil engineer , first job is a supervisory one if he works with the consultant, in this case he needs to make sure that the document in hand is the correct designed. 2 .What is least cover provided for different RCC Members? - Footing = 50 mm - Column = 40mm - Beam = 25mm - Slab = 20mm 3.What are the functions of column in a building? Column is a verticle member in building whose primary function is to support structural load and transfer it through beams. Upper columns transfers the load to the lower columns and finally to the ground through footings. 4. What is the cement sand & aggregate ratios for various grades of concrete mix? A. M7.5 – 1:4:8 B. M10 – 1:3:6 C. M15 – 1:2:4 D. M20 – 1:1.5:3 E. M25 – 1:1:2 F. M30 – 1:1:1 5. What do you mean by honeycomb in concrete? Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ REAL TIME PEGA Interview Questions and Answers

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/pega-interview-questions-answers/ Pega interview questions and answers topic wise for experienced - freshers. Real time pega interview questions with latest PEGA Job top Important Questions. pega Interview Questions for freshers experienced :- 1. In Pega 8.4 what are the new components added for application development? From app dev point of view, couple of new features added in 8.4 - We can use role based workspaces - Developers now has the capability to review complete project highlights on a single page - Effective management of resuable component 2. What do you mean by work-space or studio? It is an environment that provides specific tools and features 3. What are the various workspace supported in the latest release? There are four types - App Studio, - Dev Studio - Admin Studio - Prediction Studio 4. Can you use Pega Express in 8.4? The App Studio is nothing but former Pega Express 5. A system admin complained that he is not able to access the admin studio? What could be the potential reason? To access Admin Studio, one should have the following Privileges - SysAdmin4 - PegaRULES:SysOpsAdministrator - PegaRULES:SysOpsObserver 6. Like we used to switch portal, similarly, is there any way to switch studio as such? Yes. In the header of the workspace, we need to click the Switch Studio menu. 7. How can you show the relevant record? We can show it by right clicking the relevant record management tab for a specific class in the App Explorer. 8. Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ TOP YOGA MCQs and Answers

Yoga Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which is the Sanskrit root (verb form) for the etymological derivation of the word “Yoga”? (A) Yug (B) Yuge (C) Yuj (D) Yuje 2. Who was the Yoga Guru of Swami Kuvalayananda? (A) Pattabhi Jois (B) T. Krishnamacharya (C) Madhav Das (D) Yogendra 3. Which of the following practice leads to immortality, according to Ishavasyopanishad? (A) Vairagya (B) Viveka (C) Vidya (D) Vishaya 4. Definition of Yoga according to Kathopanishad is (A) Control on mind (B) Control on sense organs, mind and intellect (C) Control on sense organs and intellect (D) Control on body and mind 5. How many types of Kundalini by nature are described in Siddha Siddhant Paddhati? (A) 02 (B) 03 (C) 04 (D) 06 6. Which Upanishad described the ‘Shandilya Vidya’? (A) Kathopanishad (B) Brihadaranyakopanishad (C) Aitareyopanishad (D) Chhandogyopanishad 7. Which of the following are the types of Pranayama, according to Patanjala Yoga Sutra? I. Stambhavritti Pranayama II. Sahita Pranayama III. Bahyabhyantara Vishayakshepi Pranayana IV. Kevali Pranayama Use the codes given below for correct answer: (A) I and II are correct. (B) II and III are correct. (C) I and III are correct. (D) II and IV are correct. 8. Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A), and a Reason (R). Indicate your answer from the alternatives below: Assertion (A): Pashchimōttanasana is contraindicated in sciatica. Reason (R): Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ TOP Charging and Discharging of Capacitor MCQs & Answers

Charging and Discharging of Capacitor Objective Questions :- 1. Which of the following depends on charging and discharging rate of a capacitor? a) Time constant b) Current c) Power d) Voltage 2. What is the initial current while charging a capacitor? a) High b) Low c) 0 d) Cannot be determined 3. What is the final current while charging a capacitor? a) High b) Zero c) Infinity d) Low 4. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the initial value of charging current. a) 10A b) 0A c) Infinity d) 20A 5. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the initial value of the discharge current. a) 10A b) 0A c) Infinity d) 20A 6. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the final value of the discharge current. a) 10A b) 0A c) Infinity d) 20A 7. When will be capacitors fully charged? a) When voltage is zero b) When the supply voltage is equal to the capacitor voltage c) When voltage is infinity d) When capacitor voltage is equal to half the supply voltage 8. What happens to the capacitor when the capacitor voltage is equal to the source voltage? a) The charging phase of the capacitor is over b) The discharging phase of the capacitor is over c) The capacitor is switched off d) The capacitor is switched on 9. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on AJM – Applications, Advantages and limitations and Answers

Advanced Machining Processes Questions on “AJM – Applications, Advantages and limitations”. 1. Which of the following, are the processes and applications in which Abrasive jet machining can be applied? a) Drilling b) Cutting c) Deburring d) All of the mentioned Answer: d Clarification: Abrasive jet machining can be used for cutting, drilling, deburring and cleaning processes. 2. Using abrasive jet machining, wire cleaning and insulation stripping take place without affecting the conductor. a) True b) False Answer: a Clarification: Without affecting the conductor, both stripping and cleaning are done, by using Abrasive jet machining. 3. In Abrasive jet machining, intricate shapes and holes are machined on which type of materials? a) Brittle b) Thin c) Difficult to machine d) All of the mentioned Answer: d Clarification: Abrasive jet machining is used to machine, intricate shapes and holes in brittle, thin and difficult to machine materials. 4. State whether the following statement is true or false, about Abrasive jet machining. “Using Abrasive jet machining, micro deburring of hypodermic needles can take place.” a) True b) False Answer: a Clarification: Abrasive jet machining can be used for micro deburring of hypodermic needles. 5. What are the type of materials that can be machined using Abrasive jet machining? a) Glass b) Sapphire c) Quartz d) All of the mentioned Answer: d Clarification: Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on Smith Chart and Answers

Electromagnetic Theory Assessment Questions and Answers on “Smith Chart”. 1. The Smith chart is a polar chart which plots A. R vs Z B. R vs Znorm C. T vs Z D. T vs Znorm Answer: B Clarification: The Smith chart is a frequency domain plot. It is the polar chart of the reflection coefficient R with respect to the normalised impedance Znorm. 2. The Smith chart is graphical technique used in the scenario of transmission lines. State true/false. A. True B. False Answer: A Clarification: The Smith chart is used for calculating the reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio for normalised load impedance of a transmission line. 3. The Smith chart consists of the A. Constant R and variable X circles B. Variable R and constant X circles C. Constant R and constant X circles D. Variable R and variable X circles Answer: C Clarification: The Smith chart consists of the constant resistance circles and the constant reactance circles. The impedances are plotted using these circles. Also stub matching can be done using the Smith chart. 4. The circles in the Smith chart pass through which point? A. (0,1) B. (0,-1) C. (-1,0) D. (1,0) Answer: D Clarification: All the constant resistance and reactance circles in the Smith chart pass through the (1,0) point. This is the midpoint of the Smith Chart. The resistance is unity and reactance is zero at this point. 5. Moving towards the clockwise direction in the Smith chart implies moving A. Towards generator B. Read the full article

[siva3155]

250+ TOP MCQs on Single Stub Matching and Answers

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/mcqs-on-single-stub-matching/ Microwave Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Single Stub Matching”. 1. The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance matching techniques is: A. Lumped elements are avoided B. It can be fabricated as a part of transmission line media C. It involves two adjustable parameters D. All of the mentioned Answer: D Clarification: Single stub matching does not involve any lumped elements, it can be fabricated as a part of transmission media and it also involves to adjustable parameters namely length and distance from load giving more flexibility. 2. Shunt stubs are preferred for: A. Strip and microstrip lines B. Coplanar waveguides C. Circular waveguide D. Circulators Answer: A Clarification: Since microstrip and strip lines are simple structures, impedance matching using shunt stubs do not increase the complexity and structure of the transmission line. Hence, shunt stubs are preferred for strip and microstrip lines. 3. The two adjustable parameters in single stub matching are distance‘d’ from the load to the stub position, and _________ A. Susceptance or reactance provided by the stub B. Length of the stub C. Distance of the stub from the generator D. None of the mentioned Answer: A Clarification: Reactance or susceptance of the matching stub must be known before it used for matching, since it is the most important parameter for impedance matching between the load and the source. 4. Read the full article

[siva3155]

300+ TOP Hdfc Bank Interview Questions and Answers

Hdfc Bank Questions 1. What Is The Full Form Of Hdfc Bank? Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited 2. How Is Gross And Net Salary Calculated ? Gross salary is the total salary of an employee which include basic , HRA ,DA and other allowances Net salary is the salary which is paid to employee after deductions like ESI and PF. 3. Where The Headquarters Of Sbi Located? Mumbai, India 4. When Was The Hdfc Bank Is Incorporated? In August 1994 5. Who Is The Ceo Of Hdfc Bank? Aditya Puri 6. Do You Know What Section 80e Of The Income Tax Act Stands For? Section 80 E is applicable for getting deduction up to 1,50,000 out off all income. In case of insurance maximum deduction is 1,50,000 pa on all the one year annual premium paid. it is tax benefit deduction 7. What Are The Services Provided By The Hdfc Bank? Investment Banking Investment Management Wealth Management Private Banking Corporate Banking Private Equity Finance and Insurance Consumer Banking Mortgages Credit Cards 8. What Do You Mean By Auditing ? An unbiased examination and evaluation of the financial statements of an organization. It can be done internally by employees of the organization or externally by an outside firm. 9. Who Is The Founder Of Hdfc Bank? Hasmukhbhai Parekh Read the full article