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Olympics Multiple Choice Questions | quiz

1. When ancient Olympic games first held? a. 776 BC b. 780 BC c. 790 BC d. 800 BC

2. Who is the founder of ancient Olympic Games? a. Zues b. Coroebus c. Apollo d. Hercales

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3. Where were the first Olympic games held? a. Athens b. Antwerp c. Olympia d. Barcelona

4. Who was the founder of the Modern Olympics? a. Phidias b. Alexander c. Pierre de Coubertin d. L. Aemilius Cato

5. The Ancient Olympic Games were made a part of the religious festival in the honour of which mythological deity? a. Heracles b. Eros c. Zues d. Perseus

6. In which year was the Olympic flag raised for the first time? a. 1916 b. 1920 c. 1924 d. 1932

7. Which of the following was placed on the head of a winner of the ancient Greek Olympics? a. An olive branch wreath b. Gold medal c. Silver medal d. Bronze medal

8. When and where did the first olympic torch relay take place? a. 1940, Munich b. 1932, Stockholm c. 1944, Finland d. 1936, Berlin

9. What is the meaning of the Olympic motto: Citius, Altius, Fortius? a. Faster, Higher, Stronger b. Braver, Faster, Higher c. Higher, Stronger, Faster d. Stronger, Braver, Faster

10. Which ceremony marks the end of the Olympic games? a. Lighting Fireworks b. Extinguishing the Olympic flame c. Releasing pigeons into the sky d. Playing musical bands

11. In which year were women allowed to participate in the Olympic games? a. 1908 b. 1912 c. 1900 d. 1924

12. In which year were the Olympics games shown on television for the first time? a. 1948 b. 1952 c. 1956 d. 1936

13. Name the American who was forced to return the gold medal he won at the 1972 Olympics? a. Ben Jonhson b. Jim Thorpe c. Rick DeMont d. David Bolen

14. In which year were the formal drug tests introduced in the Olympic Games? a. 1956 b. 1960 c. 1968 d. 1972

15. The first athlete failed in a gender test. a. Santhi Soundarajan b. Ewa Kłobukowska c. Jim Thorpe d. Hermann Ratjen

16. The Olympic flame was first lit during which year of the modern era? a. 1928 b. 1924 c. 1932 d. 1936

17. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee, the IOC? a. Los Angeles b. Lausanne c. London d. Sydney

18. In which year of the Modern Olympics were the Winter Games added? a. 1936 b. 1920 c. 1916 d. 1924

19. In which of the following three years were the Olympic Games not held? a. 1912, 1936 and 1940 b. 1936, 1940 and 1944 c. 1916, 1936 and 1940 d. 1916, 1940 and 1944

20. In which year was the modern Marathon ‘standardised’ to a length of 42,195 metres a. 1908 b. 1924 c. 1916 d. 1928

Olympics Questions and Answers Pdf Download – Sports Quiz

1. First-ever Winter Olympics was conducted on the year _____ 1924.

2. The colours of the five interlaced rings in the Olympics flag are Red, Black, Breen, Blue and Yellow.

3. _____ refers to a four-year period beginning on the opening of the Olympic Games for the summer sports. Olympiad.

4. The inception of Olympics was from which country? Greece.

5. The five nations which were participated in the Olympic games from its inception are

Greece, Australia, France, Great Britain, and Switzerland.

6. The country which comes on top position in gaining gold medals at the Summer Olympics 1996? USA.

7. Which sport item was included in the 1988 summer Olympic after a break of 64 years? Tennis

8. The topper country in winning maximum medals in Olympic from its beginning is USA.

9. Name the athlete from Spain who was the one and only to win gold in a Winter Olympics. Francisco Fernández Ochoa.

10. The country which has won maximum gold medals in the winter Para Olympics games on 2002. Germany.

11. Who was the dignitary to declare 2012 Olympics has opened? Queen Elizabeth II.

12. The year in which Olympic games was conducted in Vancouver is 2010.

13. In which year Snowboarding was first included in the Winter Olympics in Nagano, Japan? 1998.

14. Birgit Fischera, German kayaker, got her first gold medal in _____ Olympics. 1980 Moscow.

15. The number of gold medals secured in the equestrian sport by Reiner Klimke, a German is 6.

16. In 2004 summer Olympics, who won gold in sabre fencing from women’s category? Mariel Zagunis.

17. What was the inspiration for the sports pictograms which were used in the 1994 Lillehammer Olympics? Ancient Norwegian Rock Carvings.

18. Which country’s team got bronze and silver in Atlanta and Sydney respectively for the item basketball in the women category? Australia.

19. _____ is the discipline in which USA qualified for the first time at 2008 Olympics. Men’s Trampoline.

20. In 1980 Moscow Olympics one country boycotted the games with the order of its President. Which was that country? United States.

21. At the 1984 Summer Olympic Games a sport discipline was also included. Which was that? Synchronized Swim.

22. The year in which the voting held for selecting 2016 summer games host was on 2009.

23. Which country was represented by Yvonne van Gennip by winning three Gold for the event speed skatingin the 1988Olympics at Calgary? Netherlands.

24. _____ was accidentally died during his practice with his partner of olympic game. Sergei Grinkov.

25. At the 2008 Olympics, a 9 year old girl was noticed by the whole world while she appeared on stage, lip-synching to the Chinese national anthem. What is her name? Lin Miaoke.

26. Name the beach Volleyballer from US who has got Geeter, the human “on” switch Chris McGee.

27. In 2004 Summer Olympics,in which sport did Erik Vendt, an American athlete participated? Swimming.

28. Which sport has celebrated its 100th year of participation in the Games at the 2012 London Olympics? Modern Pentathlon.

29. Which medal was bagged by USA for Basketball at 2004 Olympics? Bronze.

30. Name the city in China where 2008 summer Olympics took place. Beijing.

31. Who has got gold medal for Women’s 7.5 km sprint biathlon competition of the Sochi 2014 Olympics? Anastasiya Kuzmina.

32. _____ was a female skater who had won three-time Olympic Champion in Ladies’ Singles, a ten-time World Champion and a six-time European Champion. Sonja Henie.

33. Name the country which always leads the parade of athletes at the Olympic opening ceremony? Greece.

34. Which country in 1992 Summer Olympics Barcelona, Spain was allowed to compete in the Olympic Games for the first time since the 1960 Summer Olympics, after a long suspension for its apartheid policy South Africa.

35. As per records the first Olympics is traditionally dated on 776 BC.

36. In ancient Olympic games, a category of people were refused to attend or watch the games. Who were they? Married women.

37. How Alexander the Great is related to Princess Olympiad, a Greek Princess? His mother.

38. The Greek city in which the first Modern Olympics had conducted is Athens.

39. Which type of medals were given to the winners of sports events held at Athens Olympics, which was also the first modern Olympics held in 1896? Silver medals.

40. The first Olympic Games to feature female athletes was the _____ Games in Paris. 1900.

41. There was a mass boycotting of Olympic Games by 64 countries in the history of Olympics. Which was the Olympics? 1980 Summer Olympics, Moscow.

42. The Olympic Games in which firstever drug- test was executed against doping was in 1968, Mexico City.

43. Name the Olympic Games in which South Korea and North Korea came together under one flag. Sydney 2000.

44. In 1913, _____ is the person who designed the Olympic flag. Baron Pierre de Coubertin.

45. Which colour is used for depicting peace as a background colour in the Olympic Symbol? White.

46. In the interlaced rings of Olympic symbol, what is the number of rings illustrated upside and downside? 3, 2.

47. The five interlaced rings in the Olympic symbol represent The five continents of the world.

48. What is the Olympic motto proposed by Pierre de Coubertin upon the creation of the International Olympic Committee in 1894. Citius, Altius, Fortius.

49. What does the Olympic motto ‘hendiatris Citius, Altius, Fortius’ means Swifter, Higher, Stronger.

50. As a symbol of spreading peace, which bird is set free during the inaugural ceremony of Olympic Games? Doves.

51. The Olympic mascots, (the fictional characters, usually an animal native to the area or human figures, who represent the cultural heritage of the place where the Olympic and Paralympic Games taking place. are introduced from which summer Olympics. 1968.

52. The inaugural opening ceremony started from which Olympics? III, London.

53. What is the name of the person who carried the Olympic flame at 2000 Sydney Olympics inaugural ceremony? Herb Elliot.

54. First World War cancelled one Olympics which was planned to be held at _____ in 1916. Berlin.

55. The sport which has a large number of competition items in the Olympic Games is Swimming.

56. IN 1948 London Olympics, the important venue was Wembley Stadium.

57. 1986 marathon winner Spyridon represents which country? Greece.

58. The country code which was given to Spain by the International Olympic Committee is ESP.

59. _____ won first gold medal in women’s hockey in 1980. Zimbabwe.

60. The telecasting of games through television started from which Olympics? 1936, Berlin.

61. From which Olympics the Olympic flame started for the first time. 1928, Amsterdam.

62. The first African to win Olympic Marathon was Abebe Bikila.

63. In a span of eighty years, on which year USA recorded the gymnastics team title for the first time in Olympics? 1984, Los Angeles.

64. The boxing class in which Morgan gave his first gold medal to New Zealand is Welterweight.

65. The journey of Olympic Torch through five continents started in the year _____ at _____ 2004, Athens.

66. Name the Olympian who is the only man to win two gold in the same Olympics itself. Oliver Kirk.

67. Name the Olympian who is the only man to win two gold in two different games in the same Olympics itself. Oliver Leonard Kirk.

68. _____ is the Olympian who won 3 gold medals in a single day. Raymond Ewry.

69. The gymnast who had won 8 medals, which is a record too in Olympic games is Sawao Kato.

70. The international federation which governs the archery competition is FITA.

71. Badminton was declared as an event from which Olympics? 1992.

72. In the debut match of women’s singles badminton, the first place went to Susi Susanti.

73. The year in which basketball entered as an Olympic game is 1936.

74. The cycling game which was included from Beijing Olympics in 2008 is BMX racing.

75. The boxing was included from which year in the history of Olympic Games? 1904.

76. Women’s diving was introduced from _____, _____ Olympics 1912, Stockholm.

77. The championship of 1908 Olympic hockey game was achieved by Great Britain.

78. The football in Olympics was introduced in 1900.

79. Name the countries which shared the title of ‘winners of three gold medals in men’s soccer’ in Olympics Hungary and Great Britain.

80. The Soviet gymnast, she was a the centre of attraction also, who won two gold medals in the 1972 Munich Olympics was. Olga Korbut.

81. In which Olympics Judo was excluded from the games after 1964 Olympics? 1968, Mexico City.

82. During the period 1948 to 1960, name the person who was a sailor too, won 4 gold medals in Olympics Paul Elvstrom, Denmark.

83. The champion in men’s skeet at Summer Olympics held in Beijing at 2008? Vincent Hancock.

84. Name the Olympics from which the use of goggles for swimming started? 1976, Montreal, Canada.

85. The country won the majority of gold medals in table tennis, that is, 20 out of 24 is China.

86. The tennis champion recorded in winning five Olympic medals in tennis (one gold medal, two silver, 3 bronze) Kathleen McKane Godfree.

87. Name the country which was the champion for two concurrent games from 1984 The United States.

88. The time span given for a weightlifter to lift and hold the weight is 60 seconds.

89. In 1972 Munich Olympics, US has won six medals of which how many were gold? Three.

90. _____ won baseball championship for three times within a five Olympics duration up to 2008 Beijing Olympics Cuba.

91. Cricket was an Olympic game till _____ Olympics. 1900, Paris.

92. The one and only Olympics in which golf competition for women was conducted is 1900.

93. The country which was a champion in handball tournament in the 1936 Berlin Olympics is Germany.

94. From which Olympics onwards Polo was excluded from games? 1936.

95. Name the champion country in their debut match of Softball at the Atlanta Olympics The United States.

96. Name the Olympics, which afterward standing jumps were removed from games. 1912, Stockholm.

97. Name the one and only Canadian athlete who has won two gold medals in 100 m and 200 m sprints in the Olympics yet. Percy Williams.

98. _____ has won 8 gold medals in the Beijing Olympics at 2008 for swimming Michael Phelps.

99. The Olympics from which India started to compete as a participant country is 1900.

100. The boxer also called ‘The Gentleman of Boxing’ is Floyd Patterson.

City

Country

Year

Opening Ceremony

Closing Ceremony

Athens Greece18966-Apr15-AprParis France190014-May28-OctSt. Louis United States19041-Jul23-NovLondon United Kingdom190827-Apr31-OctStockholm Sweden19125-May22-JulBerlin Germany1916Cancelled due to WWI(4)Antwerp(g) Belgium192020-AprSeptember 12(5)Chamonix France192425-JanFebruary 4(6)Paris France4-MayJuly 27(7)St. Moritz Switzerland192811-FebFebruary 19(8)Amsterdam Netherlands17-MayAugust 12(9)Lake Placid United States19324-FebFebruary 15(10)Los Angeles United States30-JulAugust 14(11)Garmisch-Partenkirchen Nazi Germany19366-FebFebruary 16(12)Berlin Nazi Germany1-AugAugust 16(13)Sapporo Japan1940Cancelled due to WWII(4)Helsinki FinlandCortina d’Ampezzo Italy1944London United KingdomSt. Moritz Switzerland194830-Jan8-FebLondon United Kingdom29-Jul14-AugOslo Norway195214-Feb25-FebHelsinki Finland19-Jul3-AugCortina d’Ampezzo Italy195626-Jan5-FebMelbourne Australia22-Nov8-DecStockholm(d) Sweden10-Jun17-JunSquaw Valley United States196018-Feb28-FebRome Italy25-Aug11-SepInnsbruck Austria196429-Jan9-FebTokyo Japan10-Oct24-OctGrenoble France19686-Feb18-FebMexico City Mexico12-Oct27-OctSapporo Japan19723-Feb13-FebMunich West Germany26-Aug11-SepInnsbruck Austria19764-Feb15-FebMontreal Canada17-Jul1-AugLake Placid United States198012-Feb24-FebMoscow Soviet Union19-Jul3-AugSarajevo Yugoslavia19847-Feb19-FebLos Angeles United States28-Jul12-AugCalgary Canada198813-Feb28-FebSeoul South Korea17-Sep2-OctAlbertville France19928-Feb23-FebBarcelona Spain25-Jul9-AugLillehammer Norway199412-Feb27-FebAtlanta United States199619-Jul4-AugNagano Japan19987-Feb22-FebSydney Australia200015-Sep1-OctSalt Lake City United States20028-Feb24-FebAthens Greece200413-Aug29-AugTurin Italy200610-Feb26-FebBeijing(f) China20088-Aug24-AugVancouver Canada201012-Feb28-FebLondon United Kingdom201227-Jul12-AugSochi Russia20147-Feb23-FebRio de Janeiro Brazil20165-Aug21-AugPyeongchang South Korea20189-Feb25-FebTokyo Japan202123-Jul8-AugBeijing China20224-Feb20-Feb

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Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf

Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf Answers

18. By default, your document prints with: a. 1 inch top and bottom margins b. a portrait orientation c. 1.25 inches left and right margins d. all of the above

19. Word is preset to use standard 8.5-by-11-inch paper with _____ margins. a. 1-inch left, right, top, and bottom b. 1.25-inch left, right, top, and bottom c. 1.25-inch left and right margins and 1-inch top and bottom d. 1-inch left and right margins and 1.25-inch top and bottom

20. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document? a. 1″ b. 1.25″ c. 1.5″ d. 2″

21. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar? a. 8 and 72 b. 8 and 64 c. 12 and 72 d. None of above

22. The Footnote Text style defines characters as _____. a. 12-point Times New Roman and paragraphs as single-spaced and right-aligned b. 10-point Times New Roman and paragraphs as double-spaced and left-aligned c. 12-point Times New Roman and paragraphs as double-spaced and right-aligned d. 10-point Times New Roman and paragraphs as single-spaced and left-aligned

23. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template in Word 2003? a. 10 pt b. 12 pt c. 14 pt d. None of above

24. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is a. 1 and 1 b. 2 and 1 c. 2 and 2 d. None of above

25. How will MS Word will respond in repeated word. a. A Red wavy line under the repeated word b. A Green wavy line under the repeated word c. A Blue wavy line under the repeated word d. None of the above

26. In mail merge operation which of the following might represent the main document? a. A sales brochure b. A form letter c. A database of Names and Addresses d. All of above

27. Pressing F8 key for three times selects a. a word b. a sentence c. a paragraph d. entire document

28. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’? a. the defaults b. a template c. a style d. a boilerplate

29. What is a Document Outline View? a. A preview in a full screen b. A preview with margins c. A View with a margins and gutter d. A view with a structure of heading at various levels

30. Ctrl + Z a. Undo the last Action b. Redo the last Action c. Add the new page d. Paste the contents from clipboard

31. The _____ in the Resume Wizard dialog box indicates the wizard is ready to create the document. a. Start panel b. Address panel c. Add/Sort Heading panel d. Finish panel

32. What does Ctrl + = key effect? a. Superscript b. Subscript c. All Caps d. Shadow

33. The spike a. Allows you to combine text from several documents and tehn insert all the text into one document at on we time b. Allows you to edit auto text entries c. Allows you to format auto text entries d. All of above

34. The word wrap creature a. Automatically move text to the next line when necessary b. Appears at the bottom of the document c. Allows you to type over text d. is the short horizontal line

35. How can you make the selected character super scripted a. Ctrl + = b. Ctrl + Shift + = c. Alt + Ctrl + Shift + = d. None of above

36. When typing in a word field manually, what must you press to insert the code’s braces? a. Ctrl + F6 b. Ctrl + F9 c. Alt + F11 d. Shift + F12

37. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box? a. F12 b. Shift F12 c. Alt + F12 d. Ctrl + F12

38. What is the shortcut key to split a table? a. Ctrl + Alt + Enter b. Ctrl + Shift + Enter c. Alt + Shift + Enter d. Alt + Space + Enter

39. Which key is used to increase left indent? a. Ctrl+I b. Ctrl+M c. Alt+I d. F10

40. When the same word is used in multiple locations or a word is used that was not quite appropriate, a thesaurus can be used to look up a (n) _____ or a word similar in meaning. a. synonym b. homonym c. antonym d. metronym

41. How many different documents you can open at one time? a. No more than three b. Only one c. As many as your computer memory will hold d. As many as your task bar can display

42. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro? a. Start recording b. Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the task you want to automate c. Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro d. Give the macro a name

43. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol, you should always try to select a key or key combination that is: a. unassigned b. located on the ten-key pad section of your keyboard. c. assigned to another task. d. from the same font family as the symbol.

44. Which feature is used to replace straight quotes with smart quotes as you type? a. Auto Correct as you type b. Auto Change as you type c. Auto Format as you type d. Smart Tags as you type

45. Which of the following command is not available in Tools menu? a. Auto text b. Auto correct c. Auto summarize d. Macro

46. Word has a list of predefined typing, spelling, capitalization, and grammar errors that _____ can detect and correct. a. Auto Entry b. Auto Correct c. Auto Add d. Auto Spell

47. If you want to convert a symbol or several lines of text into an AutoCorrect entry, you should: a. Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select the text or symbol and go to the Auto Correct dialog box. b. Click the Tools menu and choose Auto Correct Options. Then, click the Insert menu and choose Symbol (or click the Format menu and choose Paragraph) to add the symbol or paragraph to Auto Correct. c. Auto Correct can only accommodate one line of text. It is not possible to convert a symbol or multiple lines of text into an Auto Correct entry. d. Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select the text or symbol and click the Edit menu followed by Paste Special. Select New Auto Correct Entry and then click OK.

48. Which option is not available in Insert Table Auto fit behavior? a. Fixed Column Width b. Auto Fit to Contents c. Auto fit to Window d. Auto fit to Column

49. When you click on File menu in Word 2010, it opens a. File menu b. File Commands c. Backstage View d. File Ribbon

50. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment a. Decimal Alignment b. Center Alignment c. Bar Alignment d. Justify Alignment

MS WORD Objective Questions ::

51. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school? a. Because you have a different printer at school than at home b. Because you have a different monitor at school than at home c. Because the font you used at home is not installed on your school computer d. Because the version of Windows is different

Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf

52. Ctrl + B a. Search the selected text b. Paste the selected text c. Bold the selected text d. Open the specified file

53. A master document contains_________, each of which contains a pointer to a file on a disk? a. Placeholders b. sub documents c. bookmarks d. references

54. If the number of columns is selected 1 and the line between check box is marked, where is the line drawn? a. in the left margin b. in the right margin c. both in left and right margin d. None of Above

55. A feature of MS Word that saves the document automatically after certain interval is available on a. Save tab on Options dialog box b. Save As dialog box c. Both of above d. None of above

56. After typing header text, how can you quickly enter footer text? a. Press Page Down key and type the text for footer b. Click on Switch between Header & Footer then type the text c. Both of above d. None of above

57. To move the cursor page to page of document a. Ctrl+Page Down b. Ctrl+Page UP c. Both of above d. None of above

58. You can jump to the next column by a. Clicking with your mouse on the next column b. Press Alt + Down-arrow c. Both of above d. None of Above

59. Which of the following enables you to paste data multiple times? a. Windows Clipboard b. Office Clipboard c. Both Windows & Office Clipboard d. None of the all

60. You need to jump to the next column breaking current column right at the cursor position. How can you break column? a. Pressing Ctrl+Enter b. Pressing Alt+Shift+Enter c. Break command from Insert menu d. Both b and c

61. In Word you can force a page break a. By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key b. By using the Insert/Section break on the Insert tab c. By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter d. By changing the font size of your document

62. How can you increase the font size of selected text by one point every time? a. By pressing Ctrl + ) b. By pressing Ctrl + ( c. By pressing Ctrl + ) d. By pressing Ctrl + (

63. How to use Format Painter multiple times a. By Click on Lock Format Painter Icon b. By Double Click on the Format Painter Icon c. By Selecting Edit -> Format Painter -> Multiple Use d. Format Painter cannot be use multiple times

64. What is the default font used in MS Word 2007 document? a. Times New Roman b. Arial c. Calibri d. Preeti

65. Word includes a series of predefined graphics called _____ that can be inserted into a Word document. a. clip art b. hyperlinks c. captions d. bookmarks

66. A (n) _____is a dot or other symbol positioned at the beginning of a paragraph. a. bullet b. logo c. cell d. target

67. Which of the following is not a type of page margin? a. Left b. Right c. Center d. Top

68. Uppercase on Change Case dialog box and All Caps on Fonts dialog box both converts selected text into Capital Letters. What’s the difference between the two? a. Both are same. They are only two different ways of capitalize text. b. It is faster to convert from Change Case than from Font dialog box c. Change Case makes conversion permanent but All Caps on Font can always be reverted d. All Caps on Font dialog box makes the change permanent where Change Case can be always reverted

69. Ctrl + A a. Align Right b. Select All c. Change font d. Save document

70. Which of the following is not on Home ribbon? a. Columns b. Font color c. Change Style d. Font

71. When three hyphens, underscores, equal signs, asterisks, or number signs are typed and then the enter key is pressed, the Auto Format feature _____. a. places a border above a paragraph b. creates a numbered list c. changes the characters to an em dash d. creates a bulleted list

72. Microsoft Office Word is a (n) _____. a. area in the computer’s main memory in which Microsoft Office text files are stored temporarily b. program included with Windows 2000 that can be used only to create or edit text files, smaller than 64K, that do not require formatting c. classified password that prevents unauthorized users from accessing a protected Microsoft Office item or document d. full-featured word processing program that can be used to create and revise professional looking documents easily

73. Ctrl + E a. Exit Application b. Select All c. Clear All d. Align Center

74. When a custom tab stop is set, Word _____. a. clears all default tab stops b. clears all default tab stops to the right of the custom tab stop c. clears all default tab stops to the left of the custom tab stop d. does not clear any default tab stops

75. When inserting Page number in footer it appeared 1 but you wish to show a. How can you do that? a. From format menu choose bullets and Numbering and configure necessary setting b. From Insert menu choose Page Number and specify necessary setting c. Click on Page Number Format tool and specify required setting d. All of above

76. How do you close a word document without closing Word window? a. Click on the Close button on the title bar b. Click on X minimize button on the title bar c. Click on the Close command on Office menu d. Click Exit on the File menu

77. To switch between insert mode and over type mode, _____. a. click Caption on the Insert menu b. double-click the OVR status indicator on the status bar c. click Text Box on the Insert menu d. double-click the INS status indicator on the status bar

78. What should you do if you require to paste the same format in many places? a. Click the Format painter and go on pasting in many places holding Alt Key b. Double click the format painter then go on pasting in many places c. Click the format painter then go on pasting to many places holding Ctrl Key d. All of above

79. Which would you choose to save a document with a new name? a. Press Ctrl+S b. Click File, Save c. Click Tools, Options, Save d. Click File, Save As

80. You cannot close MS Word application by a. Choosing File menu then Exit sub menu b. Press Alt+F4 c. Click X button on title bar d. From File menu choose Close sub menu

81. Which of the following option is not available in Insert >> Picture ? a. Chart b. Word Art c. Clip Art d. Graph

82. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MS Word? a. New b. Quit c. Close d. Exit

83. Ctrl + O a. Save Document b. Print Document c. Close Document d. Open Document

84. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document? a. Bullets & numbering b. Tables c. Columns d. Tab stops

85. A _____ contains buttons, boxes, and menus that allow tasks to be performed more quickly than using the menu bar. a. format bar b. status bar c. command bar d. toolbar

86. A letterhead should contain all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. full street address b. logo c. complete legal name of the company, group, or individual d. None of the above

87. Which of the following is not available in Font Spacing? a. Normal b. Loosely c. Condensed d. Expanded

88. To convert a hyperlink e-mail address to regular text, right-click the e-mail address and then click _____ on the shortcut menu. a. Edit Hyperlink b. Select Hyperlink c. Convert Hyperlink d. Remove Hyperlink

89. Which enables you to move directly to specific location in a document? a. Sub documents b. Bookmarks c. Cross-references d. Outlines

90. Each time the _____ key is pressed, the paragraph formatting in the previous paragraph is carried forward to the next paragraph. a. enter b. shift c. ctrl d. alt

91. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol? a. Alt+Ctrl+C b. Alt + C c. Ctrl + C d. Ctrl + Shift + C

92. What is the short cut key to open Font dialog box? a. Ctrl + F b. Alt + Ctrl + F c. Ctrl + D d. Ctrl + Shift + D

93. What is the shortcut key to “Center Align” the selected text? a. Ctrl + C b. Ctrl + E c. Ctrl + F d. None of above

94. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check in document? a. F7 b. Shift + F7 c. Ctrl + F7 d. Alt + F7

95. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula in a table? a. F9 b. Alt + F9 c. Ctrl + F9 d. Shift + F9

96. What is the shortcut key for “Font” dialog box? a. Ctrl + F b. Ctrl + D c. Ctrl + G d. None of the above

97. What is the shortcut key for “Find and Replace” dialog box? a. Ctrl + F b. Ctrl + R c. Ctrl + H d. Ctrl + Shift + F

98. What is the shortcut key to “Insert Hyperlink” in a document? a. Ctrl + H b. Ctrl + L c. Ctrl + K d. None of above

Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf Questions

99. How can you access the font size tool on formatting toolbar? a. Ctrl + S b. Ctrl + Shift + S c. Ctrl + P d. Ctrl + Shift + P

100. What is the shortcut key for “Subscript” the selected text? a. Ctrl + = b. Ctrl + – c. Ctrl + Shift + = d. Ctrl + Shift + –

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learncram · 4 years ago

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entranceiin · 5 years ago

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About Entrancei

Entrancei is Indians Largest K-12 Educational content provider. Specifically, for class 6 to 12 having self-academic recourses to enhance your learning and meet your academic challenges. The educational content is prepared by more than 200 teacher and experts who are experts in their respective subjects. All the academic recourses are available free of cost and students can assesses use these content as per their requirements. To search for your academic requirement just google Entrancei Your class your topic. You will get the best study material at Entrancei.

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Entrancei Educational Recourses

Before moving to elaborate the Educational Recourse of Entrancei let us understand the Academic journey and pedology required.

When a student’s start his preparation there are different types of study material required for a specific purpose. Like the journey start with the following Recourse flow

1. In depth Theorical Explanations of Chapters

2. Problems for practice chapter wise

3. Important questions of the subjects

4. Important formulas of the chapters

5. Sample paper of the subjects

6. Previous year papers

7. Reference book solutions

8. Final Revision Material

9. Entrance exam questions

10. MCQ questions for Practice

11. Online Quiz

12. Doubts clearance

In depth Theorical Explanations of Chapters

understanding the concept of the given chapters to give you precise and adequate understanding of the subject knowledge we have uploaded advance theory which covers each and every sub topics with the help of solved examples. We have uploaded all chapter’s theory that starts from class 6 to 12 and cover almost 625 chapters with all sub topics required to learn the and explained in detail. Start reding the chapter given in your class and try to prepare your Notes for Entrancei chapter notes. These chapter theory not only cover your school requirements but also help you to build a solid foundation for your entrance exam like NTSE, Olympiads , JEE and NEET.

Problems for practice chapter wise

When you read the chapter from Entrancei each chapter consist of 3 to 8 exercises having MCQ and subjective questions with answer. Exercise consist of questions based on chapter and the difficulty level of questions increase as you move on question by questions . These questions are self-sufficient for all most all school as well as competitive exam.

Important questions of the subjects

There is separate section at Entrancei in the name of Important questions of the subjects and it consist of chapter wise pdf of each and every chapter. Our experts carefully selected few questions based on previous year trend of the exam and uploaded chapter wise Important questions of the subject like Maths , science, Physics , chemistry , zoology , Botany for class 6 to 12. These questions are prepared with detail solution by the senior teacher form different school, so factors are considered to select the questions.

Important formulas of the chapters

Formulas are most important part of the chapter and highly helpful for the final revision of the chapter. Entrancei experts understand this and prepared a separate section which consist of chapter wise and class wise important formulas of Maths, science, physics and chemistry. You can download the chapter wise formula sheet and be assure that the sheet consists of all most all formulas which are mentioned in your text book chapters. our maths formula section is very popular and till now 30 million students visited this section.

Sample paper of the subjects

Entrancei academic team understand the importance of sample papers. We have uploaded almost 70 entrance and board exam sample papers. Till now 800 sample papers with solution are uploaded for students for free assesses to all sample papers. You can download your class wise and subject wise sample papers like sample papers for class 10 Maths or science or for class 12. Entrance exam like JEE, NEET ,BITSAT ,AIIMS and many more just check out our sample papers section.

Previous year papers

Previous year papers section consists of past 10-year question papers of the exam. We have covered all board and competitive entrance exam. All Previous year papers uploaded by Entrancei are with detail solutions to give you additional advantage of questions solving aptitude. Previous year papers section consists of question paper of CBSE class 9,10,12 all subjects, JEE, NEET,AIPMT,AIIMS,BITSAT,SCRA and other competitive entrance exam. Check out Previous year papers for more details.

Reference book solutions

While preparing for you school exam or competitive entrance exam the most important think which is required is solving numerical given in the text book. Almost every student need help while solving questions form text book or reference book. Hear you need a detail solution of the questions on which you are facing problems. To help you our academic team of Entrancei uploaded detail in depth solutions of each and every question freely available on Entrancei. You can download NCERT solutions of all subject form class 6 to 12. Apart from detail NCERT solutions we have uploaded lots of reference book solutions for your reference.

Final Revision Material

Revision play a very important role in your preparation. To give you faster revision we have prepared a separate section in the name of final revision material which consist of brief introduction of the chapters and all-important points need to revise in the final time. Start your final revision from Entrancei revision section to excel in the board , school and competitive entrance exams.

Entrance exam questions

While preparing for any competitive entrance exam students need to understand the pattern of exam. To help you out we have uploaded question bank for Entrance exam. All most all Entrance exam are covered, and questions are carefully selected to match with the pattern and difficulty level of the entrance exam. You can check out our JEE and NEET section for the questions. Like we have added chapter wise integer-based questions in separate section to give you additional edge.

Online Quiz

Entrancei consist of unique Online Quiz for class 6 to 12 students. At Entrancei you will find Online Quiz class wise than subject wise than chapter wise. We have uploaded almost 5 lack questions in this section. Prepare your chapter from your text book than read the theory from Entrancei section and solve questions given in the exercise. Just after that go for Online Quiz for that chapter.

How Entrancei Helps you in your Learning

As explained above we have added lots of academic recourse for your reference and practice the key role is how you will use these recourses. One must follow the following level of sequence to excel in the exam.

Entrancei Winning Mantra

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ss1986us · 5 years ago

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Chemistry Question

While preparing for competitive exam like JEE & NEET chemistry is one of the most important subjects and scoring too. To score good marks in chemistry students need quality of chemistry questions. Academic team of Entrancei uploaded more than 50000 chemistry MCQ based questions in pdf form which is freely available for download.

Tips to solve Chemistry Questions

To solve MCQ based questions of chemistry one must have very sound conceptual clarity and focus of subject. Do follow the five below mentioned tips to solve the chemistry questions quickly . 1. Before attempting to solve MCQ based question read the chapter thoroughly and prepare it from your text book as well as from NCERT text book 2. Make sure you know all Chemistry formulas which are required to solve the questions of the chapter . you can revise the chemistry formulas from Entrancei chemistry formulas section . 3. Solved at least 50 solved example of physical chemistry it will help you to develop concepts and application of concepts used in question 4. Write down all reactions and application of reagent in organic chemistry and try to prepare good notes. 5. Try to solve MCQ based questions in given period of time . for physical chemistry 2 minutes is enough for organic and inorganic 2 min is enough Chapters wise MCQ based questions for chemistry questions Academic team develop huge questions bank for class 11 and class 12 chemistry to build your concept which is required to excel in entrance exam. In this page questions are based on the following chapter with answer key for better practice. All majors are taken care to provide students quality of questions. Chapters cover in chemistry MCQ questions are.

The Chemistry question bank prepared by Entrancei consist of 26 chapters namely Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of the Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, s-Block Elements II, p-Block Elements I, p-Block Elements II, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, Gaseous State, Liquid State, Laws of Thermodynamics, Thermochemistry, Dynamic Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, s-Block Elements I, Nomenclature of Organic Compounds, Isomerism, Fundamental Concepts in Organic Reactions Mechanism, Purification and Elemental Analysis, Alkanes, Alkenes, Alkynes, Aromatic Hydrocarbons, Radioactivity and Environmental Chemistry.

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siva3155 · 6 years ago

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300+ TOP SAP PP Objective Questions and Answers

SAP PP Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. What is the T Code for changing planned order? A. MD11 B. MD12 C. MD13 D. MD14 Ans: B 2. Production Planning Module is integrated with which of the following modules? A. Material Management B. Controlling C. Quality Management D. Sales and Distribution E. All the above F. None of the above Ans: E 3. Which of the following are valid BOM categories? A. Inspection BOM B. Material BOM C. Equipment BOM D. Costing BOM E. All the above F. Only b,c and d Ans: F 4. Movement Type for Goods Receipt in to Ware House A. 261 B. 301 C. 101 D. 102 Ans: C 5. What is the T code for “Display production lot”? A. MDL3 B. MDL4 C. MEL5 D. MEL3 Ans: A 6. What is the T Code for displaying planning file entry? A. MD21 B. MD12 C. MD11 D. MD10 Ans: A 7. What is the use of BOM? A. MRP B. Costing C. Inspection data D. Sales and Distribution E. None of the above F. All the above Ans: F 8. Routing contains information about which of the following? A. Material Components B. Operations C. Capacity for Work Centers D. Inspection Characteristics E. All the above F. a,b and c Ans: F 9. A Material BOM is created without plant. What would you call it? A. Reference BOM B. Master BOM C. Group BOM D. Master group E. None of the above Ans: C 10. Where is work center used? A. Routing B. BOM C. Material Master D. Inspection Plans E. All the above F. a and d Ans: F

SAP PP MCQs 11. A plant can be a physical plant or a logical section of a plant a) Yes b) No. Ans: a 12. Storage locations are areas where materials are stored within a plant a) Yes b) No. Ans: a 13. A purchasing organization can buy for a number of plants a) Yes b) No. Ans: a 14. A purchasing group is a sub-set of a purchasing organization a) Yes b) No. Ans: a 15. Strategy Group is relevant for Material Requirement Planning a) True b) False Ans: a 16. MRP can be caried out at : a) Plant Level b) All Routings c) Single item – single level d) Single item – multiple level Ans: a, c, d 17. In Material Requirement Planning a) Material availability is ensured b) If shortage exists the corresponding elements are planned c) Stock transfers are also possible d) The availability of the components is ensured via dependent requirements Ans: d 18. With Make – to Stock strategy 10 a) MRP run considers only Sales Orders b) MRP run considers only PIR c) MRP run considers both Sales Order & PIR d) Sales Order can consume PIR Ans: b 19. The Individual / Collective indicator in the material Master determines a) Whether a component is procured for a special customer requirement in the individual segment b) Requirement quantities of dependent materials are grouped together during MRP run c) The Material Requirement Planning d) The Special Procurement. Ans: c 20. ATP – Available to Promise (Availability check) a) System checks if all issues are covered by existing receipts b) Checks if receipts’ quantity still available to cover newly received issues Ans: a 21. Availability Check PIRs System does not check against PIRs a) True b) False Ans: b 22. No ATP quantities, receipts or stocks are included a) True b) False Ans: b 23. Determines if sufficient PIRs are planned to cover a SO a) True b) False Ans: b 24. Consumption based planning is usually used for following materials a) All A & B Class Materials b) Materials with smooth consumption pattern. Ans: b 25. For Planning at Phantom Assembly Level planned orders are created for Phantom assembly a) True b) False Ans: b SAP PP Objective type Questions with Answers 26. Stock Requirements List gives ___________________ situation of stock requirement for the material a) Static : of the last MRP Run b) Dynamic : Existing at current situation Ans: b 27. Is Sales order A Qty. 15 PC and Sales order B Qty. 25 PC are booked on same date and stock is 0 PC a) Separate Planned Order for each Sales Order shall be created if individual indicator is set b) Only one planned order is created if individual indicator is set c) Separate Planned Order for each Sales Order shall be created if Collective indicator is set d) Only one planned order is created if Collective indicator is set Ans: a, d 28. Planning can create the following after MRP run a) Planned Orders b) Production Orders c) Purchase Orders d) Schedule Lines Ans: a, b 29. NETCH is a) Used in Demand Management b) Key to run MRP for Total horizon c) Key to run MRP for Total Planning horizon d) Not related to MRP Ans: c 30. What is the difference between a operation-related and order-related confirmation? a) Order confirmation is a confirmation of the entire order at order header level and an Operation confirmation allows you to confirm an order step by step. b) Order confirmation is a confirmation of the entire order before sending to production and operation confirmation is a step by step confirmation of production order c) Order confirmation is partial confirmation of the order and operation confirmation is automatic final confirmation of the order d) Order confirmation requires a goods receipt, operation confirmation does not require a goods receipt Answer: a 31. What are the options for the material staging from a warehouse management system? (more than one option is correct) a) Create parts are ordered manually b) Release order parts are ordered manually c) Pick parts are provided for the production order in exactly the same quantity as the requirements quantity d) Release order parts are ordered automatically Answer: a, b &c 32. Consider a product scenario where there is high product stability, high repetition rates, and low product complexity. What type of manufacturing do you suggest? a) Mass manufacturing b) Bulk manufacturing c) Repetitive manufacturing d) Order based manufacturing Answer: c 33. A distinctive feature of you company is a relatively constant consumption of materials. For this reason, you want to process the material flow to the work centers in production of your company in an event-drive manner. Is there any possibility in SAP? a) No this is not possible b) SAP-SCM KANBAN c) SAP-SCM REPLENISHMENT d) SAP-SCM PRODUCT STABILITY Answer: b 34. What is the industry standard that uses COM/DCOM technology to define manufacturer-independent interfaces for the industrial usage area? a) SAP COM/COM model b) SAP OPC c) SAP OCOM d) SAP OLE Answer: b 35. As a production manager how do you enable process operations parallel to and independent of other operations? a) Parallel sequences b) Successor relationships c) Control sequences d) Linked sequences Answer: a 36. What is the difference between regenerative planning and net change planning? a) Planning all materials from the planning file, you can only plan materials for which planning file exists. b) Planning all materials bases on demand, you plan all materials bases on previous production c) Planning all materials parallel, planning all materials from previous planning file d) Planning all material online , planning is carried out as a background job Answer: a 37. What is the report that collects all important information about a work center or a hierarchy of work centers of a shift? a) Shift report b) Shift transfer report c) Transfer report d) Shirt work center report Answer: a 38. What is the indicator that controls whether a valuated or non-valuated goods receipt should be made and on what are the criteria that this indicator is dependent upon? (more than one option is correct) a) The stock type indicator b) The GR valuation indicator c) Material type of the product and account assignment d) Demand and Supply Answer: b & c 39. Settlement in product cost controller is based on? (more than one option is correct) a) Period-oriented b) Costs of the product cost controller c) Order settlement d) No settlement rule Answer: a & b 40. Material BOM that is created without plant is called______________ a) Reference BOM b) Master BOM c) Group BOM d) Master group Ans: c 41. Component in the BOM are allocated to operation in a) BOM b) Material Master c) Routing d) Work Center Ans: c 42. Alternative BOMs are grouped under one internal number and are called__________ a) Multiple BOM b) Variant BOM c) Variable BOM d) Super BOM e) Header BOM Ans: 43. BOM can be used for the following a) MRP b) Costing c) Inspection data d) Sales & Distribution Ans: a, b, c, d 44. The base quantity in the BOM specifies a) To which amount of the semi finished product the item quantities refer b) To which amount the item quantities required for two or more finished products c) To which amount of the finished product the item quantities refer d) To which amount the item quantities are not calculated. Ans: a, b, c 45. Work Center is used in a) Routing b) BOM c) Material Master d) Inspection Plans Ans: a, d 46. Routing contains information on the following a) Material Components b) Operations c) Capacity for Work Centers d) Inspection Characteristics Ans: a, b, c 47. BOMs are always created as a) Single Level b) Multi Level c) Components d) Along with routings Ans: a 48. In case of roll out project what key consideration needs to be identified in the initial phase of the project? a. Business processes applicable to the location from the template. b. Local organization needs that require adoption to the template. c. Statutory need of the local organization. d. Impact of local process to the template. Ans: A 49. Production Planning Module is integrated with the following modules. a) Material Management b) Controlling c) Quality Management d) Sales & Distribution Ans: a, b, c, d 50. Movement Type for Goods Receipt in to Ware House a) 122 b) 123 c) 101 d) 102 Ans: c SAP PP Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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versionweekly · 6 years ago

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CBSE Class 12 Physics, Chemistry,and Biology MCQ Questions with Answers PDF Download

Physics, Chemistry and Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Free Download is very important for students who want to score good marks in their CBSE board examination. Students who can Practice CBSE Class 12 Physics, Chemistry, and Biology Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to improve your score in Board Exams.

Physics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers

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Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Free Download is very important for students who want to score good marks in their CBSE board examination. Students who can Practice CBSE Class 11 Physics Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to improve your score in Board Exams.

Physics MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers Pdf Download

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learnenglishcbsein · 6 years ago

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Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

Physics MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers Pdf Download

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Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

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learncbse6 · 6 years ago

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Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

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shravyasharma190 · 6 years ago

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Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

Physics MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers Pdf Download

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siva3155 · 6 years ago

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300+ TOP UBR Objective Questions and Answers

UBR Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above Ans: B 2. Frame Relay provides ________. A) PVCs B) SVCs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) Ans:C 3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. A) PVC B) SVC C) DLCIs D) none of the above Ans: C 4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator A) PVC B) SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: A 5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases A) a PVC B) an SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: B 6. Frame Relay has _______. A) only the physical layer B) only the data link C) the physical and data link layers D) the physical, data link, and network layers Ans: C 7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) flow B) error C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: D 8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) only 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 2 to 4 D) none of the above Ans: C 9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Ans: B 10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above Ans: B

UBR MCQs 11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above Ans: A 12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above Ans: C 13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. A) frame B) packet C) cell D) none of the above Ans: C 14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) VPI B) VCI C) DLCI D) a combination of (a) and (b) Ans: D 15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. A) two B) three C) four D) five Ans: B 16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 Ans: A 17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 Ans: B 18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) 40 B) 50 C) 52 D) 53 Ans: D 19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) all of the above Ans: C 20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) None of the above Ans: A 21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) none of the above Ans: B 22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) TPs B) VPs C) VCs D) all of the above Ans: D 23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above Ans: C 24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above Ans: B 25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) physical B) ATM layer C) AAL D) none of the above Ans: A UBR Objective type Questions with Answers 26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above Ans: A 27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 Ans: A 28. In ATM, _______is for short packets. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 Ans: B 29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 Ans: C 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 Ans: D 31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above Ans: C 32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above Ans: A 33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above Ans: B 34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above Ans: C 35. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above Ans: A 36. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above Ans: B 37. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short time. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above Ans: C 38. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR Ans: A 39. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not need real-time services but use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR Ans: B 40. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR Ans: C 41. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not guarantee anything. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR Ans: D 42. Which AAL type is designed to support a data stream that has a constant bit rate? A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 Ans: A 43. The _______ bit rate service class is similar to the service provided by a T-line. A. constant B. variable C. available D. unspecified Ans: A 44. The variable bit rate service class uses _______ techniques to create a variable bit rate. A. encapsulation B. encryption C. switching D. compression Ans: D 45. The _______ bit rate service class delivers cells at a minimum rate that can be exceeded when the network is not running at full capacity. A. constant B. variable C. available D. unspecified Ans: C 46. The _______ bit rate service class is a best-effort delivery service with no guarantees. A. constant B. variable C. available D. unspecified Ans: D UBR Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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