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MKT 475 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 5 Chapter 8 and 9

Chapter 08

Innovation and New-Product Strategy

True/False Questions 

1. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value are known as substantial innovations.

219

2. Conformity between consumer value expectations and product use experience indicates greater new-product opportunities. 

221

3. Analyzing customer value expectations to finding new-product opportunities are very useful in evaluating potential transformational innovations.

222

4. Radical innovations have the potential of creating negative impacts on the leading firms that pursue new-product strategies using existing technologies. 

222

5. When products become commodities, profit margins increase and differentiated advantages are easily achieved.

222 

6. The elite circle is a form of innovation through collaborative relationship in which a company chooses participants, defines the problem, and chooses the solution.

225

7. A new-product screening involves testing if the product is commercially viable.

235

236

8. A product prototype is the first completed model of the product that is ready for commercial production and marketing.

241

9. Product specifications describe what the product will do rather than how it should be designed.

241

10. The traditional method of market testing helps eliminate the risk present in simulated tests of competitor exposure.

245

246

Multiple Choice Questions 

11. Which of the following enables producing a product by building it up a layer at a time?

A. Additive manufacturing

B. Productive layering

C. Merchandise fabrication

D. Object enabling

218

12. _____ innovation occurs when products are radically new and the values created are substantial. A. Substantial B. Transformational C. Incremental D. Nondescript

219

13. Products that are significantly new and create important value for customers are called _____ innovations.  A. transformational B. incremental C. substantial D. nondescript

219 

14. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value (or lower cost) are called _____ innovations.  A. transformational B. substantial C. nondescript D. incremental

219 

15. Customer _____ indicates how well the product use experience compares to the value expected by the buyer.  A. value B. satisfaction C. need D. segmentation

221 

16. _____ is the combination of benefits provided by a product minus all of the costs incurred by the buyer. A. Product use experience B. Customer satisfaction C. Customer value D. Leveraging cost

221 

17. The objective of _____ is to identify needs for new products and improvements in existing products, processes, and supporting services.  A. test marketing B. incremental innovation C. analytical positioning techniques D. customer value analysis

  221

18. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationship in which a company chooses participants, defines the problem, and chooses the solution.

A. elite circle

B. innovation mall

C. innovation community

D. consortium

225

19. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships where a company posts a problem and anyone can propose a solution.

A. elite circle

B. innovation mall

C. innovation community

D. consortium

225

20. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships where anybody can propose problems, offer solutions, and decide which solutions to use.

A. elite circle

B. innovation mall

C. innovation community

D. consortium

226

21. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships which operates like a private club with participants jointly selecting problems, deciding how to work on them, and choosing solutions.

A. elite circle

B. innovation mall

C. innovation community

D. consortium

226

22. Product _____ refers to when a new product attracts sales from an existing product. A. cannibalization B. knockdown C. scaffolding D. benchmarking

226

23. _____ consists of the pursuit of a deliberate, ongoing strategy of developing and introducing new products that attract the buyers of a company's existing products.  A. Sustained innovation B. Proactive cannibalization C. Cross production D. Planned obsolescence

226

24. The company's _____ spells out management's choice of the company's most promising opportunities for new products.  A. mission statement B. vision consortium C. innovation strategy D. articles of incorporation

227

25. Which of the following is the first step in the new-product-planning process?

A. Idea generation

B. Marketing strategy development

C. Product development

D. Customer needs analysis

229 

26. Which of the following is true of scanner-based tests?

A. It uses cable television and a computerized database to track new product.

B. It is the cheapest and quickest market test available.

C. Its findings are more accurate than actual market tests.

D. It is conducted in a fabricated shopping environment inside a research facility.

245

27. Which of the following marketing tests is conducted in an actual market environment?

A. Regression tests

B. Simulated tests

C. Traditional tests

D. Web-enabled tests

246

28. Which of the following is a description of the Generic (market-pull) products process type?

A. The team begins with a market opportunity and selects appropriate technologies to meet customer needs.

B. The team begins with a new technology, and then finds an appropriate market.

C. The team assumes that the new product will be built around an established technological subsystem.

D. Characteristics of the product are highly constrained by the production process.

249

29. Which of the following are examples of quick-build products?

A. Sporting goods, furniture, tools

B. Software, cellular phones

C. Pharmaceuticals, space systems

D. Airplanes, jet engines, automobiles

249

30. Which of the following describes the process for platform products?

A. Characteristics of the product are highly constrained by the production process.

B. New products are slight variations of existing configurations.

C. System must be decomposed into several subsystems and many components.

D. The team assumes that the new product will be built around an established technological subsystem.

249

Essay Questions 

31. How can innovations be classified? What are the different types of innovations?

32. Describe the various forms of innovation through collaborations?

33. What is proactive cannibalization and what is the strategic logic of this concept?

34. Describe how focus groups help generate new-product ideas.

35. Explain the importance of concept evaluation in new-product planning.

Chapter 09

Strategic Brand Management

True/False Questions 

1. Product life cycles are becoming longer for many products due to new technology, rapidly changing preferences of buyers and intense competition.  

264 

2. Preference mapping offers useful guidelines for strategic targeting and product positioning. 

265 

3. The brand as a person (brand personality) perspective recognizes that strong brands may have an identity beyond the product or the company, which has positive impacts on the customer relationship and perception of value. 

266 

4. Combination branding places a brand name on one or more lines of related products representing different product categories.

268

5. In private branding, retailers with established brand names contract with producers to manufacture and place the retailer’s brand name on products sold by the retailer.

268

6. A disadvantage of fighter brands is that they may cannibalize the company’s premium offering.

7. Stretching the brand vertically consists of launching a new product line in another product class.

8. Moving the brand down is relatively easy to pursue since it benefits from the image of the higher-level brand.

9. Brand extension consists of two well-known brands working together in promoting their products. 

10. Co-branding is the sale of a firm’s brand name to another company for use on a noncompeting product.

Multiple Choice Questions 

11. A _____ is intended to meet the needs of buyers, and it may consist of objects, services, organizations, places, people, and ideas.  A. product B. brand C. resource D. trademark

255 

12. A name, term, design, symbol, or any other feature that identifies one seller's good or service as distinct from those of other sellers is known as a(n) _____. A. product B. merchandise C. brand D. advertisement

255 

13. According to the American Marketing Association, the legal term for brand is _____. A. merchandise B. asset C. patent D. trademark

255 

14. If a brand is used for the firm as a whole, then it is referred to as a _____. A. trade name B. corporation C. trademark D. patent

255 

15. Which of the following is a function of brands for buyers?

A. Facilitate the introduction of new products

B. Reduce customer search costs

C. Raise the buyers’ perceived risk

D. Curtail premium pricing

256

16. For buyers, brands play the function of:

A. aiding repeat purchases.

B. reducing premium pricing.

C. minimizing buyers’ perceived risks.

D. facilitating brand loyalty.

256

17. Which of the following is a function of brands for sellers?

A. Reduce sellers’ perceived risks

B. Facilitate low production costs

C. Diminish market segmentation, offering products to a larger target

D. Facilitate the introduction of new products

256

18. Which of the following about brands is true?

A. Brands facilitate promotional effectiveness for sellers.

B. Brands help reduce prices for buyers.

C. Brands minimize market segmentation to cater to a larger target.

D. Brands enhance buyers’ perceived risks.

256

19. Which of the following leads to a negative impact on brand management?

A. Reduced customer search costs

B. Fragmentation of markets and media

C. Increased brand loyalty

D. Reduction in buyer’s perceived risk

257

20. Marketing plans for specific brands are usually developed at _____ level.

A. market-driven management B. product group/marketing management C. product portfolio management D. product/brand management

258

21. A business that has several product categories and/or brands may assign responsibility for coordinating the initiatives of product or brand managers to _____.

A. the chief executive of the SBU

B. a product director

C. a product portfolio manager

D. a brand analyst

259

22. _____ management is normally assigned to the chief executive of the strategic business unit, the corporate level of an organization, or a team of top executives.

A. Product/brand B. Product group/marketing C. Product portfolio D. Market-driven

260 

23. Which of the following activities of strategic brand management primarily provides essential information for decision making for other brand management activities? A. Leveraging the brand  B. Brand equity management C. Brand identity strategy D. Strategic brand analysis

261 

24. The intent of _____ is to determine “a unique set of brand associations that the brand strategist aspires to create or maintain.”

A. brand identity strategy B. brand equity management C. strategic brand analysis  D. brand equity measurement

261

25. _____ consists of coordinating the organization's system of brands with the objective of achieving optimal system performance. It focuses on brand interrelations rather than an individual brand. A. Strategic brand analysis B. Managing the brand portfolio C. Leveraging the brand D. Brand equity management

262

26. _____ involves extending the core brand identity to a new addition to the product line, or to a new product category.

A. Strategic brand analysis B. Managing the brand portfolio C. Leveraging the brand D. Brand equity management

262

27. Which of the following is the first step in tracking brand performance?

A. Identifying problem products

B. Selecting method(s) for evaluation

C. Deciding how to resolve the problem

D. Establishing the performance objectives

262

263

28. Using the same brand name to market one or more lines of related goods which represent different categories, such as Crest toothpaste, brushes, and floss, is referred to as _____. A. corporate branding B. product-line branding C. combination branding D. private branding

267

29. Which of the following strategies for brand strength involves launching a brand aimed to combat low-price competitors while protecting the company’s premium priced offerings? A. Brand revitalization B. Licensing C. Fighter brands D. Co-branding

30. Which of the following brand leveraging strategies involves the sale of a firm’s brand name to another company for use on a noncompeting product? A. Line extension B. Brand extension C. Co-branding D. Licensing

Essay Questions 

31. What functions do brands serve for sellers?

32. Explain three internal and external forces that create hurdles for brand managers in their efforts to build strong brands. What is one key to reducing these negative impacts on brand-building strategies?

33. List the measures that Aaker proposes to capture all relevant aspects of brand equity.

34. Brands that have been successful over a long time period offer useful insights about brand strategy management. Discuss some of these insights.

35. Discuss the state of counterfeit brands, the ethical issues, the involvement of law enforcement, and the role of the internet in counterfeiting.

#MKT 475 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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LEG 505 Assignment 3: Draft Compliance Matrix and Compliant Proposal to RFP

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Due Week 6 and worth 200 points

Note: The assignments are a series of papers that build upon one another.

Refer to the following resources to complete this assignment: FAR § 15.2 (Solicitation and Receipt of Proposals and Information)

(https://www.acquisition.gov/far/current/html/Subpart%2015_2.html) As the Contract Officer (CO) of your newly formed company, you will create a compliance matrix, and

then draft a proposal in response to the RFP from Assignment 2.

Write a five to seven (5-7) page Compliance Matrix and Compliant Proposal to your RFP paper in which you:

1. Create a compliance matrix and prepare a FAR-compliant proposal in response to the RFP from Assignment 2. Note: You may create and /or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

2. Apply the appropriate FAR clauses in order to meet compliance in contract formulation and award.

3. Apply the knowledge gained from your analysis of Government Accountability Office reports / decisions to identify and account for FAR compliance issues and contributing factors.

4. Apply the knowledge of planned actions in soliciting and awarding contracts and make recommendations to ensure the government agency is in compliance with the FAR requirements.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

#LEG 505 Assignment 3: Draft Compliance Matrix and Compliant Proposal to RFP

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LEG 500 Week 6 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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Week 6 DQ

"Environmental Responsibility" Please respond to the following:

· From the e-Activity, determine two (2) other costs that BP might have incurred. Give your opinion as to whether or not BP would have been better off had the company taken the necessary precautions to prevent or minimize an oil spill. Support your answers.

· Give your opinion on whether governments should be able to rezone and condemn residential land and displace homeowners in the process, in order to facilitate commercial development. Explain your rationale.

#LEG 500 Week 6 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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LEG 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 6 Chapter 10 and 11

CHAPTER 10

HOMICIDE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following requirements is included in those generally required by courts to reduce murder to manslaughter?

there must be adequate provocation

the killing must have been in a heat of passion

there must have been no opportunity to cool off

all of these are included in the requirements for reducing murder to manslaughter.

2. Which of the following requirements is NOT included in those generally required by courts to reduce murder to manslaughter?

there must be adequate provocation

the killing must have been in a heat of passion

the killing must not have occurred during another crime

there must be a causal connection between the provocation, the rage or anger, and the fatal act

3. The Latin term meaning the body or substance of the crime (proof that a crime has been committed) is

habeas corpus

corpus collosum

corpus delicti

corpus respondeat

4. If the body of the murder victim is never found, the defendant

may be held in custody indefinitely

may be convicted based on circumstantial evidence

can never be convicted of murder

may be convicted only of manslaughter

5. When the body of the deceased is available, but doctors are unable to testify specifically that the cause of death was due to an unlawful act

jurors may speculate as to cause of death

the defendant is still likely to be convicted of murder

the defendant will likely plead self defense

corpus delicti has not been proved

6. The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the Oregon Death with Dignity Law because it reasoned that treating a physician writing a prescription for a mercy killing as “drug abuse” was

unreasonable

ridiculous

irresponsible

reasonable

7. Under the old common law

the killing of a fetus was a capital offense

killing a fetus carried the same penalty as for killing an adult

murder of a newborn required showing it was born alive

murder of a child required the child have lived at least one-year-and-a-day

8. Which of the following is NOT required under the Oregon Death with Dignity Law for a person to legally commit suicide?

a patient must be found to be terminally ill and have less than six months to live

patients must have the mental capacity to fully understand the situation that confronts them

a 15-day waiting period after the patient applies and is found to have qualified for physician-assisted suicide

a physician must prescribe and administer the drugs to end the patient’s life

9. Under the common law, the killing of a fetus was

not a homicide

feticide

homicide

genocide

10. At common law, how soon must a victim die after time of the wrongful act for a homicide conviction?

one year and a day

one year

one month

one day

11. The doctrine used when the intention to harm one individual inadvertently causes a second person to be hurt instead is called

transferred intent

manslaughter

voluntary manslaughter

involuntary manslaughter

12. If a person is killed during the commission of a felony not listed in § 1111, it is

not murder solely because of the felony committed

not murder

murder solely because of the felony committed

none of these answers is correct

13. Which of the following is almost never sufficient provocation to reduce a charge of murder to that of manslaughter?

words and gestures

battery

adultery

trespass

14. Corpus delicti means the

body of the crime

scene of the crime

essence of the crime

victim of the crime

15. A killer whose gun shot misses the intended victim but kills a bystander can be convicted of the intentional murder of the bystander by use of the doctrine of

transferred intent

accidental murder

common design

concurrent mens rea

16. A death at the hands of one who intended to do only serious bodily harm

will be prosecuted as a misdemeanor

will be prosecuted the same as intentional murder

will likely be prosecuted for a lesser degree of murder

cannot be prosecuted

17. Depraved-mind murder

includes specific intent to injure or harm

is called second-degree murder in some states

is always a capital offense

is a misdemeanor

18. A person who kills another during the course of committing a felony, even if the killing is accidental, is guilty of

depraved heart murder

involuntary manslaughter

felony murder

excusable homicide

19. Most states have

abolished the felony murder rule

reduced felony murder to a misdemeanor

found felony murder to be unconstitutional

retained some form of the felony murder rule

20. Some states have limited the felony murder rule by requiring that the

defendant have intend to kill the victim

felony is a dangerous one

victim has actively opposed the defendant

victim has acted negligently

21. Today, medical science makes proving the connection between actions and a resulting death much easier and clearer, so most states have dropped the

year-and-a-day rule

decade-and-a-day rule

month-and-a-day rule

week-and-a-day rule

22. If it appears the victim may have provoked the killing, the defendant will likely be charged with

felony murder

manslaughter

first-degree murder

depraved-mind murder

23. In those states that still have the born alive requirement, a fetus must be born “alive” before its death can be

murder

voluntary manslaughter

manslaughter

feticide

24. The crime commonly charged when the victim causes the defendant to become enraged to the point of losing normal self-control and killing, is

depraved-mind murder

depraved-heart murder

heat of passion manslaughter

felony murder

25. Under the doctrine of transferred intent, the intention formed by the perpetrator of a homicide as to an intended victim is “transferred” to the killing of

an unintended victim

a felony victim

the co-defendant

any injured police officer

26. If there is an interval between the act provoking the killer and the killing, the jury will consider if there was

an intent to kill

a deadly weapon used

a cooling of the blood

perfect defense

27. Which of the following DO NOT require proof of intent to kill?

involuntary manslaughter

reckless homicide

second degree murder based on intent to do serious bodily injury

none of these required proof of intent to kill

28. In all states, the death of the victim of a listed felony, and a third person killed by the felon, constitute

felony murder

involuntary manslaughter

first degree homicide

voluntary manslaughter

29. When extreme negligence or wanton or reckless conduct on the part of the defendant brings about an unintended death, the charge will most likely be

depraved-mind murder

capital murder

felony murder

involuntary manslaughter

30. The State of Oregon has the power to determine what conduct is criminal in that state

unless it contravenes some Federal law

no matter what

unless it contravenes some other states law

none of these answers is correct

TRUE/FALSE

1. If a murder victim’s body is never found, the defendant cannot be convicted of murder.

2. Under the old common law, the killing of a fetus was not a homicide.

3. Most states have abrogated the year-and-a-day rule.

4. Involuntary manslaughter requires proof of intent to kill.

5. A charge of murder could be reduced to manslaughter if provocation existed to cause the criminal conduct.

6. The doctrine of transferred intent allows a murder suspect to escape punishment if someone other than the intended victim is killed.

7. Most states still have some form of the felony murder rule.

8. Felony murder is the appropriate charge when the defendant was provoked into losing normal self-control resulting in a killing.

9. The test of the adequacy of provocation in a voluntary manslaughter case is how a reasonable person would react to the provocation.

10. The U.S. Supreme Court held that the Death with Dignity Law did not violate the Federal Controlled Substance Law.

COMPLETION

1. The term ____________ delicti means the body or substance of a crime.

2. When the common law year-and-a-day rule is abrogated by a state supreme court, the court must determine whether to make the abrogation retroactive, or .

3. Because most criminal homicide statutes prohibited only the killing of a “person” or a “human being,” these statutes did not include the killing of a , which was not a person under the common law.

4. A doctrine used when the intention to harm one individual inadvertently causes a second person to be hurt instead. The individual causing the harm will be seen as having “intended” the act by means of the “ intent” doctrine.

5. Many states divide _____________ into two categories: voluntary and involuntary.

6. For the crime to be voluntary manslaughter, the crime must have resulted from a sufficient or adequate ___________.

7. The test of the adequacy of provocation in manslaughter cases is determined by how the average or ____________ person would react under those circumstances.

8. Imperfect self-defense can reduce a charge of murder to that of ___________.

9. Involuntary manslaughter and homicide do not require proof of intent to kill.

10. When a person participates in the death of another, the act may constitute the crime of murder or __________________.

CHAPTER 11

ASSAULT, BATTERY, AND OTHER CRIMES AGAINST THE PERSON

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In the case of assault, the aggravating factors are usually

use of a firearm

intent to commit a felony

use of a firearm or intent to commit a felony

none of these answers is correct

2. An assault made more serious by presence of a firearm or as part of intent to commit a felony is called

aggravated assault

battery

completed assault

assault

3. A battery that causes serious bodily injury or is committed with a deadly weapon is called

aggravated battery

assault

completed battery

battery

4. A defense in which the defendant claims the other party was the aggressor and the defendant acted in self-defense is known as the

aggressor defense

mutual combat defense

reasonable discipline of a child by a parent

necessary conduct defense

5. What is the name of an unlawful striking or offensive touching?

robbery

aggravated assault

battery

mayhem

6. Who of the following are required, by law, to report suspected child abuse?

doctors

teachers

nurses

all of these

7. An assault or battery can occur in a contact sport

if it is not consented to in writing

only if it constitutes a felony

if it is beyond the rules of the game

if the players differ in size

8. A defense to a charge of unwanted touching or physical contact could be that the touching was

offensive

accidental

belligerent

disorderly

9. Under the Model Penal Code, giving someone a fierce look with intent to frighten would

not amount to a crime

be a simple assault

constitute the crime of menacing

be a battery

10. The defense to an assault or battery charge that a fight occurred in which all the parties willingly engaged is known as the

aggressor defense

mutual combat defense

medical care defense

the jostling defense

11. On the federal level, which of the following crimes would constitute disablement of the normal functioning of a human body?

affray

jostling

mayhem

disorderly conduct

12. When seeking to avoid the defenses that the other party was the aggressor or that mutual combat occurred, police and prosecutors are likely to charge

disorderly conduct

lesser assault

public intoxication

misdemeanor assault

13. An assault or battery may be a felony offense

because of the seriousness of the victim’s injuries

because a dangerous or deadly weapon was used

because of the seriousness of the victim’s injuries, and because a

dangerous or deadly weapon was used

though not because of the seriousness of the victim’s injuries, nor because

a dangerous or deadly weapon was used.

14. If a victim is intentionally selected because of their race, religion, color, nationality, etc., the defendant may be charged criminally

with discrimination

with hate crime

abuse

with a violation of constitutional rights

15. Parents have a legal duty to provide their children with the following EXCEPT

education

reasonable physical environment

money

clothing

16. The amount of force that parents may reasonably use in controlling their children is determined in view of

community standards

the child’s age and sex

the child’s level of education

how the parents were raised

17. The crime of kidnapping involves unlawfully

moving a person

assaulting a person

battering a person

concealing a person

18. Because kidnapping requires the victim to be moved “some distance” or a “substantial distance,” some states have created the crime of

false imprisonment

abduction

involuntary servitude

hostage taking

19. All of the following are defenses to a charge of assault or battery except

that the other party consented within the rules of the sport being played

that it was reasonable discipline of a child by a parent

that the conduct was necessary and lawful

all of these are defenses to a charge of assault or battery

20. An individual who unlawfully restrains or detains another may be charged with

false imprisonment

kidnapping

involuntary servitude

none of the above

21. A false imprisonment aggravated by the movement of the victim to another place constitutes the crime of

false imprisonment

kidnapping

involuntary servitude

none of the above

22. The primary difference between the offenses of “kidnapping” and “hostage taking” is

one is a felony while the other is a misdemeanor

there is no difference, the offenses are identical

only kidnapping requires forcible movement of the victim

only hostage taking was a crime at common law

23. The use or threat of use of force to restrain or confine a person with the intent to use the person as a hostage to compel another person to perform some act is the definition of

hostage taking

kidnapping

battery

assault

24. In most states parental kidnapping

is a civil offense only

may be dealt with only as part of a pending divorce case

is a misdemeanor

is a felony

25. Under the federal Missing Children’s Assistance Act, parents of missing children

have access to the National Crime Information Center’s missing

person files

can file kidnapping charges against spouses who kidnap children

must be informed of all law enforcement efforts to find the child

may sue kidnappers for money damages

26. In 1996, Congress passed a law that forbids anyone convicted of which of the following crimes from possessing a firearm?

child abuse

elder abuse

affray

domestic violence

27. What crime is similar to kidnapping but does not require moving the victim a “substantial distance”?

hostage taking

interstate kidnapping

parental taking

hostage kidnapping

28. The FBI can enter parental kidnapping cases through the Fugitive Felon Act if which of the following conditions exist?

a state arrest warrant has been issued charging the parent with a felony violation

law enforcement officers have evidence of interstate flight

a specific request for FBI assistance must be made by state authorities, who agree to extradite and prosecute

all of these answers are correct

29. An assault conviction requires acts intended to cause

bodily injury, or instill fear of such injury

fear of bodily injury

bodily injury

none of these answers is correct

30. Virtually any kind of physical contact can constitute a

battery

assault

taking hostage

kidnapping

TRUE/FALSE

1. Hostage taking differs from kidnapping in that it lacks a “movement” element.

2. A person’s hands may be considered deadly or dangerous weapons.

3. Mandatory reporting laws have been enacted by all states to require doctors, nurses, teachers, day care workers, and other people coming in contact with children to report suspected child abuse.

4. In some jurisdictions, even a touching may be charged as a battery.

5. Hostage taking is false imprisonment coupled with movement of the victim.

6. Self-defense and necessity can be defenses to assault.

7. The common law definition of mayhem is the unlawful and violent depriving of the victim of full use of any functional member of the body.

8. Some action on the part of the offender is always required for a conviction of child abuse.

9. In all courts, movement of the victim from one room to another is sufficient movement to justify a kidnapping conviction.

10. Both kidnapping and false imprisonment require the victim to be moved from one place to another.

COMPLETION

1. Included in the crime of today are (1) an attempt to commit a battery in which no actual battery or physical injury resulted, and/or (2) an intentional frightening.

2. Assault made more serious by presence of a or as part of intent to commit a felony is aggravated assault.

3. In many states the crime of assault also includes .

4. A defendant may argue ___________ combat as a defense to an assault or battery.

5. The presence of one or more ___________ factors could result in an assault or battery being charged as a felony.

6. _______ is a common defense asserted in assault and battery charges.

7. The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that parents and people acting in the place of parents may use force __________ believed necessary for the child’s proper control, training, or education.

8. ____________ reportinglaws require people coming in contact with children to report suspected child abuse.

9. The offense of hostage taking may include all of the elements of kidnapping except __________ of the victim.

10. Child ___________ is the abduction of a child by one parent without the consent of the other parent.

#LEG 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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HSA 525 Week 6 Assignment 2 – Strayer NEW

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Assignment 2: Using Financial Ratios to Assess Organizational Performance

Due Week 6 and worth 240 points

Using the financial statements from your selected health care organization in Assignment 1, develop a financial plan for the next three (3) years.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

1. Suggest the financial ratio that most financial analysts would use to evaluate the financial condition of the company. Provide support for your rationale.

2. Speculate on the organization's ability to meet its financial obligations as they come due. Provide support for your rationale.

3. Based on your ratio analysis, determine whether the profitability trends are favorable or unfavorable and explain your rationale.

4. Using financial ratio analysis, predict whether or not the company will be viable in five (5) years based on its performance over the past three (3) years. Provide support for your prediction.

5. Use at least two (2) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

 Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

 Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.  The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

 Evaluate the financial statements and the financial position of health care institutions.

 Describe the overall planning process and the key components of the financial plan.

 Use technology and information resources to research issues in health financial management.

 Write clearly and concisely about health financial management using proper writing mechanics.

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HRM 532 Week 6 Assignment 3 – Strayer

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Assignment 3: Talent Management Strategy

Week 6 Assignment 3: "Talent Management Strategy" Envision an organization (profit, non-profit, product-or-service driven) with 200 people in which 20 are identified leaders. With this organization in mind, write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: 1. Formulate a talent management strategy to encompass the entire talent requirements of the organization. 2. Determine the key components of talent management, including identifying assessing, and developing talent. 3. Examine how the talent management process is a strategy for a competitive advantage for your organization. 4. Assess how the talent management strategy should change with the anticipation of the organization doubling in five to six (5-6) years. 5. Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

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Assignment 3: Dismissal Meeting

Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

Imagine that you are an office manager and you have been tasked with the job of coordinating and heading the dismissal meeting for an employee layoff.

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

1. Propose three (3) ways that a manager can cope with any negative emotions that may accompany an employee layoff.

2. Describe a step-by-step process of conducting the dismissal meeting.

3. Determine the compensation that the fictitious company may provide to the separated employee.

4. Using Microsoft Word or an equivalent such as OpenOffice, create a chart that depicts the timeline of the disbursement of the compensation.

Predict three (3) ways that this layoff may affect the company.

Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

· Formulate HRM strategies and policies to recruit, select, place, and retain the most efficient and effective workforce.

Develop effective talent management strategies to recruit and select employees.

· Design processes to manage employee performance, retention, and separation.

Analyze laws governing employment and how organizations can ensure ethical practices.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in strategic human resource development.

Write clearly and concisely about strategic human resource development using proper writing mechanics.

#HRM 530 Week 6 Assignment 3 – Strayer NEW

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HRM 500 Week 6 Discussion Questions

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Week 6 D1

From the e-Activity, suggest two applications for the psychological test that you researched in regard to employee preferences / tendencies and the communication, work style, and leadership of the people in a work group.

Week 6 D2

Assume you are the HR Director of a company, and you are involved with selecting the next CEO of that company. Examine two reasons why CEOs experience job insecurity. Determine two advantages to being the CEO of the company that you may use to persuade the candidate to accept the position.

#HRM 500 Week 6 Discussion Questions

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HRM 500 Assignment 2: Organizational Structure

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Due Week 6 and worth 300 points

To achieve high-quality performance, organizations have to match job requirements with people. A job analysis is used to acquire detailed information about jobs. In addition, the job analysis is critical in determining the selection of qualified candidates, the design of a job, staffing and training needs, performance appraisals, and compensation.

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

1. Analyze three (3) elements of a job analysis, and discuss its significance to the hiring and employee development aspects of human resource management.

2. Describe the importance of the position analysis and questionnaire (PAQ). Propose two (2) ways that the results of a PAQ can be used by human resource managers for work redesign of a customer service job to make it more efficient and to improve quality.

3. Develop two (2) strategies that a human resource professional can use in the selection of qualified applicants for a customer service position based on the Fleishman Job Analysis System.

4. Consider the job of a customer service representative who handles consumer inquiries for a company that sells items online and by catalog. Examine two (2) challenges of designing this job for efficiency. Propose two (2) suggestions for how the job can be redesigned to make it more efficient.

5. Propose three (3) ways the human resource manager can use the information obtained from a job analysis to measure the performance of the customer service representatives.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

#HRM 500 Assignment 2: Organizational Structure

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FIN 540 Week 6 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

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Week 6

Homework Problems Chapter 25 and 26

1. For markets to be in equilibrium (that is, for there to be no strong pressure for prices to depart

from their current levels),

a. The past realized rate of return must be equal to the expected rate of return; that is, .

b. The required rate of return must equal the realized rate of return; that is, r = .

c. All companies must pay dividends.

d. No companies can be in danger of declaring bankruptcy.

e. The expected rate of return must be equal to the required rate of return; that is, = r.

2. In a portfolio of three different stocks, which of the following could NOT be true?

a. The riskiness of the portfolio is greater than the riskiness of one or two of the stocks.

b. The beta of the portfolio is less than the betas of each of the individual stocks.

c. The beta of the portfolio is greater than the beta of one or two of the individual stocks'

betas.

d. The beta of the portfolio cannot be equal to 1.

e. The riskiness of the portfolio is less than the riskiness of each of the stocks if they were

held in isolation.

3. You have the following data on (1) the average annual returns of the market for the past 5 years

and (2) similar information on Stocks A and B. Which of the possible answers best describes the

historical betas for A and B?

Years Market Stock A Stock B

1 0.03 0.16 0.05

2 − 0.05 0.20 0.05

3 0.01 0.18 0.05

4 − 0.10 0.25 0.05

5 0.06 0.14 0.05

a. bA > +1; bB = 0.

b. bA = 0; bB = − 1.

c. bA < 0; bB = 0.

d. bA < -1; bB = 1.

e. bA > 0; bB = 1.

4. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.94 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is about 0.6.

b. The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.3 and the typical R2 for a large portfolio is about 0.94.

c. The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.94 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is also about

0.94.

d. The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.6 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is also about 0.6.

e. The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.3 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is also about 0.3.

other individual stocks so therefore the R. will be greater for a large portfolio

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The characteristic line is the regression line that results from plotting the returns on a

particular stock versus the returns on a stock from a different industry.

b. The slope of the characteristic line is the stock's standard deviation.

c. The distance of the plot points from the characteristic line is a measure of the stock's

market risk.

d. The distance of the plot points from the characteristic line is a measure of the stock's

diversifiable risk.

e. "Characteristic line" is another name for the Security Market Line.

Chapter 26

Week 6

1. Which of the following is NOT a real option?

a. The option to buy shares of stock if its price goes up.

b. The option to expand into a new geographic region.

c. The option to abandon a project.

d. The option to switch the type of fuel used in an industrial furnace.

e. The option to expand production if the product is successful.

2. Which of the following will NOT increase the value of a real option?

a. An increase in the volatility of the underlying source of risk.

b. An increase in the risk-free rate.

c. An increase in the cost of obtaining the real option.

d. A decrease in the probability that a competitor will enter the market of the project in

question.

e. Lengthening the time in which a real option must be exercised.

3. Which of the following is most CORRECT?

a. Real options change the risk, but not the size, of projects' expected cash flows.

b. Real options are likely to reduce the cost of capital that should be used to discount a

project's expected cash flows.

c. Very few projects actually have real options.

d. Real options are less valuable when there is a lot of uncertainty about the true values

future sales and costs.

e. Real options change the size, but not the risk, of projects' expected cash flows.

4. Ashgate Enterprises uses the NPV method for selecting projects, and it does a reasonably good

job of estimating projects' sales and costs. However, it never considers real options that might be

associated with projects. Which of the following statements is most likely to describe its situation?

a. Its estimated capital budget is probably too large due to its failure to consider

abandonment and growth options.

b. Failing to consider abandonment and flexibility options probably makes the optimal

capital budget too large, but failing to consider growth and timing options probably makes

the optimal capital budget too small, so it is unclear what impact not considering real

options has on the overall capital budget.

c. Failing to consider abandonment and flexibility options probably makes the optimal

capital budget too small, but failing to consider growth and timing options probably makes

the optimal capital budget too large, so it is unclear what impact not considering real

options has on the overall capital budget.

d. Real options should not have any effect on the size of the optimal capital budget.

e. Its estimated capital budget is probably too small, because projects' NPVs are often

larger when real options are taken into account.

5. Refer to Exhibit 26.1. Since the project is considered to be quite risky, a 20% cost of capital is

used. What is the project's expected NPV, in thousands of dollars?

a. $336.15

b. $373.50

c. $415.00

d. $461.11

e. $507.22

#FIN 540 Week 6 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

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FIN 534 Homework Set 3 – Strayer

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Goodman Industries Landry Incorporated Market Index

Year Stock Price Dividend Stock Price Dividend Includes Dividends

2013 $25.88 $1.73 $73.13 $4.50 17.49 5.97

2012 22.13 1.59 78.45 4.35 13.17 8.55

2011 24.75 1.50 73.13 4.13 13.01 9.97

2010 16.13 1.43 85.88 3.75 9.65 1.05

2009 17.06 1.35 90.00 3.38 8.40 3.42

2008 11.44 1.28 83.63 3.00 7.05 8.96

Directions: Answer the following questions on a separate document. Explain how you reached the answer or show your work if a mathematical calculation is needed, or both. Submit your assignment using the assignment link in the course shell. This homework assignment is worth 100 points.

Use the following information for questions 1 through 8:

The Goodman Industries’ and Landry Incorporated’s stock prices and dividends, along with the Market

Index, are shown below. Stock prices are reported for December 31 of each year, and dividends reflect those paid during the year. The market data are adjusted to include dividends.

1. Use the data given to calculate annual returns for Goodman, Landry, and the Market Index, and then calculate average annual returns for the two stocks and the index. (Hint: Remember, returns are calculated by subtracting the beginning price from the ending price to get the capital gain or loss, adding the dividend to the capital gain or loss, and then dividing the result by the beginning price. Assume that dividends are already included in the index. Also, you cannot calculate the rate of return for 2008 because you do not have 2007 data.)

2. Calculate the standard deviations of the returns for Goodman, Landry, and the Market Index. (Hint: Use the sample standard deviation formula given in the chapter, which corresponds to the STDEV function in Excel.)

3. Estimate Goodman’s and Landry’s betas as the slopes of regression lines with stock return on the vertical axis (y-axis) and market return on the horizontal axis (x-axis). (Hint: Use Excel’s SLOPE function.) Are these betas consistent with your graph?

4. The risk-free rate on long-term Treasury bonds is 6.04%. Assume that the market risk premium is 5%. What is the required return on the market using the SML equation?

5. If you formed a portfolio that consisted of 50% Goodman stock and 50% Landry stock, what would be its beta and its required return?

6. What dividends do you expect for Goodman Industries stock over the next 3 years if you expect you expect the dividend to grow at the rate of 5% per year for the next 3 years? In other words, calculate D1, D2, and D3. Note that D0 = $1.50.

7. Assume that Goodman Industries’ stock, currently trading at $27.05, has a required return of 13%. You will use this required return rate to discount dividends. Find the present value of the dividend stream; that is, calculate the PV of D1, D2, and D3, and then sum these PVs.

8. If you plan to buy the stock, hold it for 3 years, and then sell it for $27.05, what is the most you should pay for it?

Use the following information for Question 9:

Suppose now that the Goodman Industries (1) trades at a current stock price of $30 with a (2) strike price of $35. Given the following additional information: (3) time to expiration is 4 months, (4) annualized risk-free rate is 5%, and (5) variance of stock return is 0.25.

9. What is the price for a call option using the Black-Scholes Model?

#FIN 534 Homework Set 3 – Strayer

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FIN 350 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 5 Chapter 9 and 10

Chapter 9—Mortgage Markets

1. Mortgage-backed securities are commonly contained within collateralized debt obligations.

a. True

b. False

2. Federally insured mortgages guarantee

loan repayment to the lending financial institution.

that the interest rate will not increase during the life of the mortgage.

the lending financial institution a selling price for the mortgage in the secondary market.

all of the above

3. At a given point in time, the interest rate offered on a new fixed-rate mortgage is typically ____ the initial interest rate offered on a new adjustable-rate mortgage.

below

above

equal to

all of the above are very common

4. An institution that originates and holds a fixed-rate mortgage is adversely affected by ____ interest rates; the borrower who was provided the mortgage is adversely affected by ____ interest rates.

stable; decreasing

increasing; stable

increasing; decreasing

decreasing; increasing

5. Rates for adjustable-rate mortgages are commonly tied to the

average prime rate over the previous year.

Fed's discount rate over the previous year.

average Treasury bill rate over the previous year.

average Treasury bond rate over the previous year.

6. Caps on mortgage rate fluctuations with adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs) are typically

2 percent per year and 5 percent for the mortgage lifetime.

5 percent per year and 15 percent for the mortgage lifetime.

0 percent per year and 10 percent for the mortgage lifetime.

3 percent per year and 8 percent for the mortgage lifetime.

7. From the perspective of the lending financial institution, interest rate risk is

lower on a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage than on a 15-year fixed-rate mortgage.

lower on a 15-year fixed-rate mortgage than on a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage.

higher on a 15-year fixed-rate mortgage than on a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage.

higher on a 15-year adjustable-rate mortgage than on a 30-year adjustable-rate mortgage.

8. Mortgage companies specialize in

purchasing mortgages originated by other financial institutions.

investing and maintaining mortgages that they create.

originating mortgages and selling those mortgages.

borrowing money through the creation of mortgages that is used to invest in real estate.

9. For any given interest rate, the shorter the life of the mortgage, the ____ the monthly payment and the ____ the total payments over the life of the mortgage.

greater; greater

greater; lower

lower; greater

lower; lower

10. A financial institution has a higher degree of interest rate risk on a ____ than a ____.

30-year fixed-rate mortgage; 15-year fixed-rate mortgage

30-year variable-rate mortgage; 30-year fixed-rate mortgage

15-year fixed-rate mortgage; 30-year fixed-rate mortgage

15-year variable-rate mortgage; 15-year fixed-rate mortgage

11. A balloon-payment mortgage requires interest payments for a 10- to 20-year period, at the end of which the borrower must pay the full amount of the principal.

a. True

b. False

12. Use an amortization schedule. A 15-year $100,000 mortgage has a fixed mortgage rate of 9 percent. In the first month, the total mortgage payment is $____, and $____ of this amount represents payment of interest.

1,014; 264

1,241; 750

1,014; 750

none of the above

13. A mortgage that requires interest payments for a three- to five-year period, then full payment of principal, is a(n)

chattel mortgage.

balloon payment mortgage.

variable-rate mortgage.

open-ended mortgage bond.

14. In an amortization schedule of monthly mortgage payments

the amount of interest in each payment is equal to the principal paid.

interest payments exceed principal payments early on.

principal payments exceed interest payments early on.

B and C both occur with about equal frequency

15. A mortgage with low initial payments that increase over time without ever leveling off is a

graduated payment mortgage.

growing-equity mortgage.

second mortgage.

shared-appreciation mortgage.

16. The interest rate on a second mortgage is ____ on a first mortgage created at the same time, because the second mortgage is ____ the existing first mortgage in priority claim against the property in the event of default.

higher than; behind

equal to that; equal to

lower than; ahead of

higher than; ahead of

lower than; behind

17. Which of the following mortgages allows the home purchaser to obtain a mortgage at a below-market interest rate throughout the life of the mortgage?

second mortgage

growing-equity mortgage

graduated payment mortgage

shared-appreciation mortgage

18. A ____ mortgage allows the borrower to initially make small payments on the mortgage. The payments then increase over the first 5 to 10 years and then level off.

graduated payment mortgage

growing-equity mortgage

second mortgage

shared-appreciation mortgage

19. Mortgage companies, commercial banks and savings institutions are the primary originators of mortgages.

a. True

b. False

20. ____ was created in 1968 as a corporation that is wholly owned by the federal government. It guarantees payment on mortgages that meet specific criteria.

Freddie Mac

Ginnie Mae

Fannie Mae

None of the above

21. "Securitization" refers to the private insurance of conventional mortgages.

a. True

b. False

22. A financial institution may service a mortgage even after selling it.

a. True

b. False

23. The difference between the 30-year mortgages rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to

interest rate risk.

reinvestment rate risk.

credit risk.

insurance risk.

24. Mortgage prices would normally be expected to ____ when the interest rates ____, holding other factors constant.

increase; increase

decrease; decrease

increase; decrease

none of the above

25. Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are generally perceived to have

no prepayment risk but some default risk.

no prepayment risk and no default risk.

the same interest rate risk as money market securities.

a high degree of prepayment risk.

26. Mortgage prices are subject to

interest rate risk.

credit risk.

prepayment risk.

all of the above.

27. During a weak economy, the credit risk to a financial institution from investing in mortgage-backed securities representing subprime mortgages is ____ than that of mortgage-backed securities representing prime mortgages.

equal to

slightly less than

more than

substantially less than

28. ____ are backed by conventional mortgages.

Ginnie Mae mortgage-backed securities

Federal Reserve mortgage-backed securities

Private-label pass-through securities

Shared appreciation pass-through securities

29. Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?

the Federal Housing Administration (FHA)

the Veteran's Administration (VA)

the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)

all of the above are guarantors of federally insured mortgages

30. ____ economic growth will probably ____ the risk premium on mortgages and ____ the price of mortgages.

Strong; increase; decrease

Strong; increase; increase

Weak; decrease; increase

Weak; increase; increase

Weak; decrease; decrease

31. A ____ mortgage allows borrowers to initially make small payments on the mortgage, which are then increased on a graduated basis over the first five to ten years; payments then level off from there on.

balloon-payment

graduated-payment

shared-appreciation

growing-equity

none of the above

32. The adjustable-rate mortgage creates uncertainty for the ____ profit margin, but reduces the uncertainty for the ____.

originator's; borrower

borrower's; originator

government's; originator

none of the above

33. When financial institutions originate residential mortgages, the mortgage contract should not specify

whether the mortgage is federally insured.

the amount of the loan.

whether the interest rate is fixed or adjustable.

the maturity.

the mortgage contract should specify all of the above

34. Which of the following is not a common type of mortgage-backed security according to your text?

participation certificates (PCs)

collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)

balloon-payment mortgage certificates

private-label pass-through securities

all of the above are common types of mortgage pass-through securities

35. ____ risk is the risk that a borrower may prepay the mortgage in response to a decline in interest rates.

Interest rate

Credit

Prepayment

Reinvestment rate

36. Mortgage-backed securities are assigned ratings by:

rating agencies.

the Treasury.

the Fed.

the mortgage originator.

37. In a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO), mortgages are segmented into ____ (or classes).

balloon payments

caps

tranches

strips

38. The credit crisis is mostly attributed to the use of:

strict criteria applied by mortgage originators.

liberal criteria applied by mortgage originators.

very tough credit ratings applied to mortgages.

fixed-rate mortgages with long terms to maturity.

39. Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac experienced financial problems during the credit crisis because they:

were unwilling to finance new mortgages.

invested heavily in balloon mortgages.

invested only in prime mortgages that offered very low returns.

invested heavily in subprime mortgages.

40. ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.

Prime

Balloon

Amortized

Subprime

41. The secondary mortgage market that accommodates originators of mortgages who desire to sell their mortgages before maturity.

a. True

b. False

42. Regardless of what happens to market interest rates, most adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs) specify a maximum allowable fluctuation in the mortgage rate per year and over the mortgage life.

a. True

b. False

43. Some adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs) contain an option clause that allows mortgage holders to switch to a fixed-rate mortgage within a specified period.

a. True

b. False

44. Mortgage lenders normally charge a higher initial interest rate on adjustable-rate mortgages than on fixed-rate mortgages.

a. True

b. False

45. A balloon-payment mortgage requires interest payments for a three- to five-year period. At the end of this period, full payment of the principal (the balloon payment) is required.

a. True

b. False

46. During the early years of a mortgage, most of the monthly payment reflects principal.

a. True

b. False

47. Mortgages are rarely sold in the secondary market.

a. True

b. False

48. An increase in either the risk-free rate or the risk premium on a fixed-rate mortgage results in a higher required rate of return when investing in the mortgage and therefore causes mortgage prices to decrease.

a. True

b. False

49. Strong economic growth tends to reduce the probability that the issuer of a mortgage will default on its debt payments and therefore tends to decrease mortgage prices.

a. True

b. False

50. The higher the level of equity invested by the borrower, the higher the probability that the loan will default.

a. True

b. False

51. Borrowers who have a lower level of income relative to the periodic loan payments are more likely to default on their mortgages.

a. True

b. False

52. Non-U.S. financial institutions never hold mortgages on U.S. property.

a. True

b. False

53. The ____ market accommodates originators of mortgages that desire to sell their mortgages prior to maturity.

primary

secondary

money

none of the above

54. Financial institutions that hold fixed-rate mortgages in their asset portfolios are exposed to ____ risk, because they commonly use funds obtained from short-term customer deposits to make long-term mortgage loans.

exchange rate

prepayment

reinvestment rate

interest rate

exchange rate

55. From the perspective of the lending financial institution, there is a ____ degree of interest rate risk for ____-maturity mortgages.

higher; shorter

higher; longer

lower; shorter

lower; higher

Answers B and C are correct.

56. During the early years of a mortgage,

most of the monthly payment reflects principal reduction.

most of the monthly payment reflects interest.

about half of the monthly payment reflects interest.

Cannot answer without more information.

57. Which of the following will typically require homeowners to ultimately request a new mortgage?

graduated-payment mortgage (GPM)

growing-equity mortgage

balloon-payment mortgage

shared-appreciation mortgage

58. Which of the following is not true with respect to a growing-equity mortgage?

It is similar to a graduated-payment mortgage.

It allows borrowers to initially make small payments on the mortgage.

It involves increased payments, on a graduated basis, over the first five to ten years of the mortgage.

It involves payments that level off after the first five to ten years of the mortgage.

59. ____ economic growth will probably ____ the risk premium on mortgages and ____ the price of mortgages.

Strong; decrease; decrease

Strong; increase; increase

Weak; increase; increase

Weak; decrease; increase

Weak; decrease; decrease

60. The probability that a borrower will default (credit risk) is influenced by all of the following, except

economic conditions.

the level of equity invested by the borrower.

the borrower's income level.

the borrower's credit history.

Credit risk is affected by all of the above.

61. In a short sale of a home:

the lender forecloses and then sells the home for less than what is owed on the mortgage.

the lender allows the homeowner to sell the home for less than what is owed on the mortgage.

the lender does not recover the full amount of the mortgage.

B and C

A and C

62. An investor in interest-only collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) would not be concerned that homeowners will prepay the underlying mortgages.

a. True

b. False

63. The valuation of mortgage-backed securities is difficult because of limited

transparency.

a. True

b. False

64. A(n) _________ problem occurs when a person or institution does not have to bear the full consequence of its behavior and therefore assumes more risk than it otherwise would.

asymmetric information

oral hazard

risk adjustment

specific hazard

65. A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.

default insurance contract

default risk swap

credit default swap

collateralized debt obligation

66. Speculators sell credit default swaps to benefit from the default of specific subprime mortgages.

a. True

b. False

Chapter 10—Stock Offerings and Investor Monitoring

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A stock is a certificate representing partial ownership in a corporation.

Like debt securities, common stock is issued by firms to obtain funds.

Stocks are issued by corporations to raise short-term funds.

The secondary stock market enables investors to sell stocks that they had previously purchased.

2. Preferred shareholders

typically have the same voting rights as common shareholders.

do not share the ownership of the firm with common shareholders.

typically participate in the profits of the firm beyond the stated fixed annual dividend.

may not receive a dividend every year.

3. From a cost perspective, preferred stock is a less desirable source of capital for a firm than bonds.

a. True

b. False

4. A ____ requires that dividends cannot be paid on common stock until all current and previously omitted dividends are paid on preferred stock.

residual claim

preferred margin

cumulative provision

liquidation claim

5. Firms assume ____ risk when they issue preferred stock than when they issue bonds. The payment of dividends on preferred stock ____ be omitted without the firm being forced into bankruptcy.

more; can

less; can

more; cannot

less; cannot

6. When a corporation first decides to issue stock to the public, it engages in a(n)

secondary offering.

initial public offering.

seasoned equity offering.

none of the above

7. A firm can best avoid the time lag between registering new securities with the SEC and actually selling them by

use of proxy.

shelf-registration.

use of a margin call.

use of preemptive rights.

8. The process by which the lead underwriter solicits indications of interest by institutional investors in an IPO at various possible ____ prices is referred to as ____.

IPO; margin selling

offer; secondary market building

offer; bookbuilding

IPO; bookbuilding

9. To the extent that shares sold during an IPO are discounted from their appropriate price, the proceeds that the issuing firm receives from the IPO are less than it deserves.

a. True

b. False

10. The transaction costs to the issuing firm in an IPO is usually ____ percent of the funds raised.

11. If many investors quickly sell an IPO stock in the secondary market, there will be ____ on the stock's price.

upward pressure

downward pressure

no additional pressure

none of the above

12. The purpose of a lockup provision is to

keep individual investors from buying and selling stock.

prevent downward pressure on the stock's price.

increase the number of outstanding shares.

allocate a larger proportion of stock to institutional investors.

13. When the lockup period expires, the share price commonly

remains unchanged.

increases significantly.

decreases significantly.

none of the above

14. IPOs tend to occur more primarily during recessions.

a. True

b. False

15. The initial (one-day) return of IPOs in the United States has averaged about ____ percent over the last 30 years.

16. The practice of purchasing IPO stock at the offer price and selling the stock shortly afterward is called

flipping.

skiing.

flopping.

none of the above

17. ____ occurs when a securities firm allocates share from an IPO to corporate executives who may be considering an IPO or other business that will require the help of an investment bank.

Flipping

Spinning

Laddering

None of the above

18. When brokers encourage investors to place bids for IPO shares on the first day that are above the offer price this is referred to as

flipping.

spinning.

laddering.

none of the above

19. On average, IPOs of firms tend to perform ____ over a period of a year or longer.

well

poorly

about the same as the S&P 500 index

none of the above

20. A firm that wants to engage in a secondary stock offering does not need to file the offering with the SEC.

a. True

b. False

21. A firm will typically attempt to sell shares from a secondary offering

far below the prevailing market price.

far above the prevailing market price.

at the prevailing market price.

at the offer price of the IPO.

22. Buy and sell orders on the OTC market are completed by

auction on the trading floor.

sealed competitive bids.

noncompetitive bids.

a telecommunications network.

23. A(n) ____ is a certificate which represents ownership of a foreign stock.

ADR

SEAQ

Nasdaq

AMEX

24. The first-time issuance of shares by a specific firm to the public is referred to as a(n)

stock repurchase.

secondary stock offering.

initial rights issue.

initial public offering (IPO).

25. A new stock issuance by a specific firm that already has stock outstanding is referred to as a(n)

stock repurchase.

secondary stock offering.

initial rights issue.

initial public offering (IPO).

26. Managers of firms may consider a stock repurchase or even a leveraged buyout when they believe their stock is ____ by the market, or a secondary stock offering when they believe their stock is ____ by the market.

undervalued; undervalued

overvalued; overvalued

undervalued; overvalued

overvalued; undervalued

none of the above

27. The largest organized exchange, listing the largest firms, is the

New York Stock Exchange.

American Stock Exchange.

Midwest Stock Exchange.

Pacific Stock Exchange.

28. ____ are employed by brokerage firms and execute orders for clients on the floor of the NYSE.

Specialists

Commission brokers

Independent brokers

Dealers

29. The OTC market does not have a trading floor.

a. True

b. False

30. Firms listed as "pink sheets" on the OTC market

are typically very large.

satisfy Nasdaq's listing requirements.

are typically owned by various institutional and individual investors.

none of the above

31. The prevailing price per share divided by the firm's earnings per share is known as the

dividend yield.

price-earnings ratio.

fully diluted earnings per share.

annual dividend.

32. The ____ is a value-weighted average of stock prices of 30 large U.S. firms.

Dow Jones Industrial Average

Standard and Poor's 500

New York Stock Exchange Index

Nasdaq

33. The ____ is a value-weighted index of stock prices of 500 large U.S. firms.

Dow Jones Industrial Average

Standard and Poor's 500

New York Stock Exchange Index

Nasdaq

34. Sudden favorable news about the performance of a firm will make investors believe that the firm's stock is ____ at its prevailing price.

overvalued

fixed

appropriate

undervalued

35. Analysts periodically communicate with high-level managers of the firms whose stock they rate.

a. True

b. False

36. Shareholders can most easily measure a firm's performance by monitoring changes in its ____ over time.

share price

employee job descriptions

board of directors

asset size

37. Which of the following is not true regarding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

It attempts to force accountants to conform to regular accounting standards in preparing a firm's financial statements.

It requires that only outside board members of a firm be on the firm's audit committee.

It allows public accounting firms to offer nonaudit consulting services to an audit client whether the client's audit committee pre-approves the nonaudit services or not.

It prevents members of a firm's audit committee from receiving consulting of advising fees or other compensation from the firm beyond that earned from serving on the board.

38. An example of shareholder activism is

communication with the firm.

engaging in a proxy contest.

filing a lawsuit against the board.

all of the above

39. ____ are acquisitions that require substantial amounts of borrowed funds.

Stock repurchases

Corporate controls

Leveraged buyouts

Stock splits

40. ____ are not barriers to corporate control to eliminate agency problems.

Leveraged buyouts

Antitakeover amendments

Poison pills

Golden parachutes

41. Listing stock on a foreign stock exchange

enhances the stock's liquidity.

may increase the firm's perceived financial standing.

may protect a firm against hostile takeovers.

all of the above

42. American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are similar to

stock options.

bank deposits.

stocks.

bonds.

43. ____ are portfolios of international stocks created and managed by various financial institutions.

International mutual funds

American Depository Receipts

Exchange rate options

Initial Public Offerings

44. ____ sell shares to investors and use the proceeds to invest in portfolios of international stocks created and managed by portfolio managers.

International mutual funds

American Depository Receipts

World Equity Depository Receipts

Initial Public Depository Receipts

45. When a firm buys some of its shares that it had previously issued, this is referred to as a:

reverse IPO.

leveraged buyout.

ladder spin.

stock repurchase.

46. Whenever _____, the stock price will be driven up.

supply exceeds demand

demand exceeds supply

demand is reduced

none of the above

47. Which of the following is not a form of shareholder activism?

investors communicating their concerns to other investors in an effort to place more pressure on the firm's managers or its board members

poison pills

shareholder lawsuits

all of the above

48. Initial public offerings (IPOs) tend to occur more frequently during bearish (weak) stock markets.

a. True

b. False

49. Initial public offerings (IPOs) perform ____ on the day following the IPO and ____ for periods of a year or longer after the IPO.

well; poorly

poorly; well

well; well

poorly; poorly

50. Which of the following is not a part of the over-the-counter market?

the Nasdaq National Market

the Nasdaq Small Cap Market

the OTC Bulletin Board

the New York Stock Exchange

51. A firm has a current stock price of $15.32. The firm's annual dividend is $1.14 per share. The firm's dividend yield is

.74 percent.

1.34 percent.

7.44 percent.

1.14 percent.

52. If the secondary market is inactive, then the shares would be illiquid.

a. True

b. False

53. Private firms that need a large equity investment but are not yet in a position to go public may attempt to obtain funding from a venture capital (VC) fund.

a. True

b. False

54. Venture capital (VC) funds receive money from wealth investors and from pension funds that need to receive their money back in one year or less.

a. True

b. False

55. Venture capital (VC) funds commonly serve as advisors to the businesses in which they invest.

a. True

b. False

56. Venture capital (VC) funds usually invest in publicly-traded businesses.

a. True

b. False

57. Venture capital (VC) funds typically plan to exit from their original investment within a period of about one year.

a. True

b. False

58. The phrase "leaving money on the table" refers to investors who pay more for a stock in the secondary market than was paid by those investors who were able to buy shares at the initial (offer) price on the IPO date.

a. True

b. False

59. Underwriters sell most or all of the shares of an IPO to institutional investors.

a. True

b. False

60. The total cost of engaging in an IPO is usually about 1 percent of the total proceeds.

a. True

b. False

61. Since the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the initial returns resulting from an IPO have generally been smaller.

a. True

b. False

62. In general, secondary offerings cause an immediate increase in the market price of the stock.

a. True

b. False

63. Electronic stock exchanges that execute stock transactions electronically are referred to as electronic communications networks (ECNs).

a. True

b. False

64. As a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, firms were able to reduce their costs of compiling and reporting financial information.

a. True

b. False

65. As a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, there was a reduced likelihood of fraudulent financial reporting by firms.

a. True

b. False

66. The legal protection of shareholders varies substantially among countries.

a. True

b. False

67. Common law countries such as the U.S., Canada, and the United Kingdom allow for more legal protection than civil law countries such as France or Italy.

a. True

b. False

68. The government enforcement of securities laws varies among countries.

a. True

b. False

69. The laws of the financial information that must be provided by public companies is similar among all developed countries.

a. True

b. False

70. Electronic communications networks (ECNs) are passive funds that track a specific index.

a. True

b. False

71. A venture capital fund typically plans to exit from its original investment within about four to seven years.

a. True

b. False

72. Venture capital funds typically take over businesses and manage them.

a. True

b. False

73. Normally, only the owners of preferred stock are permitted to vote on certain key matters concerning the firm, such as the election of the board of directors.

a. True

b. False

74. If investors become dissatisfied with a firm's performance, they can compete with management in soliciting proxy votes in what is known as a proxy fight.

a. True

b. False

75. Initial public offerings (IPOs) tend to occur more frequently during bullish stock markets.

a. True

b. False

76. According to financial research, there is evidence that the stock price associated with an IPO typically rises on the first day but then declines over time.

a. True

b. False

77. Shelf-registration allows firms quick access to funds without repeatedly being slowed by the registration process.

a. True

b. False

78. In addition to the Nasdaq market, the OTC market has another segment known as "pink sheets," where smaller stocks are traded.

a. True

b. False

79. The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is a value-weighted average of stock prices of 30 large U.S. firms.

a. True

b. False

80. Research studies have found that the share prices of target firms and of acquiring firms react very positively to announcements of an acquisition.

a. True

b. False

81. If managers believe that their firm's stock price is weak because it is undervalued by the market, they may consider repurchasing a portion of the shares that are outstanding.

a. True

b. False

82. International exchange-traded funds (ETFs) represent international indexes that reflect composites of stocks for particular countries; shares of the index can be purchased or sold, thereby allowing investors to invest directly in a stock index representing any one of several countries.

a. True

b. False

83. Which of the following is not true with respect to venture capital (VC) funds?

When a VC fund decides to invest in a business, it will negotiate the terms of its investment, including the amount of funds it is willing to invest.

One common exit strategy for VC funds is to sell its equity stake to the public before the business engages in a public stock offering.

VC funds receive money from wealthy investors and from pension funds that are willing to maintain the investment for a long-term period.

All of the above are true with respect to VC funds.

84. Assume a firm that is valued at $800 million with 6 million shares of stock outstanding. This firm's stock should have a price of $____ per share.

6.00

80.00

133.33

none of the above

85. The owners of common stock are permitted to vote on the

election of the board of directors.

authorization to issue new shares of common stock.

approval of amendments to the corporate charter.

adoption of bylaws.

all of the above

86. Which of the following is not true with respect to preferred stock?

Preferred stock usually does not allow for significant voting rights.

If the firm does not have sufficient earnings from which to pay the preferred stock dividends, the preferred shareholders may force the firm into bankruptcy.

Normally, the owners of preferred stock do not participate in the profits of the firm beyond the stated fixed annual dividend.

Payment of preferred dividends is not a tax-deductible expense.

All of the above are true.

87. Which of the following is false with respect to initial public offerings (IPOs)?

IPOs are first-time offerings of shares by a specific firm to the public.

Normally, a firm planning an IPO will hire a securities firm to recommend the amount of stock to issue and the asking price for the stock.

Owners of firms that engage in IPOs are normally required to retain their shares for at least 3 years before selling them in the secondary market.

IPOs are typically intended to raise funds so the corporation can expand.

88. To discourage flipping, some securities firms make ____ shares of future IPOs available to institutional investors that retain shares for a ____ period of time.

fewer; long

more; short

more; long

Answers A and B are correct.

89. There is strong evidence that IPOs of firms perform ____ on average over a period of a year or longer.

well

poorly

very well relative to other firms in their industry

none of the above

90. Firms are more willing to issue new stock in a secondary stock offering when the market price of their outstanding shares is relatively

high.

low.

either high or low, depending on the overall market.

none of the above

91. "Pink sheets" are traded on the

New York Stock Exchange.

American Stock Exchange.

over-the-counter market.

Nasdaq market.

92. The annual dividend on Grozky, Inc. stock is $5 per share and the stock's prevailing price is $93.13 per share. Thus, the stock's dividend yield is ____ percent.

18.63

5.37

8.81

none of the above

93. Which of the following is not a provision specified in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

It requires that only inside board members of a firm be on the firm's audit committee.

It prevents the members of a firm's audit committee from receiving consulting or advising fees or other compensation from the firm beyond that earned from serving on the board.

It requires that the CEO and CFO of firms that are of at least a specified size certify the audited financial statements are accurate.

It allows public accounting firms to offer nonaudit consulting services to an audit client only if the client's audit committee pre-approves the nonaudit services to be rendered before the audit begins.

94. Which of the following is not a form of shareholder activism?

proxy contests

antitakeover amendments

shareholder lawsuits

all of the above are forms of shareholder activism

95. Which of the following is not a barrier to corporate control?

antitakeover amendments

proxy contests

poison pills

golden parachutes

all of the above are barriers to corporate control

96. Possible disadvantages of private stock exchanges to investors include:

only large institutional investors may purchase shares in privately listed stocks

required disclosures may be less than those required when a firm goes public.

trading volume is limited.

B and C

97. After an IPO, firms commonly list their shares on a private stock exchange.

a. True

b. False

98. Managers protected by golden parachutes may be more willing to make decisions that increase the company’s earnings in the long run, even though the decisions adversely affect the stock price in the short run.

a. True

b. False

99. A firm whose stock price has risen:

will not have to pay a premium if it acquires another firm.

has an incentive to use its stock as currency to acquire the shares of a target firm.

is likely to be a candidate for a leveraged buyout.

is likely to repurchase some of its shares.

100. Most individual investors attend road shows of firms that are about to go public before they purchase shares at the time of an IPO.

a. True

b. False

101. When a corporation makes a secondary offering, it may direct sales of the stock to its existing shareholders by giving them:

preemptive rights.

limit orders.

subscription rights.

presumptive rights.

102. When a firm goes public and issues stock in the primary market:

the equity investment in the firm declines.

the firm’s debt level increases.

the number of the firm’s owners increases.

A and C

#FIN 350 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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FIN 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 4 Chapter 9 and 10

Chapter 9: ___________________________________________________________________________

Testing many different trading rules until you find one that would have worked in the past is called _______.

data mining

perceived patterning

pattern searching

behavioral analysis

Models of financial markets that emphasize psychological factors affecting investor behavior are called _______.

data mining

fundamental analysis

charting

behavioral finance

The trin statistic is a ______ indicator.

sentiment

flow of funds

market structure

fundamental

The put/call ratio is a ______ indicator.

sentiment

flow of funds

market structure

fundamental

Relative strength is ______ indicator.

a fundamental

an economic

a technical

an international

Short interest is a ______ indicator.

sentiment

flow of funds

market structure

fundamental

Moving averages are ______ indicators.

sentiment

flow of funds

trend

fundamental

Market breadth is a ______ indicator.

sentiment

flow of funds

technical

fundamental

The cumulative tally of the number of advancing stocks minus declining stocks is called the ______________.

market breadth

market volume

trin ratio

relative strength ratio

10.

A high amount of short interest is typically considered as a __________ signal, and contrarians may consider it as a _________ signal.

bearish; bullish

bullish; bearish

bearish; false

bullish; false

11.

Technical analysis focuses on _____________________.

finding opportunities for risk-free investing

finding repeating trends and patterns in prices

changing prospects for earnings growth of particular firms or industries

forecasting technical regulatory changes

12.

Behavioralists point out that even if market prices are ____________, there may be _______________.

distorted; limited arbitrage opportunities

distorted; fundamental efficiency

allocationally efficient; limitless arbitrage opportunities

distorted; allocational efficiency

13.

According to market technicians, it is time to sell stock in a head-and-shoulders formation when ___________.

the price index pierces the left shoulder

the price index pierces the right shoulder

the price index pierces the head

none of these options takes place

14.

When a stock price breaks through the moving average from below, this is considered to be ______.

the starting point for a new moving average

a bearish signal

a bullish signal

none of these options

15.

When the stock price falls below a moving average, a possible conclusion is that _____.

market momentum has become positive

market momentum has become negative

there is no regular pattern for this stock's market momentum

professional analysts' opinions are invalid until the stock price rises again

16.

Following a period of falling prices, the moving average will _____.

be below the current price

be above the current price

be equal to the current price

become more volatile than it had been before prices fell

17.

A moving average of stock prices _________________.

always lies above the most recent price

always lies below the most recent price

is less volatile than the actual prices

is more volatile than the actual prices

18.

When the housing bubble burst in 2007, it set off the worst financial crisis _____.

in 25 years.

in 40 years.

in 50 years.

in 75 years.

19.

A support level is ___________________.

a level beyond which the market is unlikely to rise

a level below which the market is unlikely to fall

an equilibrium price level justified by characteristics such as earnings and cash flows

the peak of a market wave or cycle

20.

According to Kondratieff, the macro economy moves in a series of waves that recur at intervals of approximately _________________.

18 months

4 years

8 years

50 years

21.

According to Elliot's wave theory, stock market behavior can be explained as _________________.

a series of medium-term wave cycles with no short-term trend

a series of long-term wave cycles with no short-term trend

a series of superimposed long-term and short-term wave cycles

sine and cosine functions

22.

Conventional finance theory assumes investors are _______, and behavioral finance assumes investors are _______.

rational; irrational

irrational; rational

greedy; philanthropic

philanthropic; greedy

23.

The only way for behavioral patterns to persist in prices is if ______________.

markets are not weak-form efficient

there are limits to arbitrage activity

there are no significant trading costs

market psychology is inconsistent over time

24.

In the context of a point and figure chart, a horizontal band of Xs and Os is a _____________.

buy signal

sell signal

congestion area

trend reversal

25.

Even though indexing is growing in popularity, only about _____ of equity in the mutual fund industry is held in indexed funds. This may be a sign that investors and managers __________.

5%; are excessively conservative

15%; overestimate their ability

20%; suffer from framing biases

25%; engage in mental accounting

26.

If investors are too slow to update their beliefs about a stock's future performance when new evidence arises, they are exhibiting _______.

representativeness bias

framing error

conservatism

memory bias

27.

If investors overweight recent performance in forecasting the future, they are exhibiting _______.

representativeness bias

framing error

memory bias

overconfidence

28.

Trading activity and average returns in brokerage accounts tend to be _________.

uncorrelated

negatively correlated

positively correlated

positively correlated for women and negatively correlated for men

29.

Your two best friends each tell you about a person they know who successfully started a small business. That's it, you decide; if they can do it, so can you. This is an example of _____________.

mental accounting

framing bias

conservatism

representativeness bias

30.

Which of the following is not a sentiment indicator?

Confidence index

Short interest

Odd-lot trading

Put/call ratio

31.

Which of the following is considered a sentiment indicator?

A 200-day moving average

Short interest

Credit balances in brokerage accounts

Relative strength

32.

An investor holds a very conservative portfolio invested for retirement, but she takes some extra cash she earned from her year-end bonus and buys gold futures. She appears to be engaging in ___________.

overconfidence

representativeness

forecast errors

mental accounting

33.

Which of the following analysts focus more on past price movements of a firm's stock than on the underlying determinants of its future profitability?

Credit analysts

Fundamental analysts

Systems analysts

Technical analysts

34.

A trin ratio of greater than 1 is considered a __________.

bearish signal

bullish signal

bearish signal by some technical analysts and a bullish signal by other technical analysts

trend reversal signal

35.

Contrarian investors consider a high put/call ratio a __________.

bearish signal

bullish signal

trend confirmation signal

signal to enter the options market

36.

The ratio of the average yield on 10 top-rated corporate bonds to the average yield on 10 intermediate-grade bonds is called the __________.

bond price index

confidence index

relative strength index

trin ratio

37.

An investor needs cash to pay some hospital bills. He is willing to use his dividend income to pay the bills, but he will not sell any stock to do so. He is engaging in ___________.

overconfidence

representativeness

forecast errors

mental accounting

38.

Bill and Shelly are friends. Bill invests in a portfolio of hot stocks that almost all his friends are invested in. Shelly invests in a portfolio that is totally different from the portfolios of all her friends. Both Bill's and Shelly's stocks fall 15%. According to regret theory, _________________________________________.

Bill will have more regret over the loss than Shelly

Shelly will have more regret over the loss than Bill

Bill and Shelly will have equal regret over their losses

Bill's and Shelly's risk aversion will increase in the future

39.

The most common measure of __________ is the spread between the number of stocks that advance in price and the number of stocks that decline in price.

market breadth

market volume

odd-lot trading

short interest

40.

Jill is offered a choice between receiving $50 with certainty or possibly receiving the proceeds from a gamble. In the gamble a fair coin is tossed, and if it comes up heads, Jill will receive $100; if the coin comes up tails, she will receive nothing. Jill chooses the $50 instead of the gamble. Jill's behavior indicates __________________.

regret avoidance

overconfidence

that she has a diminishing marginal utility of wealth

prospect theory loss aversion

41.

When the market breaks through the moving average line from below, a technical analyst would probably suggest that it is a good time to ___________.

buy the stock

hold the stock

sell the stock

short the stock

42.

If you believed in the reversal effect, you should __________.

buy bonds this period if you held stocks last period

buy stocks this period that performed poorly last period

buy stocks this period that performed well last period

do nothing if you held the stock last period

43.

According to technical analysts, a shift in market fundamentals will __________.

be reflected in stock prices immediately

lead to a gradual price change that can be recognized as a trend

lead to high volatility in stock market prices

leave prices unchanged

44.

According to market technicians, a trin statistic of less than 1 is considered a __________.

bearish signal

bullish signal

volume decline

signal reversal

45.

It is difficult to test the Kondratieff wave theory because _________.

it applies to only Russian stocks

its main proponent found contrary research results

only two independent data points are generated each century

the stock market is too volatile to generate smooth waves

46.

A _________ is a value above which it is difficult for the market to rise.

book value

resistance level

support level

confidence level

#FIN 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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