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MKT 475 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 2 Chapter 2 and 3

Chapter 02

Markets and Competitive Space

True/False Questions 

1. When modularization occurs, products become commodities. 

2. The influence of competing brands becomes weaker with closer substitutability and more direct competition.

3. The product-variant product-market structure includes a broad group of products that satisfy a general, yet similar, need.

4. Customer function considers the role or purpose of the good or service.

5. It is important to focus on the distributor of a product when defining the market, since the distributor drives demand for the product.

6. The value chain analysis considers the vertical network of firms involved in production.

7. A new competitor entering a market is likely to come from companies competing in other geographical regions with similar products.

8. Sales forecasts, typically, fall short of market potential.

9. In the initial stage of competition, the competitors concentrate on market share for end products and profits.

10. In the final phase of competition, companies involve in partnering with the objective of controlling industry standards.

Multiple Choice Questions 

11. _____ refers to firms using simpler and less costly ways to match the value requirements offered by the products of incumbent firms serving the market. A. Modularization B. Commoditization of product designs C. Disruptive innovation D. Creating new market space

12. _____ changes products into commodities, making it difficult for companies to earn anything more than subsistence returns from those products. A. Disruptive innovation B. Modularization C. Cannibalization D. Segmentation

13. The purpose of _____ is to target new opportunities where buyers' value requirements are not being satisfied by existing products.  A. disruptive innovation B. commoditization of products C. benchmarking D. creating new market space

14. The _____ product-market includes a broad group of products that satisfy a larger common need.

A. generic B. product-type C. product-variant D. larger-type

15. Which of the following is the first step in defining and analyzing product-markets?

A. Forecasting market size

B. Determining the boundaries of the market

C. Analyzing competition

D. Predicting rate of change of the market

16. Which of the following is the second step in analyzing product-markets?  A. Analyze competition B. Form the product-market C. Forecast market size and rate of change D. Analyze end users

17. Which of the following is the final step in analyzing the competition?

A. Anticipating actions by competitors

B. Evaluating key competitors

C. Identifying and evaluating potential competitors

D. Identifying key competitors

18. Which of the following is the most direct type of competition?

A. Budget competition

B. Generic competition

C. Product-category competition

D. Product-variant competition

19. _____ analysis is horizontal and only covers similar types of firms and operating practices of the firms.  A. Value chain B. Industry C. Market segmentation D. Customer profile

20. According to Porter’s five competitive forces, _____ recognizes that active competition among industry members helps determine industry performance and it is the most direct and intense form of competition.  A. rivalry among existing firms B. threat of new entrants C. threat of substitute products D. bargaining power of suppliers

21. If critical inputs are in jeopardy or prices of those inputs are extraordinarily high, companies may pursue vertical integration strategies or develop collaborative relationships to reduce the:

A. rivalry among existing firms. B. bargaining power of buyers. C. threat of substitute products. D. bargaining power of suppliers.

22. _____ is measured by comparing the share of the firm against the competitor with the highest market share in the segment.

A. Market segmentation

B. Relative market position

C. Product differentiation

D. Customer segment

23. Market entry by a new competitor is likely under which of the following conditions?

A. When markets have matured and growth is slow

B. When major market-entry barriers are present

C. When competition is limited to one or a few competitors

D. When market incumbents’ profit margins have declined

24. _____ is the maximum amount of product sales that can be obtained from a defined product-market during a specified time period.

A. Market potential

B. Sales forecast

C. Market share

D. Modularization

25. Which of the following is a major source for new competitors?

A. Companies already targeting similar customer groups with other products.

B. Companies competing in the same regions with different products.

C. Companies competing in a different product-market.

D. Companies with advanced unrelated technologies.

26. _____ is the upper limit of sales that can be achieved by all firms for a specified product-market over an indicated time period.

A. Market potential

B. Market share

C. Differential pressure

D. Absolute threshold

27. _____ refers to the expected sales for a defined product-market during a specified time period.

A. Market potential

B. Sales forecast

C. Market share

D. Modularization

28. Company sales divided by the total sales of all firms for a specified product-market determines the _____ of a particular firm.

A. market potential

B. absolute threshold

C. relative market position

D. market share

29. Which of the following is an advantage of using the time-series analysis in sales forecasting?

A. It utilizes historical data when forecasting.

B. It consumes the least amount of time in forecasting.

C. It is a very subjective type of analysis.

D. It is most effective when forecasting new or innovative products.

30. Which of the following is the final phase of competition?

A. Partnering of companies with the objective of controlling industry standards

B. Companies competing in identifying product concepts

C. Competitors concentrating on market share for end products and profits

D. Firms focusing on building competencies

Essay Questions 

31. Explain the competitive box. Why is there a need for strategic thinkers to “think outside the competitive box”?

32. Discuss the differences between a generic product-market and a product-type product-market.

33. Identify the three guidelines for defining a product-market.

34. Explain how buyers make choices in products and brands.

35. Identify Porter's five competitive forces that impact industry performance.

Chapter 03

Strategic Market Segmentation

True/False Questions 

1. Market segmentation involves choosing market targets and positioning against alternatives to build competitive advantage.  

2. Strategic segmentation is concerned with consumer lifestyles and the benefits that different types of consumers seek in choosing and purchasing consumer electronics.

3. Operational segmentation issues are concerned with delivering relevant messages to targets, and supporting the segmentation strategy at store level.

4. The term “market niche” refers to the largest segment of buyers in a specific market.

5. Market targeting consists of selecting one or more segments whose value requirements provide a good match with the organization’s capabilities.

6. Segmentation is employed by first choosing a segment randomly.

7. Market segmentation lays the groundwork for market targeting and positioning strategies.

8. The use situation variables describe brand-use and consumption.

9. Demographics are often more useful to describe consumer segments after they have been formed rather than to identify them.

10. Market concentration determines the extent to which the supplier must tailor the product to each organizational buyer.

Multiple Choice Questions 

11. The differences in buyers according to how they use products, the needs and preferences that the products satisfy, and their consumption patterns create market _____.  A. segments B. futures C. shares D. structures

12. _____ is the process of identifying and analyzing sub-groups of buyers in a product-market with similar response characteristics.  A. Flighting B. Benchmarking C. Market segmentation D. Product differentiation

13. _____segmentation links to the management vision and crucial intent of corporate action plan, and emphasizes product benefits that different types of buyers seek.  A. Managerial B. Strategic C. Operational D. Advertising-oriented

14. _____ segmentation is concerned with allocating resources around segment targets, including them in marketing plans, and aligning organizational processes around them.  A. Strategic B. Network C. Operational D. Managerial

15. _____ issues are concerned with the marketing program changes needed to reach segment targets with advertising, promotions, and distribution systems. A. Strategic segmentation B. Managerial segmentation C. Operational segmentation D. Audience management

16. _____ consists of evaluating and selecting one or more segments whose value requirements provide a good match with the organization's capabilities.  A. Strategic segmentation B. Managerial segmentation C. Audience management D. Market targeting

17. _____ variables consider how the buyer utilizes the product, such as purchasing a meal away from home for the purpose of entertainment.

A. Use situation

B. Buyers’ needs and preferences

C. Demographic

D. Purchase-behavior

18. Which of the following segmentation variables include brand awareness?

A. Use situation variables

B. Buyers’ needs and preferences variables

C. Demographic variables

D. Purchase-behavior variables

19. Which of the following segmentation variables describe brand-use and consumption?

A. Use situation variables

B. Buyers’ needs and preferences variables

C. Demographic variables

D. Purchase-behavior variables

20. The ______ variables divide a market into segments according to the buyers’ age, income, education, and other such characteristics.  A. use situation B. buyers’ needs and preferences C. demographic  D. purchase-behavior

21. ______ include attitudes and brand awareness.  A. Use situation variables B. Buyers’ needs and preferences variables C. Demographic variables D. Purchase-behavior variables

22. Which of the following is a use situation variable?

A. Lifestyle of buyers

B. Brand loyalty status

C. Prior experience with product

D. Frequency of purchase

23. Which of the following is a segmentation variable measuring buyers’ needs and preferences?

A. Quality of the product

B. Importance of purchase

C. Geographic location of buyers

D. Size of purchase

24. _____ occurs when two competing goods are seen as varying on any physical or nonphysical characteristics, including price.  A. Benchmarking B. Flighting C. Lifestyle segmentation D. Product differentiation

25. Which of the following types of segmentations of customer groups would be characterized as a response difference?

A. Frequency of purchase

B. Income

C. Industrial sector

D. Age

26. _____ see global brands as quality products and accept the cultural symbols they provide, and are less concerned with social responsibility issues.

A. Global dreamers

B. Antiglobals

C. Global citizens

D. Global agnostics

27. Which of the following segment of consumers do not base purchase decisions on a brand’s global attributes, and judge them on the same criteria they use for local brands?

A. Global Citizens

B. Global Dreamers

C. Antiglobals

D. Global Agnostics

28. _____ groups people according to the similarity of their answers to questions such as brand preferences or product attributes.

A. Perceptual maps

B. Cluster analysis

C. Linear discriminant analysis

D. Factor analysis

29. Which of the following forms of segmentation seeks to identify narrowly defined segments using one or more of the segmentation variables?

A. Mass customization

B. Variety-seeking strategy

C. Microsegmentation

D. Specialized division

30. The _____ strategy follows the logic that buyers who are offered alternatives may increase their total purchases of a brand.

A. variety-seeking

B. mass customization

C. microsegmentation

D. macrosegmentation

Essay Questions 

31. Explain the goal of strategic marketing segmentation.

32. What is market segmentation?

33. Explain target marketing.

34. Explain the activities and decisions in market segmentation.

35. List the segmentation variables.

#MKT 475 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

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MGT 500 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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Assignment 1: Starbucks’ Strategy

Due Week 3 and worth 280 points

Using the Internet and Strayer University databases, research Starbucks’ organizational culture and the key leadership and management traits used to execute the business strategy.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

Suggest the key elements of Starbucks’ organizational culture that contributes to its success in a global economy. Indicate management’s role with creating and sustaining the organizational culture.

Assess the effectiveness of Starbucks’ management decisions in providing innovative offerings for its customers (e.g., WiFi, style of coffee, etc.) in order to achieve its current competitive marketplace advantage. Provide support for your rationale.

Determine one (1) key management competency that a successful manager at Starbucks is likely to have. Indicate one (1) way in which this particular competency is a good fit for the organizational culture.

Evaluate Starbucks’ ability to achieve long-term sustainability as a global leader in the coffee industry without the organization’s CEO, Howard Shultz.

Use at least two (2) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Examine the concepts of management related to modern-day work environments.

Analyze the corporate environment, culture, and challenges for managing in a global environment.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in modern management.

Write clearly and concisely about modern management using proper writing mechanics.

#MGT 500 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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LEG 505 Assignment 1: Code of Conduct Assessment - Strayer

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Due Week 3 and worth 150 points

Refer the following resources to complete this assignment: Note: The assignments are a series of papers that build upon one another.

Raytheon’s code of conduct (http://www.raytheon.com/responsibility/rtnwcm/groups/public/documents/content/rtn_ethics- code.pdf)

Examples of Procurement Fraud (http://cporising.com/2012/08/03/examples-of-procurement-fraud/)  The recent emphasis on ethics in government contracting requires contractors to avoid any conduct that even appears to be unethical. Imagine you are a former contracting officer (CO) turned contractor (you choose your area of expertise) and you just created a new contracting firm.  Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

1. Provide an explanation of the specific goods and / or services the new contracting firm will provide.

2. Evaluate the Raytheon Code of Ethics as to whether it is effective in avoiding any conduct that even appears to be unethical in the type of organization you selected for your product.

3. Determine the three (3) most critical clauses in the Raytheon document that aid the company’s avoidance of the appearance of impropriety.

4. Determine two (2) additional ethics provision that you would include in your company’s Code of Conduct document based on Raytheon Code of Ethics. Explain the rationale for the inclusion.

5. Analyze how your recommended clause sufficiently closes the gap on one (1) potential major ethical breach in the industry to which your product belongs. Note: Be sure to address any areas of concern regarding potential fraud in the contracting process.

6. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

#LEG 505 Assignment 1: Code of Conduct Assessment - Strayer

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LEG 500 Week 3 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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Week 3 DQ

"Privacy and Technology in the Workplace" Please respond to the following:

· Employers often want to find out if their workers are productive and loyal. Determine at least one (1) limit that you would place upon a private employer’s rights to monitor the productivity and communications of employees at work. Support your response.

· Speculate whether employers should have more or fewer rights to monitor employee use of company equipment, such as laptops, tablets, and cell phones issued for out-of-office, potentially after-hours work. Suggest at least three (3) methods for an employer to monitor its employees’ use of company equipments. Provide a rationale for your response.

#LEG 500 Week 3 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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LEG 500 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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Assignment 1: Whistleblowing and Sarbanes-Oxley Due

Week 3 and worth 100 points

Use the Internet or Strayer Library to research instances of whistleblowing in publicly traded companies within the last 12 months.

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

1. Describe the key characteristics of a whistleblower, and briefly summarize one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 12 months. Include the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

2. Decide whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Provide a rationale for your response.

3. Examine the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Justify your response.

4. Use at least two (2) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia is not an acceptable reference and proprietary Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

· Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

· Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

· Determine the underlying causes for passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and determine protections afforded to whistleblowers.

· Use technology and information resources to research issues in law, ethics, and corporate governance.

· Write clearly and concisely about law, ethics, and corporate governance using proper writing mechanics.

#LEG 500 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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LEG 320 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 3 Chapter 4 and 5

CHAPTER 4

CRIMINAL LIABILITY

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A request made to another person to commit a crime is the offense of

conspiracy

attempt

solicitation

obstruction of justice

2. The purpose of solicitation, conspiracy, and attempt statutes is to

prevent serious harm before it occurs

prevent persons from aiding the criminal after completion of the crime

obtain the cooperation of material witnesses

prevent criminals from escaping

3. In most situations, a person who has formulated the intent to commit a crime, but has taken no actions in furtherance of the crime has

not yet violated any law

still violated any law

committed a crime

committed a misdemeanor

4. Abandonment or withdraw by a conspirator makes the crime

nonetheless complete

not complete

complete if one of the conspirators commits the crime

not complete unless one of the conspirators commits the crime

5. The crime of solicitation is committed when

the person solicited commits the requested crime

the person solicited accepts payment

when a person attempts to get another to commit a crime

when the agreement is placed in writing

6. In the early 1600s, what crime was used extensively by the English Court of the Star Chamber?

attempt

conspiracy

solicitation

obstruction of justice

7. What requirement for the crime of conspiracy has been limited or rejected by a substantial number of states?

payment or reward

overt act

two or more guilty persons

agreement

8. The death of a co-conspirator

may affect a prosecution for conspiracy

ends any possibility of prosecution for conspiracy

always affects a prosecution for conspiracy

never affects a prosecution for conspiracy

9. For criminal conspiracy, proof of an overt act by a defendant

was required under common law

is unconstitutional

is required by most current state statutes

is extremely difficult to prove

10. Evidence of an overt act would provide some assurance that

at least one of the conspirators was sincere

there are at least two persons involved in the conspiracy

the object of the conspiracy is illegal

there is more than just an attempt to solicit

11. The Wharton Rule states that the crime of conspiracy cannot be charged if the number of people involved are only those necessary by factual circumstance to

none of these is correct

get away with the crime

plan the crime

commit the crime

12. A person could be criminally liable for the conduct of another if he or she is a party to a conspiracy to commit a crime and

hires another to commit a crime

urges another to commit a crime

counsels another to commit a crime

all of these answers are true

13. The U.S. Supreme Court has stated that the essence of the crime of conspiracy is

completion of the substantive crime

commission of an overt act by one of the conspirators

that object of the conspiracy is illegal

agreement to commit a crime

14. A conspiracy to commit an unlawful act is known as a/an

common design

commitment design

conspiracy design

concomitant design

15. The most frequently charged anticipatory offense is that of

attempt

solicitation

conspiracy

obstruction of justice

16. To prove the defendant attempted to commit a crime, courts require the prosecution show the existence of

an agreement to commit the crime

a request to commit the crime

completion of a substantial step

a motive

17. Federal courts and many states use the Model Penal Code substantial step test in determining whether the crime of _____ has been committed.

attempt

solicitation

conspiracy

obstruction of justice

18. Attempting to pick an empty pocket would be an example of which kind of impossibility?

legal

factual

imminent

contingent

19. Attempting to receive stolen goods that were not stolen would be an example of which kind of impossibility?

legal

factual

imminent

contingent

20. For the crime of attempt, most state and federal courts have rejected the defenses of

consent and alibi

insanity and necessity

coercion and entrapment

legal and factual impossibility

21. If a defendant plans to engage in conduct that he believes to be a crime, but the conduct as planned is not a crime, the defendant is

guilty of an attempt

guilty of conspiracy

not guilty of an attempt

none of these answers is correct

22. “A person who is a party to an agreement to commit an unlawful act.” This is the definition of which of the following terms?

an accessory after the fact

an aider

an abettor

a conspirator

23. A person asking another to commit murder is guilty of

solicitation

aiding

abetting

conspiracy

24. A person who provides assistance to another who commits the crime is called

a solicitor

an aider and abettor

a co-conspirator

solicitee

25. What principle of liability holds a defendant legally responsible for the unlawful conduct of others that he aids and abets?

principal

accessory

accomplice

party

26. All participants in a conspiracy or common plan to commit a crime are guilty of any act of another participant as long as that act is deemed a/an _____ of the intended crime.

element

natural and probable consequence

unforeseeable consequence

preferred outcome

27. According to the case of United States v. Thorn conspiracy can be proved even if the co-conspirator cannot be found or

cannot be identified

has died

changes his mind

refuses to testify

28. The Wharton Rule requires that crimes needing more than one person for commission, such as bigamy, require how many people for a conspiracy conviction?

three or more

four or more

five or more

two or more

29. Which of the following impossibility defenses is still viable?

engaging in conduct one thinks is a crime but that is not a crime

engaging in factual impossibility

engaging in legal impossibility

engaging in legal or factual impossibility

30. Impossibility is generally not a defense, unless

the crime did not occur

the defendant is ruled mentally incompetent

what is being attempted is a crime

what is being attempted is not a crime

TRUE/FALSE

1. In most situations, a person who has formulated the intent to commit a crime, but has taken no actions in furtherance of the crime, has not yet violated any law.

2. Few states require that some overt act be committed pursuant to the agreement before it becomes a crime.

3. Conspiracy can be proved even if the co-conspirator cannot be found or identified.

4. Courts currently categorize impossibility defenses in attempt cases into two classes: factual impossibility and legal impossibility.

5. The Model Penal Code would provide a defense to a conspiracy charge where a conspirator “thwarted the success of the conspiracy, under circumstances manifesting a complete and voluntary renunciation of his criminal purpose.”

6. “What one did they all did”is the rule that all parties to a conspiracy are liable for every action taken by any party in furtherance of the conspiracy or agreement.

7. A complete and voluntary renunciation of criminal purpose is not a defense to a charge of attempt to commit a crime.

8. A person cannot be convicted of a conspiracy to commit a crime if the agreed objective is not criminal.

9. A person who aids and abets a criminal is sometimes referred to as an accomplice.

10. When a person becomes liable for the criminal acts of another, it is known as strict liability.

COMPLETION

1. If the conspiracy is , the crime of conspiracy is nonetheless complete.

2. Most state statutes on criminal conspiracy require proof of an _______ act by a defendant.

3. The _____________ Rule states that the crime of conspiracy cannot be charged if the number of people involved is only those necessary to commit the crime.

4. The U.S. Supreme Court has stated that the essence of the crime of conspiracy is the ____________ to commit a crime.

5. An example of ___________ impossibility would be trying to pick a pocket that is empty.

6. An example of _________ impossibility would be attempting to buy stolen goods when in fact the goods have not been stolen.

7. Under common law, a person who knew a crime had been committed and gave aid or comfort to the person who committed the crime was termed a(n) _________ after the fact.

8. The principle of ____________ liability holds a defendant legally responsible for the unlawful conduct of others that he aids and abets.

9. Asking someone to commit a crime is known as .

10. When a criminal statute imposes liability without requiring proof of criminal intent, the offense is called a ____________ liability offense.

CHAPTER 5

CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY AND THE CAPACITY TO COMMIT A CRIME

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The age selected by the jurisdiction as the minimum age for a child’s criminal responsibility creates a conclusive presumption that

a child under that age lacks the capacity to commit a crime

a child under that age would not commit a crime

a child under that age does not want to commit a crime

a child under that age has the capacity to commit a crime

2. The two prongs of the M’Naghten rule are

cognitive incapacity and moral incapacity

cognitive incapacity and volitional incapacity

volitional incapacity and moral incapacity

volitional incapacity and the product-of-mental illness

3. Under which of the following circumstances do states permit the insanity defense with voluntary intoxication or drug use?

when it has created a “settled” psychotic mental state

states always permit the insanity defense with voluntary alcohol use but not with drug use

states always permit the insanity defense with voluntary drug use but not with alcohol use

states never permit the insanity defense with voluntary intoxication or drug use

4. The first prong of the M’Naghten rule

requires a showing the defendant did know what he was doing

requires a showing the defendant did not know what he was doing was wrong

requires a showing the defendant did not know what he was doing

requires a showing the defendant knew what he was doing was wrong

5. The common law established the lowest age of criminal responsibility at age

6. At what age do most states infer that individuals are competent and capable of committing a crime?

7. In some states there is a _____ presumption that children between the ages of 7 and 14 have the capacity to commit a crime.

mandatory

inferential

conclusive

rebuttable

8. A rebuttable presumption means the presumption

may not be overcome by the presentation of evidence

may be overcome by the presentation of evidence

may be presented by the prosecution only

may be presented by the defense only

9. The second prong requires

requires a showing the defendant did know what he was doing

requires a showing the defendant did not know what he was doing was wrong

requires a showing the defendant did not know what he was doing

requires a showing the defendant knew what he was doing was wrong

10. The M’Naghten rule differs from the substantial capacity test primarily on the

of the defendant’s understanding of events that made up the crime charged.

magnitude

capacity

logicality

quality

11. How often is voluntary intoxication or drug use the basis for the successful assertion of the insanity defense?

almost never

never

almost always

always

12. A defendant of questionable competency should not be tried for a criminal violation because

trials of incompetent persons violate their due process rights

due process requires persons charged with crimes to be given an opportunity to consult with counsel

due process requires persons charged with crimes to be given an opportunity to assist in their own defense

all of these answers are correct

13. A defendant who is found not guilty by reason of insanity is almost always

tried again for the same offense

set free

committed to a mental institution

reimbursed by the government for the cost of the trial

14. What is the name of the test which combines cognitive incapacity and moral incapacity?

The M’Naghten test

The “right and wrong” test

The Product rule

The “Substantial Capacity” Test

15. What is the name of the test which focuses on volitional incapacity?

The M’Naghten test

The “right and wrong” test

The Product rule

The “Substantial Capacity” Test

16. What is the name of the test which focuses on the product-of-mental illness?

The M’Naghten test

The “right and wrong” test

The “Substantial Capacity” Test

none of these answers is correct

17. In states where it is available, should the jury find the defendant was guilty but mentally ill at the time of the offense, the defendant

is free to leave

may be committed to a mental institution

will automatically be committed to a mental institution

may receive any sentence that could be imposed for that crime

18. States with the “guilty but mentally ill” verdict

have abolished the insanity defense

have retained the insanity defense

consider it identical to the not guilty by reason of insanity verdict

require the prosecution to prove the defendant was mentally ill

19. Which of the following must be found beyond a reasonable doubt for a defendant to be found guilty but mentally ill?

defendant is guilty of offense

defendant was mentally ill at time offense was committed

defendant was not legally insane at time offense was committed

All of these are required for a defendant to be found guilty but mentally ill

20. In what recent case did the U. S. Supreme Court hold that a mentally retarded person could not be subject to the death penalty?

Atkins v. Virginia

Pruit v. State

State v. Ramer

Foucha v. Louisiana

21. Which of the following are factors to consider when determining criminal capacity for children?

the nature of the crime

the child’s age and maturity

whether the child evidenced a desire for secrecy

all of these are factors to consider

22. To be mentally fit to stand trial, the defendant must have the ability to cooperate with defense counsel and

speak and understand English

have the ability to hear and see

remember what happened at the time of the alleged crime

understand the charges and proceedings

23. Defendants who are found incompetent to stand trial

may be tried when they become competent

may not be tried at any time thereafter

are entitled to a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity

are entitled to a verdict of not guilty due to diminished capacity

24. In Jackson v. Indiana, the U.S. Supreme Court held that defendants who are not competent to stand trial may be held

up to 90 days

up to 120 days

no longer than a “reasonable period of time”

up to 365 days

25. Courts generally have held that partial amnesia

does not render the defendant incompetent to stand trial

renders a defendant incompetent to stand trial permanently

renders a defendant incompetent to stand trial until their memory returns

denies the defendant a fair trial and violates due process

26. What insanity test emerged from the M’Naghten case?

the “right and wrong” test

the substantial capacity test

the product-of-mental illness test

the defect of character test

27. Which of the following may be the basis for finding a person incompetent to stand trial?

mental illness

mental retardation

physical illness

all of these answers are correct

28. A verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity results in

dismissal of the charges

incarceration of the defendant

hospitalization of the defendant

a suspended sentence for the defendant

29. In most states the defendant’s voluntary intoxication or drug use may serve as the basis for a claim

of diminished capacity

of not guilty by reason of insanity

of guilty but insane

of guilty but mentally ill

30. Which of the following is true of the requirement of the M’Naghten rule as compared to the “substantial capacity” test?

the “substantial capacity” test has a lesser requirement

the M’Naghten rule has a lesser requirement

the requirements of both are equivalent

none of these answers are correct

TRUE/FALSE

1. Many states have codified some version of the common law rules on children’s criminal capacity, though they vary on the age limits adopted.

2. The Washington Supreme Court identified eight factors to consider in determining capacity.

3. The two prongs of the M’Naghten rule include cognitive and moral incapacity.

4. The M’Naghten rule applies only if the defendant knew the nature of his acts and that they were wrong.

5. The substantial capacity test applies whenever the defendant cannot “appreciate” the nature of his acts, or that they were wrong, a lesser requirement.

6. A defendant found guilty but mentally ill may still be given a sentence that could have been ordered for a conviction on the crime charged.

7. Voluntary intoxication or drug use is almost never the basis for the successful assertion of the insanity defense.

8. A verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity results in a conviction of the defendant.

9. Mental illness, mental retardation, or many forms of physical illnesses may be the basis for finding a person incompetent to stand trial.

10. A person who lacks competency does not have the ability to understand what is happening at trial, and thus lacks the ability to participate in his own defense.

COMPLETION

1. Children below a certain cannot be convicted of a crime.

2. A child of 14 could be convicted if it can be shown the child had the ability and understanding to formulate the required criminal intent.

3. The first prong of the M’Naghten rule is called the capacity prong.

4. The substantial capacity test applies whenever the defendant cannot “ ” the nature of his acts, or that they were wrong.

5. In addition to the traditional insanity verdict, some states have provided for the verdict of ___________ but mentally ill.

6. A person found not guilty by reason of insanity cannot be tried again because of the Constitutional provision against double ___________.

7. Voluntary intoxication or drug use is almost the basis for the successful assertion of the insanity defense.

8. Most states place the burden of proof on the ___________ on the issue of being incompetent to stand trial.

9. A verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity results in an of the defendant; a verdict of guilty but mentally ill is a conviction.

10. A person who lacks does not have the ability to understand what is happening at trial.

#LEG 320 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

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HSA 530 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer NEW

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Assignment 1: Health Care Human Resources Management

Due Week 3 and worth 240 points

Imagine that you have applied for the position of Manager of Human Resources at an acute care hospital in your community. The hospital is planning to expand its services to meet the needs of a growing community. As part of the application screening process, you have been asked to write a document that outlines the steps you would take, as the manager of HR, to improve the effectiveness of HRM in this organization.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

1. Analyze two (2) current trends in health care that are affecting human resources management that may likely impact your hiring decision as HR manager. Provide support for your analysis.

2. Suggest a significant opportunity for HR to become more of a strategic partner within an organization. Justify your response.

3. Recommend a model of human resources management that would be the most appropriate for this organization in question. Provide support for your recommendation.

4. Recommend a strategy that HR could implement in order to develop more effective relationships between Human Resources and the organization’s managers and senior executives, indicating how each strategy will achieve the desired goal.

5. Determine a specific employment law that may affect the hiring and selection process at the acute hospital in your community. Provide support for your rationale.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

 Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

 Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.  The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

 Analyze the unique aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations.

 Evaluate the effects of major employment laws on HR functions in health care organizations.

 Evaluate the competencies necessary for effective health care human resources management.

 Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services human resource management.

 Write clearly and concisely about health services human resource management using proper writing mechanics.

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HRM 532 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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Assignment 1: Bank of America or McDonald’s Case Study

From the Goldsmith & Carter textbook, select either the Bank of America (Chapter 2) or McDonald’s (Chapter 9) case study for this assignment.

Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you: 1. Outline the talent management program that led to success for the company. 2. Identify strengths of the program and how they led to goal accomplishment. 3. Describe opportunities for improvement in the talent management planning process. 4. Create at least two (2) more effective approaches to meet the talent management challenges in the future.

Need a Professional Writer to Work on this Paper and Give you an A+ 100 % Original Paper? CLICK HERE TO GET THIS PAPER WRITTEN 5. Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine the process of linking talent management to organizational goals to gain a competitive advantage. • Analyze the process for crafting a talent brand and accessing talent channels. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in talent management. • Write clearly and concisely about talent management using proper writing mechanics.

#HRM 532 Week 3 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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Assignment 1: Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Due Week 3 and worth 100 points

Select a publicly traded company to research and evaluate its Human Resource (HR) and business strategy, HR department job positions, and ways it markets its company regarding human capital. Some company Websites that provide this information are listed below:

Marriott: http://www.arubamarriottcareers.com/JobDescriptions.html

Allstate: http://www.jigsaw.com/id209321_d40/allstate_insurance_human_resources_business_contacts.xhtml

State Farm: http://www.statefarm.com/about/retirees/news_articles/hr_serv_assist.asp

Ford Motor Company: http://corporate.ford.com/careers/career-paths/human-resources?&ccode=US

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

1. Propose how you would ensure the HR strategy is in alignment with the business strategy.

2. Describe the HR job positions and the responsibilities listed for that HR department.

3. Determine which HR job positions you would prefer and explain why.

4. Analyze how the selected company can establish HRM strategies to improve competitive advantages.

Propose three (3) ways that the company can increase diversity.

Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Examine the role of human resource management (HRM) in organizations and how it supports the organization’s business strategy.

· Evaluate human resource strategies and how these strategies align with business strategies.

· Create a competitive advantage in the marketplace.

Formulate HRM strategies and policies to recruit, select, place, and retain the most efficient and effective workforce.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in strategic human resource development.

Write clearly and concisely about strategic human resource development using proper writing mechanics.

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HRM 500 Week 3 Discussion Questions - Strayer

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Week 3-D1

From the e-Activity, examine two of the resources that are available for the selected job analysis method.

Week 3- D2

From the scenario, propose two work/life programs that will support these professionals, and determine how you would ascertain the needs of the workforce.

#HRM 500 Week 3 Discussion Questions - Strayer

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HRM 500 Assignment 1: Trends in the Workplace - Strayer

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Due Week 3 and worth 150 points

Imagine that you are the human resource manager for a small manufacturing company. You decide to invest in a materials resource planning (MRP) system. This is a computerized information system that improves efficiency by automating such work as planning needs for resources, ordering materials, and scheduling work on the shop floor. As the human resource manager you hope that with the new MRP system, the company can grow quickly and efficiently through the processing of small orders for a variety of products. You are also aware of the challenges to hire individuals with the technical skills needed to perform the job. Consider how the organization will address the skills deficiencies.

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

1. Predict three (3) human resource functions that are likely to be affected by the implementation of an MRP system. Propose two (2) ways in which you as a human resource manager can help the organization carry out this change successfully.

2. Determine three (3) human resource skills that would be important for success in leveraging the new MRP system.

3. Based on the planned growth of the organization, predict three (3) factors that might impact the organization’s ability to hire new employees that possess the technical skills needed to perform a job.

4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

#HRM 500 Assignment 1: Trends in the Workplace - Strayer

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FIN 540 Week 3 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

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Week 3

Homewrok Problems Chapter 20 and 21

Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

a. By law in most states, all preferred stock must be cumulative, meaning that the

compounded total of all unpaid preferred dividends must be paid before any dividends

can be paid on the firm's common stock.

b. From the issuer's point of view, preferred stock is less risky than bonds.

c. Whereas common stock has an indefinite life, preferred stocks always have a specific

maturity date, generally 25 years or less.

d. Unlike bonds, preferred stock cannot have a convertible feature.

e. Preferred stock generally has a higher component cost of capital to the firm than does

common stock.

2. Which of the following statements about convertibles is most CORRECT?

a. One advantage of convertibles over warrants is that the issuer receives additional cash

money when convertibles are converted.

b. Investors are willing to accept a lower interest rate on a convertible than on otherwise

similar straight debt because convertibles are less risky than straight debt.

c. At the time it is issued, a convertible's conversion (or exercise) price is generally set

equal to or below the underlying stock's price.

d. For equilibrium to exist, the expected return on a convertible bond must normally be

between the expected return on the firm's otherwise similar straight debt and the

expected return on its common stock.

e. The coupon interest rate on a firm's convertibles is generally set higher than the market

yield on its otherwise similar straight debt.

3. Which of the following statements concerning warrants is correct?

a. Warrants are long-term put options that have value because holders can sell the firm's

common stock at the exercise price regardless of how low the market price drops.

b. Warrants are long-term call options that have value because holders can buy the firm's

common stock at the exercise price regardless of how high the stock's price has risen.

c. A firm's investors would generally prefer to see it issue bonds with warrants than straight

bonds because the warrants dilute the value of new shareholders, and that value is

transferred to existing shareholders.

d. A drawback to using warrants is that if the firm is very successful, investors will be less

likely to exercise the warrants, and this will deprive the firm of receiving any new capital.

e. Bonds with warrants and convertible bonds both have option features that their holders

can exercise if the underlying stock's price increases. However, if the option is exercised,

the issuing company's debt declines if warrants were used but remains the same if it

used convertibles.

4. Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

a. One important difference between warrants and convertibles is that convertibles bring in

additional funds when they are converted, but exercising warrants does not bring in any

additional funds.

b. The coupon rate on convertible debt is normally set below the coupon rate that would be

set on otherwise similar straight debt even though investing in convertibles is more risky

than investing in straight debt.

c. The value of a warrant to buy a safe, stable stock should exceed the value of a warrant to

buy a risky, volatile stock, other things held constant.

d. Warrants can sometimes be detached and traded separately from the debt with which

they were issued, but this is unusual.

e. Warrants have an option feature but convertibles do not.

5. Mariano Manufacturing can issue a 25-year, 8.1% annual payment bond at par. Its investment

bankers also stated that the company can sell an issue of annual payment preferred stock to

corporate investors who are in the 40% tax bracket. The corporate investors require an after-tax

return on the preferred that exceeds their after-tax return on the bonds by 1.0%, which would

represent an after-tax risk premium. What coupon rate must be set on the preferred in order to

issue it at par?

a. 6.66%

b. 6.99%

c. 7.34%

d. 7.71%

e. 8.09%

Chapter – 21

Week 3

1.The major contribution of the Miller model is that it demonstrates that

a. personal taxes decrease the value of using corporate debt.

b. financial distress and agency costs reduce the value of using corporate debt.

c. equity costs increase with financial leverage.

d. debt costs increase with financial leverage.

e. personal taxes increase the value of using corporate debt.

2. Which of the following statements concerning capital structure theory is NOT CORRECT?

a. Under MM with zero taxes, financial leverage has no effect on a firm's value.

b. Under MM with corporate taxes, the value of a levered firm exceeds the value of the

unlevered firm by the product of the tax rate times the market value dollar amount of

debt.

c. Under MM with corporate taxes, rs increases with leverage, and this increase exactly

offsets the tax benefits of debt financing.

d. Under MM with corporate taxes, the effect of business risk is automatically incorporated

because rsL is a function of rsU .

e. The major contribution of Miller's theory is that it demonstrates that personal taxes

decrease the value of using corporate debt.

3. Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT CORRECT?

a. The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield.

b. For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under

MM's original (with tax) assumptions.

c. For a given D/S, the WACC is less than the WACC under MM's original (with tax)

assumptions.

d. The total value of the firm increases with the amount of debt.

e. The tax shields should be discounted at the unlevered cost of equity.

4. Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT CORRECT?

a. The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield.

b. For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under

MM's original (with tax) assumptions.

c. For a given D/S, the WACC is greater than the WACC under MM's original (with tax)

assumptions.

d. The total value of the firm increases with the amount of debt.

e. The tax shields should be discounted at the cost of debt.

5. Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT CORRECT?

a. The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield.

b. For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under

MM's original (with tax) assumptions.

c. For a given D/S, the WACC is greater than the WACC under MM's original (with tax)

assumptions.

d. The total value of the firm is independent of the amount of debt it uses.

e. The tax shields should be discounted at the unlevered cost of equity.

#FIN 540 Week 3 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

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