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Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions HPE0-V15 Dumps

If you are planning to appear in the HP Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V15 certification exam, You can choose PassQuestion Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions HPE0-V15 Dumps which cover all the knowledge points of the real HPE0-V15 exam. The accuracy of the HPE0-V15 questions & answers is fully guaranteed by our certified experts to guarantee the highest percentage in the real exam. We assure you that Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions HPE0-V15 Dumps will help you cover exam topics and acquire the required knowledge to pass the HPE0-V15 exam. If you are going through all of our Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions HPE0-V15 Dumps, then you will be able to clear the HP HPE0-V15 exam on the first attempt.

Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions

This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy, encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution.

Ideal candidate

The ideal candidate has a minimum of twelve months hands-on experience or equivalent in at least one of the core HPE areas (Server, Storage, and Networking) and six months experience or equivalent in other HPE SMB solutions and foundational technologies.

The candidate assists with the design and participates in the demonstration/proof of concept, integration, and administration aspects of foundational HPE solutions.

Exam Details

Exam ID: HPE0-V15 Exam type: Proctored Exam duration: 1 hour Exam length: 40 questions Passing score: 66% Delivery languages: English, Japanese, Korean

Exam Objectives

20%    Describe, differentiate, and apply industry standard, foundational SMB architectures and technologies

Identify and explain industry standard IT technologies used in small and medium-sized solutions and their use cases

20%    Recommend and position HPE products, solutions, and appropriate services for use cases

Given a use case, recommend the appropriate HPE products, solutions, and services to meet the business requirement

20%    Evaluate customer environment, and plan and design solutions using the HPE portfolio to meet customer requirements

Identify and describe planning, design and sizing tools and when to use them.

Given customer requirements, design an HPE server solution to meet those requirements

Given customer requirements, design an HPE storage solution to meet those requirements

Given customer requirements, design an HPE network solution to meet those requirements.

Given customer requirements, design an end-to-end, small to medium-sized HPE solution to meet those requirements

20%    Install, configure, and upgrade HPE solutions and their components and validate the implementation

Install physical solution systems including racking, power, and cabling connections

Given a solution, configure and validate the server, storage and/or networking components including integrating subsystems.

10%    Troubleshoot and remediate HPE solution components

Identify the tools and methods to troubleshoot and remediate an HPE solution and when to use each tool and method

Analyze, troubleshoot, and remediate HPE solutions including component integrations (server, storage, and networking)

10%    Manage, monitor, administer, and operate HPE solutions and their components

Manage HPE solutions and subsystems to ensure the solution continues to meet customer requitements

View Online Delta - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions HPE0-V15 Free Questions

Which feature in a block storage array is effective in decreasing the size of blocks? A.thin provisioning B.thick provisioning C.compression D.deduplication Answer: C

A customer purchased a Nimble HF20 a year ago They are experiencing an issue with a few of their VMware servers in the RTP Nimble date center and asked that you make a recommendation based on the data in infoSight. What should you recommend? A.Add cache to the array for the RTP Nimble Datacenter. B.increase the cache size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup C.increase the datastore size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup. D.Add another datastore for the RTP Nimble Datacenter Answer: D

What is the process or writing data to two locations within a single array in real time? A.replication B.business continuity C.data mirroring D.clustering Answer: C

A customer needs to add storage capacity to a host In a remote branch office. They have limited IT resources, so the solution requires ease of integration at a low price point Which HPE Storage family best meets these needs? A.HPE D3000 Enclosure B.HPE 3PAR StoreServ C.HPE MSA Storage Array D.HPE NimbIe Storage Answer: C

An administrator has two switches connected with a single link. The administrator observes that, during hours of peak activity, the storage traffic tends to consume the link. The link is shared with other types of traffic that is time sensitive. What technology can the administrator use to help alleviate the situation while they are working towards a long-term solution? A.Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) B.Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) C.RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) D.Multi Active Discriminator (MAD) Answer: C

A customer requires five HPE ProLiant servers that will be mounted in a rack and shipped from site to site All servers must be online within an hour of site arrival Which feature will ensure that the servers will be available to the business if travel motion has damaged a DIMM? A.HPE Fast Fault Tolerance Memory protection B.Triple+ Parity RAID protection C.Flash Back Write Cache battery protection D.HPE Active Health System integration Answer: A

A customer needs to move data residing in one class of disks to a more appropriate class of disks based on data access patterns without manual intervention. Which HPE MSA storage technology/feature will meet the customer requirement? A.Wide striping B.Automated Tiering C.Volume Tier Affinity D.SSD read cache Answer: B

A customer with a Microsoft server environment wants to consolidate their employee home directories and other company file shares presented from an appliance as a single name space. Which HPE product should you recommend to the customer? A.StoreOnce B.StoreEasy C.SimpliVity D.MSA storage Answer: B

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Newly Released CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 Study Guide

XK0-005 CompTIA Linux+ Certification Exam is newly available to replace XK0-004 exam which will be retired on January 16, 2023. PassQuestion provides the latest CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 Study Guide to help you best prepare for your real exam. Taking the CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 Study Guide is the fastest way to overcome weaknesses in your CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 exam preparation. This feature of the CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 Study Guide is helpful to gain confidence for the XK0-005 actual certification exam. You have to strive hard and put all your efforts and prepare well to pass the CompTIA Linux+ XK0-005 certification exam with good scores.

CompTIA Linux+ Certification (XK0-005 vs XK0-004)

CompTIA Linux+ validates the skills administrators need to secure the enterprise, power the cloud and keep systems running. The new certification ensures that IT professionals, software developers, cybersecurity engineers and penetration testers have these necessary skills to support today's tech systems.

CompTIA Linux+ is the only job-focused Linux certification covering the latest foundational skills demanded by hiring managers. Unlike other certifications, the new exam includes performance-based and multiple-choice questions to identify the employees who can do the job. The exam covers tasks associated with all major distributions of Linux, setting the foundation for advanced vendor/distro-specific knowledge.

What's on the New CompTIA Linux+ Exam?

CompTIA Linux+ (XK0-005) is an intermediate-level IT certification that provides IT professionals with knowledge of Linux. It is the only job-focused Linux certification covering the latest foundational skills demanded by hiring managers. CompTIA Linux+ validates the competencies required of an early career supporting Linux systems.

In addition to topics you might traditionally associate with Linux, the new version of CompTIA Linux+ emphasizes the skills needed to configure, monitor and support servers running the Linux operating system such as:

Configure and manage software, storage, processes and services

Analyze system properties and processes and troubleshoot user, application and hardware issues

Understand best practices for permissions and authentication, firewalls and file management

Create simple shell scripts and execute basic BASH scripts, version control using Git and orchestration processes

The new version of CompTIA Linux+ covers an evolving job role that focuses more on how Linux powers the cloud. The exam includes cutting edge technologies that help automate and orchestrate business processes, including infrastructure as code and containers.

Test Details

Required exam XK0-005 Number of questions Maximum of 90 Types of questions Multiple-choice and performance-based Length of test 90 minutes Recommended experience 12 months of hands-on experience working with Linux servers, as well as A+, Network+, and Server+ or similar certifications and/or knowledge Passing score 720 (on a scale of 100 to 900) Languages English only Price $358 USD

Exam Objectives

1.0 System Management 32% 2.0 Security 21% 3.0 Scripting, Containers, and Automation 19% 4.0 Troubleshooting 28%

View Online CompTIA Linux+ Certification XK0-005 Free Questions

A systems administrator wants to be sure the sudo rules just added to /etc/sudoers are valid. Which of the following commands can be used for this task? A.visudo -c B.test -f /etc/sudoers C.sudo vi check D.cat /etc/sudoers | tee test Answer: A

A Linux administrator created the directory /project/access2all. By creating this directory, the administrator is trying to avoid the deletion or modification of files from non-owners. Which of the following will accomplish this goal? A.chmod +t /project/access2all B.chmod +rws /project/access2all C.chmod 2770 /project/access2all D.chmod ugo+rwx /project/access2all Answer: A

A new Linux systems administrator just generated a pair of SSH keys that should allow connection to the servers. Which of the following commands can be used to copy a key file to remote servers? (Choose two.) A.wget B.ssh-keygen C.ssh-keyscan D.ssh-copy-id E.ftpd F.scp Answer: D, F

A Linux administrator is creating a primary partition on the replacement hard drive for an application server. Which of the following commands should the administrator issue to verify the device name of this partition? A.sudo fdisk /dev/sda B.sudo fdisk -s /dev/sda C.sudo fdisk -l D.sudo fdisk -h Answer: C

Which of the following technologies can be used as a central repository of Linux users and groups? A.LDAP B.MFA C.SSO D.PAM Answer: A

A Linux administrator needs to create a new user named user02. However, user02 must be in a different home directory, which is under /comptia/projects. Which of the following commands will accomplish this task? A.useradd -d /comptia/projects user02 B.useradd -m /comptia/projects user02 C.useradd -b /comptia/projects user02 D.useradd -s /comptia/projects user02 Answer: A

A junior Linux administrator is tasked with installing an application. The installation guide states the application should only be installed in a run level 5 environment.

Which of the following commands would ensure the server is set to runlevel 5? A.systemctl isolate multi-user.target B.systemctl isolate graphical.target C.systemctl isolate network.target D.systemctl isolate basic.target Answer: B

To harden one of the servers, an administrator needs to remove the possibility of remote administrative login via the SSH service. Which of the following should the administrator do? A.Add the line DenyUsers root to the /etc/hosts.deny file. B.Set PermitRootLogin to no in the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file. C.Add the line account required pam_nologin. so to the /etc/pam.d/sshd file. D.Set PubKeyAuthentication to no in the /etc/ssh/ssh_config file. Answer: B

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IBM C1000-140 Practice Test Questions

You can get the latest C1000-140 Practice Test Questions from PassQuestion to best prepare for your IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3 Deployment exam. These C1000-140 Practice Test Questions will help you to get high score in your IBM C1000-140 exam in first attempt! It will give you a clear idea of how you can take a real exam. It will also help you assess your current preparation level so you can improve your preparation for the final IBM C1000-140 exam. Make sure that you are using up to date IBM C1000-140 Practice Test Questions so you can easily clear the IBM C1000-140 exam on the first shot.

C1000-140 Exam Overview - IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3 Deployment

This intermediate level certification is intended for professionals who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3 Deployment.

This intermediate level certification is intended for deployment professionals who are responsible for the planning, installation, configuration, performance optimization, tuning, troubleshooting, and initial system administration tasks for an IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3. This includes the apps installed with the product: Use Case Manager, QRadar Assistant, Log Source Manager, and Pulse. This does not include the SaaS offering of QRadar on Cloud (QRoC).

Exam Details

Exam Code: C1000-140 Exam Name:  IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3 Deployment Number of questions: 61 Number of questions to pass: 40 Time allowed: 90 minutes Languages: English Price: $200 USD Certification: IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3

Exam Sections

Section 1: Deployment Objectives and Use Cases   5% Section 2: Architecture and Sizing   18% Section 3: Installation and Configuration   16% Section 4: Event and Flow Integration   12% Section 5: Environment and XFE Integration   8% Section 6: System Performance and Troubleshooting   13% Section 7: Initial Offense Tuning   8% Section 8: Migration and Upgrades   13% Section 9: Multi-Tenancy Considerations    7%

View Online IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.4.3 Deployment C1000-140 Free Questions

While a search runs on the Network Activity tab, the direction of a set of flows is seen as R2R. The source IP of this set of flows is an internal email server. What does this situation suggest about the QRadar configuration? A.QRadar might be having performance issues. B.The email server is offline or down. C.The email server is not included in the network hierarchy. D.The flow pipeline is choked because of high incoming flows. Answer: C

Which log file helps in QRadar troubleshooting? A.aql.log B.ariel-query.log C.sim-audit.log D.qradar.error Answer: C

A QRadar deployment uses multiple domains to provide data separation between different departments in the organization. When the tenants and users are configured, which constraints are enforced? A.A tenant can contain multiple domains; each domain may be in multiple tenants. B.A tenant can contain only one domain; each tenant can only have a single user. C.A tenant can contain multiple domains; each domain may only be in a single tenant. D.A tenant can contain only one domain; each tenant can have multiple users. Answer: C

Before the creation of a new application instance with QRadar Assistant, with what entity must every application be associated? A.An authorization token B.A user role C.A security profile D.A tenant Answer: A

What can content management scripts be used to accomplish? A.Update QRadar. B.Export content from a QRadar deployment. C.Debug the default configuration in QRadar. D.Extract the list of offenses in QRadar. Answer: C

Where can a deployment professional find updates to DSMs? A.Fix Central B.The QRadar Admin console C.The Log Source Management app D.QRadar on Cloud website Answer: D

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Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Practice Test Questions

The latest Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Practice Test Questions are new released for your Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) exam preparation. PassQuestion Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Practice Test Questions will provide you with everything that you need to learn, prepare and pass the Palo Alto Networks System Engineer Professional - SASE Exam with good scores. The Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Practice Test Questions are the real questions and answers that will surely repeat in the upcoming PSE-SASE exam and you can easily pass your dream PSE-SASE certification with good scores. All these Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Practice Test Questions will help you in PSE-SASE exam preparation and be confident to perform well in the final PSE-SASE Exam.

What is Palo Alto Prisma SASE?

SASE is an architectural approach that converges networking and network security services into a single, integrated cloud service. With an effective SASE solution, organizations get consistent protection with a high-performance experience for all users, regardless of location.

Palo Alto Networks Prisma SASE is the industry's most complete SASE solution, converging network security, SD-WAN, and Autonomous Digital Experience Management into a single cloud-delivered service. Describes the Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) set of technologies and introduces the Palo Alto Networks SASE solution. It provides an overview of the capabilities of a SASE solution and describes the products in the Palo Alto Networks portfolio that you can use to build a SASE solution.

Prisma SASE is the secure foundation for agile, cloud-enabled organizations

Prisma SASE consistently secures all apps used by your hybrid workforce, regardless of whether users are at home, on the go, or in the office. ZTNA 2.0 protects all application traffic with best-in-class capabilities while securing access and data to dramatically reduce the risk of a data breach.

Prisma SASE simplifies operations by converging best-of-breed networking and security into a single service. Unified management and a shared data lake improve team collaboration and streamline operations.

Prisma SASE is built in the cloud to secure at cloud scale while delivering exceptional user experiences. A truly cloud-native architecture provides uncompromised performance backed by leading SLAs. The industry’s only SASE-native Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM) helps ensure an exceptional experience for your end-users.

View Online Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE Free Questions

Which two services are provided by Prisma Access Insights? (Choose two.) A.summary overview screen of the health and performance of an organization's entire Prisma Access environment B.configuration of the on-premises firewall located behind the service-connection termination C.detection of hard-to-find security issues via AI-based innovations to normalize, analyze, and stitch together an enterprise's data D.multiple dashboards for focused views of different deployments, the corresponding alerts, and the health status of the infrastructure Answer: A, D

Which element of a secure access service edge (SASE)-enabled network uses many points of presence to reduce latency with support of in-country or in-region resources and regulatory requirements? A.cloud-native, cloud-based delivery B.converged WAN edge and network security C.broad network-edge support D.identity and network location Answer: A

What happens when SaaS Security sees a new or unknown SaaS application? A.It forwards the application for WildFire analysis. B.It uses machine learning (ML) to classify the application. C.It generates alerts regarding changes in performance. D.It extends the branch perimeter to the closest node with high performance. Answer: A

What is a differentiator between the Palo Alto Networks secure access service edge (SASE) solution and competitor solutions? A.path analysis B.playbooks C.ticketing systems D.inspections Answer: A

What is an advantage of the unified approach of the Palo Alto Networks secure access service edge (SASE) platform over the use of multiple point products? A.It allows for automation of ticketing tasks and management of tickets without pivoting between various consoles. B.It scans all traffic, ports, and protocols and automatically discovers new apps. C.It turns threat intelligence and external attack surface data into an intelligent data foundation to dramatically accelerate threat response. D.It reduces network and security complexity while increasing organizational agility. Answer: D

What is a benefit of the Palo Alto Networks secure access service edge (SASE) solution's ability to provide insight into SD-WAN and network security metrics while highlighting critical issues across all managed tenants? A. It helps managed service providers (MSPs) accelerate troubleshooting and meet service level agreements (SLAs) for all their customers. B, It rearchitects the way signatures are delivered, performing updates and streaming them to the firewall within seconds after the analysis is done. C. It helps protect inbound, outbound, and east-west traffic between container workload types in Kubernetes environments without slowing development speed. D. It simplifies workflows and instantly automates common use cases with hundreds of prebuilt playbooks. Answer: A

What is a disadvantage of proxy secure access service edge (SASE) when compared to an inline SASE solution? A. Teams added additional tools to web proxies that promised to solve point problems, resulting in a fragmented and ineffective security architecture. B. Exclusive use of web proxies leads to significant blind spots in traffic and an inability to identify applications and threats on non-standard ports or across multiple protocols. C. Proxies force policy actions to be treated as business decisions instead of compromises due to technical limitations. D. Proxy solutions require an unprecedented level of interconnectivity. Answer: B

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SAS Institute A00-231 Practice Test Questions

In order to help you pass the A00-231 SAS 9.4 Base Programming - Performance-Based Exam, PassQuestion provides you the latest SAS Base Programming Specialist A00-231 Practice Test Questions, which have a very close similarity with real exam. They use professional knowledge and experience to provide SAS Base Programming Specialist A00-231 Practice Test Questions for people ready to participate in SAS Institute A00-231 exam. The accuracy rate of SAS Base Programming Specialist A00-231 Practice Test Questions provided by PassQuestion is very high and they can 100% guarantee you pass the SAS Institute A00-231 exam successfully for one time.

A00-231 Exam Overview - SAS 9.4 Base Programming - Performance-Based Exam

The SAS Base Programming Specialist (A00-231) exam challenges candidates to apply specific knowledge they have acquired through SAS software training and/or job experience. This exam is based on SAS 9.4 M5. Exams are generally scheduled through Pearson VUE but are also held at various locations around the world on a pre-scheduled basis.

Exam Information

Exam Name: SAS 9.4 Base Programming - Performance-Based Exam Exam Code: A00-231 Exam Conducted: This exam is administered by SAS and Pearson VUE. Total Questions: 40-45 multiple-choice and short-answer questions. Exam Duration: 135 minutes to complete the exam. Exam Price: $180 USD Passing score: 725 (score range from 200 to 1,000 points). Exam Format: This exam is based on SAS 9.4 M5.

Exam ObjectivesAccess and Create Data Structures: 20-25%

Create temporary and permanent SAS data sets.

Investigate SAS data libraries using base SAS utility procedures.

Access data.

Combine SAS data sets.

Create and manipulate SAS date values.

Control which observations and variables in a SAS data set are processed and output.

Manage Data: 35-40%

Sort observations in a SAS data set.

Conditionally execute SAS statements.

Use assignment statements in the DATA step.

Modify variable attributes using options and statements in the DATA step.

Accumulate sub-totals and totals using DATA step statements.

Use SAS functions to manipulate character data, numeric data, and SAS date values.

Use SAS functions to convert character data to numeric and vice versa.

Process data using DO LOOPS

Restructure SAS data sets with PROC TRANSPOSE.

Use macro variables to simplify program maintenance.

Error Handling: 15-20%

Identify and resolve programming logic errors.

Recognize and correct syntax errors.

Generate Reports and Output: 15-20%

Generate list reports using the PRINT procedure.

Generate summary reports and frequency tables using base SAS procedures.

Enhance reports system user-defined formats, titles, footnotes and SAS System reporting options.

Generate reports using ODS statements.

Export data

View Online SAS 9.4 Base Programming A00-231 Free Questions

Which statement about SAS libraries is true? A. You refer to a SAS library by a logical name called a libname. B. A SAS library is a collection of one or more SAS files that are referenced and stored as a unit. C. A single SAS library must contain files that are stored in different physical locations. D. At the end of each session, SAS deletes the contents of all SAS libraries. Answer: B

Assume that Work. Ds1 and Work.Ds2 exist and the following SAS program is submitted: ods pdf file='results.pdf'; proc print data=work.ds1; run; proc freq data=work.ds1; proc freq data=work.ds2; run; ods pdf close; How many PDF files are created? A. 1 PDF file with all the output combined B. 2 PDF files -- one file for each data set used C. 2 PDF files -- one for the PRINT output and one for the FREQ output D. 3 PDF files -- one per procedure request Answer: A

Assume that Sasuser.One does not exist and that the following SAS program is submitted at the beginning of a new SAS session: data sasuser.one; x=1; y=27; output one; run; A. The data set Sasuser.One is created with 2 variables and 3 observations. B. The data set Sasuser.One is created with 2 variables and 0 observations. C. The data set Work.One is created with 2 variables and 1 observation. D. The data set Sasuser.One is created with 2 variables and 1 observation. Answer: B

A PROC PRINT report was created with the following title: Asia Sports Vehicle Summary After the PROC PRINT report is run, a programmer would next like to produce a PROC FREQ report with the following title: Asia Sports Vehicle Summary Distribution by Make Which statement(s) would produce the new report titles? A. title "Distribution by Make"; B. title "Asia Sports Vehicle Summary"; title "Distribution by Make"; C. title "Asia Sports Vehicle Summary"; title2 "Distribution by Make"; D. title "Asia Sports Vehicle Summary"; subtitle "Distribution by Make"; Answer: C

The variable Name in the data set Employee has a $CHAR10. format. The variable Name in the data set Sales has a $CHAR15. format.The following SAS program is submitted: data both; merge employee sales; by name; run; What is the format for the variable Name in the data set Both? A. no format defined B. $CHAR C. $CHAR10 D. $CHAR15 Answer: C

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Huawei Certification H19-315-ENU Real Questions

To help you pass your H19-315-ENU HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access exam, you can study PassQuestion HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access H19-315-ENU Real Questions with less effort. You would have a basic and advanced understanding of all the concepts of HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access certification. These H19-315-ENU questions and answers are ready by the Huawei experts so it will allow you to prepare and pass the exam with brilliant results. With the help of PassQuestion HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access H19-315-ENU Real Questions, you would be able to pass this exam in the first attempt with maximum grades.

HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access Certification (H19-315)

With HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access certification (Exam Code: H19-315) , you will obtain basic principle of WDM/Access and an in-depth understanding of Huawei DCI & Campus Optix product and Solutions, will be able to provide customization, and possess pre-sales design capabilities on marketing DCI & Campus Optix products and solutions.This HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access certification is for sales professionals of partners who sell the Huawei DCI& Campus Optix product, and those who want to obtain the HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access certification.

Exam Details

Exam Code: H19-315 Exam Type: Written examination Exam Format: Single-answer Question, Multiple-answer Question, True or false Time: 90 min Passing Score/Total Score: 600/1000 Exam Cost: 100USD Language: English,Japanese

HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access Exam Knowledge Points

1.WDM OTN principle 5% 2.OptiXtrans DC908 Solutions and Technologies Introduction 20% 3.OptiXtrans DC908 Specification & Hardware Introduction 15% 4.OptiXtrans DC908 Network Design & Configuration & Quotation 10% 5.PON Principle Introduction 5% 6.Huawei Campus OptiX Solution Introduction 20% 7.Huawei Campus OptiX Solution Hot-sale Product 15% 8.Huawei Campus OptiX Solution Network Design and Quotation 10%

View Online HCSA-Presales-Transmission & Access H19-315-ENU Free Questions

In the WDM model, which functional unit completes the O-E-O conversion? A. OLA B. MUX C. DEMUX D. OTU Answer: D

Where are the main application scenarios of DC908? A. Metro complex network B. Backbone C. DC point-to-point interconnection Answer: C

What is the smallest device currently provided by Huawei's transmission products? A. OptiXstar A810 B. OptiXtrans E6604 C. OptiXtrans E6608 D. OptiXtrans E9605 Answer: A

What are the highlights of the enhanced MSTP? (Multiple choice) A. Smart Hard Pipe B. Large bandwidth, high integration, flexible configuration C. Physical isolation, high security D. Operation and maintenance are consistent with traditional SDH Answer: ABCD

What are the components of 100G key technologies? (Multiple choice) A. WDM side interface technology B. OTN Processing Technology C. Client-Side Interface Technology D. Dispersion compensation technology Answer: ABC

What are the advantages of Huawei's financial data center transmission solution? (Multiple choice) A. Low latency B. Large bandwidth C. Multi-service interface and compatibility D. High reliability and easy operation and maintenance Answer: ABCD

What are the software and hardware protections supported by Huawei's distribution network PON solution? (Multiple choice) A. Hand in hand protection B. 6kV lightning protection for power and communication ports C. AES encryption D. Two-fiber bidirectional multiplex section protection Answer: ABC

The advantages of PON access are low cost and high reliability A. True B. False Answer: A

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Cisco 500-442 CCEA Exam Dumps

Are you preparing for your Cisco 500-442 CCEA exam? PassQuestion new released Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise 500-442 CCEA Dumps to help you best prepare for your exam. It is a great way to study Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise 500-442 CCEA Dumps that will help you to be more confident and increase your ability to pass. The Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise 500-442 CCEA Dumps are the recommended study material that will help you in Cisco 500-442 exam preparation and enable you to pass the final Cisco 500-442 certification exam with flying colors.

Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (500-442)

Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEA 500-442) is a 90-minute exam associated with the Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization requirements for Systems Engineers. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of basic calls and agent settings, CCE configuration and implementation, advanced configuration, advanced features, and reporting.

Exam Details

Exam Name: Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEA) Exam Code: 500-442 CCEA Associated certification: Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization requirement for Systems Engineers Duration: 90 mins Language: English

Exam Topics20% 1.0 Overview

1.1 Understand Contact Center basics 1.2 Describe CCE components and architecture 1.3 Explain call flow 1.4 Describe access tools

20% 2.0 Basic Calls and Agent settings

2.1 Deploy basic call settings 2.2 Build basic ICM scripts 2.3 Configure basic agent functionality 2.4 Configure basic call treatment

20% 3.0 Configuration and Implementation

3.1 Implement precision routing 3.2 Configure agent teams and supervisors 3.3 Utilize Finesse administration tool

20% 4.0 Advanced Configuration

4.1 Implement VXML applications 4.2 Configure roles and departments 4.3 Configure RONA support

10% 5.0 Advanced Features

5.1 Understand CCE features beyond default

10% 6.0 Reporting

6.1 Utilize CUIC

View Online Administering Cisco Contact Center Enterprise 500-442 Free Questions

How does CUCM function in CCE? A.Unified CM asks ICM what to do with Unified CCE calls and routes the call according to the instructions provided by the Unified CCE. B.A Unified CM Publisher is a logical relationship of physical (deployed as virtual Machines) servers combined for redundancy purposes. C.Unified CM asks CVP what to do with Unified CCE calls and routes the call according to the instructions provided by the CVP. D.In a CUCM cluster, the Subscriber keeps the master Read/Write copy of configuration DB, which is replicated to all servers in the cluster. Answer: A

Which two metrics are part of the Contact Center Call Quality Key Performance Indicators (KPI)? (Choose two.) A.cost B.productivity C.customer expectations D.customer satisfaction E.call abandon rate F.average queue time Answer: C, E

What does Precision Routing use to determine if an agent is part of its pool? A.Skills B.Attributes C.Expressions D.Teams Answer: D

Apart from CVP Call Studio, what are two other components that have a role in the VXML application's functioning? (Choose two.) A.VRU PG B.Unified Communications Manager C.Media Server D.Voice Browser E.Finesse Server Answer: B, D

What are two possible Outbound Dialing Modes? (Choose two.] A.Direct Predictive Mode B.Preview Mode C.Progression Mode D.Accept Mode E.Predictive Mode Answer: A, B

What are two types of reports Cisco Unified Intelligence Center will provide? (Choose two.) A.TCP/IP disconnect reports B.Real-time Report C.Historical Report D.Administration Audit Report E.Call Routing Reports Answer: C, D

Which two components must be configured for CCE to begin routing the contact and start processing the call? (Choose two.) A.ICM script B.Skill Targets C.Network VRU D.Call type E.Media routing domain Answer: A, D

Where should the RONA setting be positioned the highest? A.on CVP OPS console B.on the phone in CUCM C.on the desk setting on UCCE D.on the script in UCCE Answer: A

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Newly Update Microsoft PL-200 Questions

The latest Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant PL-200 Questions are newly updated by PassQuestion team which will greatly assist you in the Microsoft PL-200 exam preparation process and boost your confidence to pass the final Microsoft PL-200 certification exam. With the help of Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant PL-200 Questions, you can not only ace your Microsoft PL-200 exam but also be ready to perform well in the final Microsoft PL-200 certification exam. So you rest assured that with the Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant PL-200 Questions you will get everything that you need to prepare and pass the final Microsoft PL-200 exam with good scores.

Exam PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Candidates for this exam perform discovery, capture requirements, engage subject matter experts and stakeholders, translate requirements, and configure Microsoft Power Platform solutions and apps. They create application enhancements, custom user experiences, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations.

Candidates implement the design provided by and in collaboration with a solution architect and the standards, branding, and artifacts established by user experience designers. They design integrations to provide seamless integration with third party applications and services.

Candidates actively collaborate with quality assurance team members to ensure that solutions meet functional and non-functional requirements. They identify, generate, and deliver artifacts for packaging and deployment to DevOps engineers, and provide operations and maintenance training to Microsoft Power Platform administrators.

Microsoft Power Platform functional consultants should be familiar with using Microsoft Power Platform components to extend and customize Microsoft apps and services such as Teams, Dynamics 365, Excel, and Word.

PL-200 Exam Details

Number of Questions: 40-60 questions Duration: 120 minutes Passing Score: 700 (1-1000) Cost: US$165 Language: English and Japanese

PL-200 Exam Objectives

The PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant certification prepares specialists to help businesses effectively use Power Platform products and tools. The PL-200 exam measures the candidate's skill in the following domains:

Configure Microsoft Dataverse (20-25%)

Create apps by using Microsoft Power Apps (15-20%)

Create and manage Microsoft Power Automate (15-20%)

Implement Microsoft Power Virtual Agents chatbots (10-15%)

Integrate Microsoft Power Apps with other apps and services (10-15%)

Manage solutions (15-20%)

View Online Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant PL-200 Free Questions

You need to embed the business card solution in the check-in app. What you use? A.control B.Button control C.Custom component D.Al Builder component Answer: D

You need to add controls to the check-in solution for the health and wellness questions. Which form control should you use? A.Drop down B.Check box C.Text input Answer: A

You need to design the resort portal’s email registration process. Which solution should you use? A.Default the invitation code from the email upon logging into the portal B.Auto-populate the invitation code field on the sign in screen from the email link C.Embed the invitation code in the email link URL D.Send the customer their username and temporary password in the email link Answer: C

You need to design the resort portal to meet the business requirements. Which data source should you use? A.Microsoft Excel B.Azure SQL Database C.SQL Server D.Common Data Service Answer: A

You need to create a Power Automate desktop flow. What are two possible ways to create the flow? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Record mouse and keyboard events. B.Configure a pre-built template. C.Use pre-built actions. D.Create models by using Microsoft Visio. Answer: A, C

A company creates a Microsoft Power Apps app through the Power Apps designer portal for use in Microsoft Teams. This app needs to be promoted to the user acceptance testing environment. You reed to complete the Microsoft recommended actions before you export the solution. Which two actions should you complete? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A.Write validation tests. B.Set the Optimized embedding appearance field to true. C.Publish all changes. D.Run the solution checker. E.Clone a solution. Answer: D, E

The sales manager receives a list of leads from a partner company monthly. The field names that are provided do not match the fields in Dynamics 365. A data map does not exist. You need to import the leads without changing the data from the partner company. What should you do? A.Create a data map in Data Management. B.Add a template for Import Data. C.Use Import Field Translations. D.Create a data map on the first import by using the Import Data wizard. Answer: D

You create functionality for a company. The functionality includes a Microsoft Dataverse table with a form for data entry. The functionality will be distributed to other lines of business in the company, each with its own Dataverse environment. New forms must not be created in order for updates to the functionality to work correctly. You need to package the new functionality for distribution. What should you do? A.Use a patch solution and disable the ability to create new forms for the table. B.Use a managed solution and include only the needed form. C.Use an unmanaged solution and include only the needed form. D.Use a managed solution and disable the ability to create new forms for the table. Answer: B

You are creating a canvas app. A user will click a button on each screen of a Power Apps app to proceed to the next screen. You need to implement an action that selects the next screen that the user sees. Which event should you handle? A.OnLoad B.OnCheck C.ScreenTransition D.OnSelect Answer: D

You need to be able to move a Power Automate desktop flow used in the verification process to the testing environment. What should you do? A.Share a copy of the desktop flow with a member of internal IT. B.Use the Export option in the flow to get the flow identifier and provide it to internal IT. C.Send a copy of the desktop flow to a member of internal IT. D.Create the desktop flow in a solution and provide it to internal IT. Answer: D

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Isaca CISA Certification Exam Questions

How To Become a Certified Information Systems Auditor? The Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) is a globally recognized certification designation for audit, assurance and security professionals. PassQuestion new updated Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) Certification Exam Questions to help you best prepare for your test and pass your CISA Certification exam successfully. It contains real CISA Certification exam questions and answers that would give you comprehensive and concise information about every topic of CISA Exam. We can guarantee that you can pass the Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) Certification exam in the first time.

What is Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)?

Validate your expertise and get the leverage you need to move up in your career. With ISACA's Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) certification, you can do just that. CISA is world-renowned as the standard of achievement for those who audit, control, monitor and assess an organization’s information technology and business systems.

CISA certification is foundational to a successful IT career. If you are an entry-level to mid-career professional, CISA can showcase your expertise and assert your ability to apply a risk-based approach to planning, executing and reporting on audit engagements. Gain instant credibility in your interactions with internal stakeholders, regulators, external auditors, and customers.

Exam Information

Exam Name: ISACA Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)

Exam Code: CISA

Exam Price ISACA Member: $575 (USD)

Exam Price ISACA Nonmember: $760 (USD)

Duration: 240 mins

Number of Questions: 150

Passing Score: 450/800

Exam Domain

Information Systems Auditing Process

Governance and Management of IT

Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation

Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Protection of Information Assets

Benefits of a CISA certification

The CISA certification is recognized worldwide as the sign of an individual's excellence within information system auditing. Benefits of a CISA certification include:

A competitive advantage in the job market and with job growth.

Increased value of the individual within the organization.

Increased credibility in the workplace. This is due to the combination of the achievement of passing the exam and the recognition of work and educational experience.

Assistance meeting high professional standards with ISACA's requirements and Continuing Professional Education program.

Confirmation of an individual's knowledge, experience and expertise in the field. Demonstration of their ability to successfully meet challenges that may arise.

View Online ISACA Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) Free Questions

1.Which of the following would be to MOST concern when determine if information assets are adequately safequately safeguarded during transport and disposal? A. Lack of appropriate labelling B. Lack of recent awareness training. C. Lack of password protection D. Lack of appropriate data classification Answer: D

2.When reviewing an organization's information security policies, an IS auditor should verify that the policies have been defined PRIMARILY on the basis of: A. a risk management process. B. an information security framework. C. past information security incidents. D. industry best practices. Answer: B

3.During an ongoing audit, management requests a briefing on the findings to date. Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST course of action? A. Review working papers with the auditee. B. Request the auditee provide management responses. C. Request management wait until a final report is ready for discussion. D. Present observations for discussion only. Answer: D

4.Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees? A. Periodic vendor reviews B. Dual control C. Independent reconciliation D. Re-keying of monetary amounts E. Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling. Answer: B

5.The implementation of an IT governance framework requires that the board of directors of an organization: A. Address technical IT issues. B. Be informed of all IT initiatives. C. Have an IT strategy committee. D. Approve the IT strategy. Answer: D

6.An organization's enterprise architecture (EA) department decides to change a legacy system's components while maintaining its original functionality. Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to understand when reviewing this decision? A. The current business capabilities delivered by the legacy system B. The proposed network topology to be used by the redesigned system C. The data flows between the components to be used by the redesigned system D. The database entity relationships within the legacy system Answer: A

7.IS management has recently disabled certain referential integrity controls in the database management system (DBMS) software to provide users increased query performance. Which of the following controls will MOST effectively compensate for the lack of referential integrity? A. More frequent data backups B. Periodic table link checks C. Concurrent access controls D. Performance monitoring tools Answer: B

8.Which of the following is MOST useful for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization's goals? A. Balanced scorecard B. Enterprise dashboard C. Enterprise architecture (EA) D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) Answer: B

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SAP C_S4FTR_2021 Real Questions

If you are looking for the tips to pass your SAP C_S4FTR_2021 exam, PassQuestion Treasury with SAP S/4HANA C_S4FTR_2021 Real Questions are designed to help you prepare for the real SAP C_S4FTR_2021 exam scenario and make you confident enough to perform well in it. The Treasury with SAP S/4HANA C_S4FTR_2021 Real Questions will help you evaluate your C_S4FTR_2021 exam preparation level and understand your weaknesses so that you can work on them before appearing for the actual SAP Certified Application Associate - Treasury with SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2021) C_S4FTR_2021 exam.

C_S4FTR_2021 Exam Description - SAP Certified Application Associate - Treasury with SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2021)

The 'SAP Certified Application Associate - Treasury with SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2021)' certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the fundamental and core knowledge required of SAP S/4HANA Cash Management and Treasury and Risk Management solution. This certification ensures the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team. This exam is recommended as verification the consultant is ready to contribute significantly to Cash Management and Treasury implementation projects. It puts the consultant in a position to be onboarded to an implementation project quickly and to contribute to the project's success right away. This certificate is the ideal starting point for a career as a Cash Management and Treasury consultant on SAP S/4HANA. The certificate issued for passing this exam will be valid for 5 years.

Exam Details

Exam Code: C_S4FTR_2021 Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Treasury with SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2021) Exam: 80 questions Cut Score: 60% Duration: 180 mins Languages: German, English

Topic Areas

Cash Operations> 12% Liquidity Management> 12% Bank Account Management> 12% Transaction Manager> 12% Financial Risk Management> 12% Hedge Management8% - 12% Payment Processing8% - 12%

View Online Treasury with SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2021) C_S4FTR_2021 Free Questions

1.Your company is using SAP Bank Communication Management. Which parameter determines if payments in the payment run are routed through SAP Bank Communication Management? A. Payment medium format B. Paying company code C. Payment run identification D. Payment method Answer: A

2.What are some factors to consider when using flow types in SAP Cash Management? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. The flow types from 20 to 80 are forecasted cash flows. B. They represent the source of the cash flow. C. They allow classification of customers and vendors in the cash forecast. D. They distinguish forecasted cash flows from confirmed cash flows. Answer: B,D

3.What are the available options when you configure the bank account revision process? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question. A. Activate sequentially B. Activate via workflow C. Activate via two-factor authorization D. Activate directly E. Activate via dual control Answer: A,B,E

4.Which cash management attributes are defined in the G/L account master record? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. Planning group B. Certainty level C. Planning level D. Relevance to cash flow Answer: C,D

5.Which G/L account type must be set when working with the bank reconciliation ledger? A. Cash account B. Balance sheet account C. Bank sub account D. Bank reconciliation account Answer: A

6.Which product types are part of the Money Market submodule? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question. A. Letters of credit B. Commercial paper C. Current account-style instrument D. Cash flow transaction E. Subscription rights Answer: B,C,D

7.You are implementing the SAP Hedge Management application for foreign exchange (FX) and hedge accounting functionality. You define a hedging profile that is used for the definition of the hedging area. What parameters are driven by the hedging profile? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. Designation types B. Product types for exposure subitems C. Effectiveness test method D. Hedging relationship scenario Answer: A,D

8.You are implementing Credit Risk Analyzer. Which of the following describes counterparty risk? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. It relates to a counterparty not fulfilling their contractual agreements. B. It is subdivided into credit risk and settlement risk. C. It is reportable in Market Risk Analyzer. D. It exists only during the settlement period of the trades. Answer: C,D

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IBM C1000-136 Practice Test Questions

If you are planning to take your IBM C1000-136 exam, PassQuestion C1000-136 Practice Test Questions are designed to give you the perfect preparation for the IBM Cloud Pak for Data v4.x Solution Architecture Exam. It is highly recommended for you to review the real C1000-136 Practice Test Questions several times to ensure that you can clear the IBM C1000-136 exam in the first attempt. PassQuestion can offer you the best C1000-136 Practice Test Questions which can help you to prepare IBM Cloud Pak for Data v4.x Solution Architecture C1000-136 Exam smoothly and efficiently.

IBM Certified Solution Architect - Cloud Pak for Data v4.x

An IBM Certified Solution Architect on Cloud Pak for Data V4.x is a person who can design, plan and architect a Data and AI solution in a hybrid cloud environment. This architect can lead and guide the implementation and operationalization of a solution that may include Data Governance (Data Ops), Analytics, and Data Science/Machine Learning/AI (ML Ops). They can do this with limited assistance from support, documentation, and/or relevant subject matter experts.

Exam Details

Exam Code: C1000-136 Exam Name: IBM Cloud Pak for Data v4.x Solution Architecture Number of questions: 63 Number of questions to pass: 42 Time allowed: 90 minutes Languages: English Certification: IBM Certified Solution Architect - Cloud Pak for Data v4.x

Exam Sections

Section 1: Cloud Pak for Data Architecture21% Section 2: Build Data Science algorithms14% Section 3: Machine Learning Operations16% Section 4: Analytics17% Section 5: Data Governance22% Section 6: Integration, Implementation, Deployment, and Scaling10%

View Online IBM Cloud Pak for Data v4.x Solution Architecture C1000-136 Free Questions

What is the purpose of an Industry Accelerator? A.Industry accelerators are architectural frameworks for planning your next data warehouse. B.Industry accelerators provided by third parties are data files used to complement data. C.Industry accelerators are methodologies to cleanse and manage data while making it available across an organization. D.Industry accelerators provided by IBM are a set of artifacts that help address common business issues. Answer: A

How does an external enterprise application communicate with Watson Machine Learning (WML) to score data? A.Kafka topic B.VPN tunnel C.REST API endpoint D.JDBC connection string Answer: C

What are two rungs of IBM's Al ladder? A.Store B.Analyze C.Develop D.Secure E.Collect Answer: B, E

A customer has data in an Oracle database and wants to sync their data assets to Watson Knowledge Catalog's default catalog. What type of connection do they need to add in the Information Assets view? A.RDP connection B.SFTP connection C.JDBC connection D.HTTPS connection Answer: C

Which statement is true about T-Shirt size scaling using Cloud Pak for Data? A.It can be changed any time but only for specific services. B.It can be changed any time but only be increased. C.It is only set at provisioning time. D.It can be changed any time but only for the entire platform. Answer: A

In the default configuration, where are IBM Cloud Pak for Data user accounts stored? A.LDAP B.OpenShift security database C.Internal repository database D.Db2 database Answer: C

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Check Point 156-835 Practice Test Questions

Are you ready to take your 156-835 Check Point Certified Maestro Expert exam? You can study PassQuestion CheckPoint 156-835 Practice Test Questions that cover all the important topics of the Check Point 156-835 Exam and help you pass your exam successfully on the first attempt. This 156-835 Practice Test Questions have been designed by the CheckPoint experts and the best thing is that one can download it easily without any problem. The 156-835 Practice Test Questions can improve your answering skills and confidence as well in your final Check Point Certified Maestro Expert 156-835 exam.

156-835 Exam Overview - Check Point Certified Maestro Expert

Check Point Certified Maestro Expert is a proctored exam inspiring thousands for people to become Maestro certified quickly. It's a bit tougher to get CCME certified, especially if you don't have a Maestro lab for testing. Earners of the Check Point Certified Maestro Expert Certification have completed instructor-led training in Check Point. Maestro Hyperscale Security training provides a complete understanding of salable platform infrastructure, necessary skills and practice to deploy and troubleshoot Maestro environment.

Maestro Expert (CCME) 156-835 exam is designed for administrators and Check Point resellers that offer Hyperscale Network Security as business and technical requirements change to accommodate massive network traffic growth. This course equips IT professionals as they work towards their Check Point Certified Maestro Expert (CCME) certification.

Exam Details

Exam code: 156-835 (proctored) Language: English Questions: 50 Time: 60 min Price: USD $250 Test Center: Pearson VUE

Exam Content

Introduction to Check Point Maestro Maestro Security Groups Dual Orchestrator Environment Using the Command Line Interface and WebUI Working with Security Group Modules Traffic Flow System Diagnostics Dual-Site Environment Incorporating VSX Troubleshooting

View Online Check Point Certified Maestro Expert 156-835 Free Questions

What command should be used for collecting diagnostic information about the orchestrator? A.cpinfo B.orch_info C.cpview D.asg pert -v Answer: B

On MHO-170 -- In default configuration, what are GAIA names of Security Group Management ports? A.eth1-Mgmt1 and eth1-Mgmt2 B.eth1-Mgmt1 and eth2-Mgmt1 C.eth1-Mgmt1 and eth1-Mgmt3 D.eth1-Mgmt3 and eth1-Mgmt4 Answer: C

What is a Security Group? A.Logical group of computer and network resources B.Group of security administrators C.Group of security gateways D.Group of appliances with enabled NGTX software blades Answer: C

What command will be used for updating fwkern.conf file on all Appliances within Security Group? A.g_update_conf_file B.g_update_kernel C.vi D.g_all update_conf_file Answer: D

In case of VSX: What is the right command to see overall performance details of all Appliances within the Security Group and all Virtual Systems? A.asg pert -v -p B.asg pert -vs all -v -vv C.asg pert -v D.asg pert -vs enabled -p Answer: B

What type of cluster can a Security Group can be compared to? A.VSLS B.Load Sharing Active /Active C.Active / Backup D.Active / Standby Answer: B

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HP HPE6-A69 Practice Test Questions

HPE6-A69 Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam is one of the required exams to achieve ACSX certification.  PassQuestion offers high-quality and reliable Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam HPE6-A69 Dumps that will help you prepare for the real exam. If you are going through all of our Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam HPE6-A69 Dumps, then it will become a lot easier for you to clear the HPE6-A69 exam on your first attempt. Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam HPE6-A69 Dumps will provide you with all the material that you need to prepare for the real exam. If you are using our HP HPE6-A69 questions and answers multiple times, then you will be able to achieve the best results.

Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam

This exam tests knowledge of expert implementation experience with Aruba wired switching solutions, including the ability to implement and optimize enterprise-level Aruba Switching campus LAN solutions. The candidate can resolve issues related to implementation and ongoing support, perform protocol level analysis, and problem resolution (e.g. analyzing the interaction between multiple devices using packet traces). This exam is the prerequisite to the Aruba Certified Switching Expert Practical exam (HPE4-A31).

Ideal candidate

The ideal candidate will typically have more than 5 years of of advanced networking experience focused on interpreting complex network architectures and customer requirements to implement, monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize multi-vendor network solutions. The successful candidate is very familiar with Aruba wired switching solutions.

Exam Information

Exam ID: HPE6-A69 Exam type: Proctored Exam duration: 1 hour 30 minutes Exam length: 60 questions Passing score: 73% Delivery languages: English

Exam Objectives7%     Plan the wired network solution

Given a set of customer requirements, create an implementation plan

51%    Install and configure the wired network solution

Identify the appropriate use of configuration methods (e.g. NetEdit, CLI, config Snippet, API, templates)

Given a multi-site, multi-vendor scenario, explain how to implement Layer 2 switching

Given a multi-site, multi-vendor scenario, explain how to implement an appropriate Layer 3 solution

Given a multi-site, multi-vendor scenario, explain how to implement security

Given a multi-site, multi-vendor scenario, explain how to implement an appropriate QoS solution

Given a multi-site, multi-vendor scenario, explain how to implement Aruba solution integration

Given a network design, apply appropriate NAE agents and apply to appropriate interfaces

30%   Troubleshoot the wired network solution

Given a scenario with multiple network issues, identify the causes

Given a scenario with multiple identified network issues, resolve the issues

Given a network security issue, explain the methodology to use for analyzing the issues

12%    Manage and monitor Aruba solutions

Given a scenario, determine an approach to optimize the network

View Online Aruba Certified Switching Expert Written Exam HPE6-A69 Free Questions

An administrator is utilizing the orchestration capabilities of NetEdit. What are the two plan types that can be created? (Select two.) A.Firmware plan B.Management plan C.Deployment plan D.Configuration plan Answer: A, D

The customer is already using Aruba Gateway and third-party L2 switches New ArubaOS CX 6300 switches have been deployed for R&D. which have a requirement for user profiling and tunneled traffic between ArubaOS CX 6300 and Aruba Gateway What is required for this configuration to apply QoS user-based rules for the R&D client traffic? A.Apply a QoS rule to the ArubaCX 6300 client port, lo classify traffic before it is tunneled. B.Apply a port-access policy with QoS defined in the user role on the ArubaOS CX6300 switch C.Manually prioritize IP protocol 47 traffic on the third-party switches to prioritize the tunneled traffic D.Create a QoS policy for the UBT-client-VLAN traffic on the third-party switch. Answer: A

You are working with a customer whos has a paw of Aruba 8325 switches configured for Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation The customer is complaining that users are experiencing intermittent packet drops. Which action should be taken to quickly aid you in identifying the cause? A.Enable debug of vri with "console" set as the destination B.Setup a mirror session to generate a Tshark file. C.Setup a mirror session to niter packets for TCPDUMP analysis D.Check the configured VLANs using "show vsx config-consistency" Answer: D

A customer is having a performance issue on the network and has received complaints about users experiencing Intermittent connectivity. After performing a packet capture, It is determined that there is unwanted UDP port 68 traffic being broadcast 6300W%wit To mitigate this issue, which ArubaOS-CX 6300M switch feature would be best to implement? A.dhcpv4-snooping B.private-vlan C.bcms-optimization D.broadcast-limit Answer: A

You have created an OSPF neighbor configuration with ArubaOS-CX 8320 VSX and a third-party switch The OSPF peering falls. In the event togs you see the following entries. 2020-10-28:03:14 20.371489|hpe-routlng|LOG_WARN|AMM|1/5jOSPFV2|OSPFV2iOSPF 268698624 Packet received with unexpected authentication type 2020-10-28:03:14.20.371503|hpe-routing|LOG_WARN|AMM|1/5|OSPFV2|OSPFV2|Expected authentication type = 0 Which statement is true about the above events? A.The ArubaOS-CX switch requires plain-text authentication with OSPF. B.The third-party switch should be configured with MD5 authentication C.The ArubaOS-CX switch does not expect authentication with OSPF. D.The third-party switch should be configured with key chain authentication Answer: D

[karonbill]

ServiceNow CIS-HAM Real Questions

Are you preparing for your CIS-HAM Certified Implementation Specialist - Hardware Asset Management exam? PassQuestion ServiceNow Hardware Asset Management CIS-HAM Real Questions are the best way to get yourself prepared for the CIS-HAM exam confidently. By means of the most recent ServiceNow Hardware Asset Management CIS-HAM Real Questions, you can boost your preparation level to take your final exam. With the use of ServiceNow Hardware Asset Management CIS-HAM Real Questions, you will be fully prepared for the ServiceNow CIS-HAM exam to pass on the very first attempt.

CIS-HAM Exam Overview - Certified Implementation Specialist - Hardware Asset Management

The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Hardware Asset Management (HAM) exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow ITSM Asset Management and ServiceNow Hardware Asset Management (HAM) applications.

Additional Recommended Experience

Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances

Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects, specifically ITSM Asset Management and Hardware Asset Management (HAM)

General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam TopicsIT Asset Management Overview & Fundamentals 20%

IT Asset Management Basics

Hardware Asset Lifecycle

Application Introduction and Recommended Practices

Implementing Hardware Asset Management in ServiceNow

Data Integrity – Attributes and Data Sources 27%

Trustworthy Data Fundamentals

Creating Trustworthy Data

Hardware Discovery and Normalization

HAM Hardware Model Normalization

Practical Management of IT Assets 30%

Consumables

Inventory and Stock

Automating Asset Management Lifecycle

Contract and Change Management

Operational Integration of IT Asset Management Processes 18%

Reports and Dashboards

Requests and Procurement

Extending Asset Management

Data Accuracy

Financial Management of IT Assets 5%

Hardware Contract Financials

IT Cost Management

View Online Certified Implementation Specialist - Hardware Asset Management CIS-HAM Free Questions

How do you calculate residual value? A.Subtract the amortized value from the cost of the asset B.Subtract storage and lease cost from the cost of the asset C.Subtract the depreciation from the cost of the asset D.Subtract the salvage value from the cost of the asset Answer: D

What is the name of the scheduled job that generates expense lines based on rate cards? A.Process Daily Costs B.Process FM Costs C.Process Daily Allocations D.Process Expense Allocations Answer: C

What are some examples of operational expenses of managing an asset throughout its lifecycle? (Choose two.) A.Replacement parts B.Storage costs C.Maintenance agreements D.Warranty costs Answer: A, C

What information would you find on the End of Life tab of the Hardware Asset dashboard? (Choose two.) A.Hardware asset disposal status B.New hardware assets found by audits C.Hardware assets disposed (YTD) D.Consumable models up for End of Life Answer: A, D

What is the primary goal of the Inventory tab of the Hardware Asset Management dashboard? A.Help the asset manager generate reports B.Show the value from maintaining inventory C.Help the stock manager process transfer orders D.Show the value from bulk purchasing E.Help the asset manager process purchase orders Answer: A

The Hardware Asset Management (HAM) application expands baseline ITSM Asset Management with which features? (Choose three.) A.Mobile Asset Receiving B.Mobile My Assets C.Hardware Model Normalization D.Hardware Asset Dashboard E.Stockrooms F.Asset & Model Records G.Asset Inventory Audit Answer: B, F, G

When viewing the Model Management tab of the Hardware Asset dashboard, you see that several models are reported as Match Not Found. What are potential causes of this? (Choose three.) A.You have opted out of the Content Service B.The content is not available from the Content Service C.Your model form contains a good Model number, but a bad model Name D.Something on your model form may be badly formatted E.The content has not been downloaded from the Content Service Answer: C, D, E

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Pegasystems PEGAPCLSA86V2 Practice Test Questions

Are you preparing for Lead System Architect (LSA) Pega Architecture Exam 86V2 exam? PassQuestion LSA architecture 8.6 PEGAPCLSA86V2 Practice Test Questions are closed towards the real exam and can cover all of the topics with ease. By preparing the LSA architecture 8.6 PEGAPCLSA86V2 Practice Test Questions, your probabilities of passing the Pegasystems PEGAPCLSA86V2 exam will definitely boost. Once you have gone through all the LSA architecture 8.6 PEGAPCLSA86V2 Practice Test Questions provided by us, you will be able to clear PCLSA certification PEGAPCLSA86V2 exam on your first attempt.

Pega LSA Architecture Exam

The Pega Certified Lead System Architect (PCLSA) certification program is intended for Pega Certified Senior System Architects (PCSSAs) with at least 12+ months of field experience. The Pega Architecture exam is the first exam in the PCLSA certification process.

The Pega LSA Architecture Version 8.6 exam focuses on design and architecture of Pega applications. The LSA role is broad in scope: The exam covers material throughout the entire SA, SSA, advanced topics, & LSA course curriculum. The exam includes scenario questions, multiple choice questions and drag/drop items. If multiple answers are required, the text states how many answers are needed. PCLSA certification requires passing the Pega Architecture Exam and an Application design/build. Pega Senior Certified System Architect (P/CSSA) certification in any version is required to start the PCLSA certification program.

The Pega Architecture Exam is the first of two exams that are required for Pega Certified Lead System Architect certification. The Lead System Architect Application Build is required after successful completion of the Pega Architecture exam.

Certified Pega Lead System Architect version 8.6 Certification Path:

Lead System Architect (8.6) mission Hands-on experience Exam Code: PEGAPCLSA86V2 Type of Exam: 60-question exam, including scenario, multiple choice, and drag and drop questions Length: 120 minutes Passing Grade: 65%

Topics include:

Pega Platform Design Application Design Data Model Design User Experience Design Security Design Reporting Design Asynchronous Processing Design Work Delegation Design Deployment and Testing Design

View Online LSA architecture 8.6 PEGAPCLSA86V2 Free Questions

You oversee a medium-size development team, and some of the team members are new to pega. What are the most efficient ways to ensure that the rules the team creates adhere to best practices? (choose two) A. Have new team members create and run Pega automated unit tests against their rules. B. Use Pega Log Analyzer to identify exceptions associated with the new team members. C. Run Tracer on each rule the new team members check in to identify an failures in rule execution. D. Leverage the rule check-in approval process to review the new team member’s changes first. Answer: A,D

The SLA and the customer's system administrator are reviewing scenarios that do not require an application server restart. Select three scenarios from this list. (choose three) A. When deploying rule only hotflxes B. When changing the prweb web.xml file C. When changing the system name D. When the deploying new rules E. When the prlogging.xml file is modified Answer: A,D,E

The BigCo quoting application is currently on-premise. BigCo plans to move the application to Pega Cloud. What factor do you need to consider for environment setup? A. Network security configuration B. Database access configuration C. System management application configuration D. Log file access configuration Answer: D

Which two actions can yon perform to improve the guardrails compliance score of an application? (Choose two) A. Ensure keyed data classes are not mapped to pr-other where possible. B. Convert activities that only retrieve data to data transforms that invoke data pages. C. Achieve a higher application level test coverage percentage score. D. Increase the percentage of unit tests and scenario tests that pass. Answer: A,B

You manage a 30-person development team with members located across the globe. Which Pega Cloud environment best supports the needs of your team? A. Large sandbox B. Standard sandbox C. Large development instance D. Preproduction instance Answer: C

A call center uses Pega Customer Service. Where does Pega Customer Service fit into the enterprise architecture? A. Pega Customer Set vice is the customer and account enterprise service bus. B. Pega Customer Service is the customer interaction system of record. C. Pega Customer Service is the billing and reporting system of record. D. Pega Customer Service is the new customer onboarding system. Answer: B

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IBM S1000-007 Practice Test Questions

If you want to prepare for IBM S1000-007 Exam, You will get a set of the latest S1000-007 Practice Test Questions which are the best learning source for self-study for the S1000-007 IBM AIX v7 Administrator Specialty Exam. You just have to use PassQuestion S1000-007 Practice Test Questions to memorize the S1000-007 real questions and answers, and you will be ready to take your S1000-007 IBM AIX v7 Administrator Specialty Exam. We are quite confident that with PassQuestion S1000-007 Practice Test Questions you will get everything that you need to pass the final IBM S1000-007 exam with flying colors.

IBM AIX v7 Administrator Specialty

An individual who has completed the IBM AIX V7 Administrator Specialty has acquired limited experience working with AIX V7.  This individual has a broad understanding of AIX administration tasks, can operate with guidance, knows where to look for answers, and can apply this knowledge.

Exam Details

Exam Code: S1000-007 Exam Name: IBM AIX v7 Administrator Specialty Number of questions: 46 Number of questions to pass: 31 Time allowed: 75 minutes Languages: English

Exam Sections

Section 1: System Management  18% Section 2: Software Management  13% Section 3: Storage Management  17% Section 4: System & Network Security  11% Section 5: Network Management  13% Section 6: Performance Management & Tuning  13% Section 7: Problem Determination & Management  15%

View Online IBM AIX v7 Administrator Specialty S1000-007 Free Questions

Which two additional commands should an AIX V7.2 administrator run after mirroring the rootvg with mirrorvg command? A.bosboot B.varyonvg C.bootlist D.reboot E.synclvodro Answer: A, C

Which command should be used to perform a graceful shutdown and reboot of an AIX LPAR? A.bosboot B.shutdown C.halt D.reboot Answer: B

How are console log messages recorded by AIX? A.alog B.syslog C.rsyslog D.errdemon Answer: C

An administrator finds that their development server has crashed and an error code 554 is displayed. They know that this error is typically associated with a problem executing varyon rootvg and they should boot from AIX Media to be able to perform maintenance tasks. When the administrator checks the crontab of the NIM server, they find that a mksysb image is created each night. Can the administrator use this mlcsysb to boot the server and perform the required maintenance tasks? A.Yes, but they may need to create a machine resource first. B.Yes, but they may need to create a spot first. C.No, because they need to use the original AIX installation media for that server. D.No, because mksysb is not bootable. Answer: D

Which statement is true regarding the snap command? A.It collects performance related data. B.By default, it will check there is enough space where the data is to be stored. C.C. All options are enabled by default. D.The data must be stored in /tmp. Answer: A

An application administrator needs an account on the AIX server, but does not know it which group it should belong. What is the default group for AIX users, if one was not specified during creation of the account? A.no group B.the group name will be the same as the user name C.users D.staff Answer: B

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HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 H35-480_V3.0 Exam Questions

If you are thinking about appearing for the HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 H35-480_V3.0-ENU exam, then PassQuestion H35-480_V3.0-ENU HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 Exam Questions are made for you. It will help you to achieve the HCIA-5G-RAN Certification exam with good grades. PassQuestion provides the best-designed quality H35-480_V3.0-ENU HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 Exam Questions that can help you to achieve the Huawei H35-480_V3.0-ENU exam without any problem. You will get the real questions of the H35-480_V3.0-ENU test with their expertly verified answers from all the topics to help you enhance your knowledge in the exam. You are guaranteed to pass your H35-480_V3.0-ENU HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 exam successfully in your first attempt.

HCIA-5G-RAN Certification

Holding HCIA-5G-RAN certification proves you have the capability of independently completing the commissioning and deployment of Huawei 5G radio networks, performing routine operations and onsite maintenance for Huawei 5G wireless base stations, and handling Huawei 5G radio network faults under the guidance of others.

HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 Exam Details

Certification: HCIA-5G-RAN Exam Code: H35-480 Exam Name: HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 Language: ENU Exam Format: Single answer, Multiple answer, True-false question Exam Cost: 200USD Exam Duration: 90 mins Pass Score/Total Score: 600/1000

Exam Contents

The HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 exam covers:

5G Principle Basics      25%

5G Base Station Product Basics      30%

Overview of Basic 5G Wireless Network Features       20%

5G Wireless Network Test and Problem Analysis      25%

Knowledge Points5G Principle Basics (25%)

5G Overview

5G Network Architecture and Interface

Introduction to the 5G Physical Layer

Typical 5G Processes

5G Base Station Product Basics (30%)

Basics of 5G Base Station Hardware

Basic Operations on 5G Base Stations

Software Commissioning for 5G Base Station Equipment

Overview of Basic 5G Wireless Network Features (20%)

NSA Networking based on EPC

Mobility

Scheduling

MIMO

Power Control

5G Wireless Network Test and Problem Analysis (25%)

RF Tool Introduction

5G Single Site Verification

5G Service Test

View Online HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 H35-480_V3.0-ENU Free Questions

Which of the following devices is used to implement service slicing on the 5G RAN side? A.Antenna B.BBU C.AAU D.RRU Answer: B

What is the required distance between a CPE and a gNodeB in a 5G network test? A.Less than 10m B.Greater than 5m C.Less than 5m D.Greater than 10m Answer: B

According to 5G eMBB service requirements, which of the following is the minimum rate required for network edge coverage? A.1 Gbps B.100Mbps C.1Mbps D.10Gbps Answer: B

During 5G single site verification, you only need to test the user access and rate. Other test items are analyzed in drive tests. A.True B.False Answer: B

During a 5G service test, an NSA UE connects to the Probe and then accesses a 4G cell. It is found that the cell does not deliver B1 measurement configurations. Which of the following is not a possible cause for this? A.The UE does not support EN-DC. B.The NSA switch is not turned on. C.Neighboring LTE cells and SCGs are not configured. D.The B1 threshold is too high. Answer: C

Which of the following messages is the first message sent by a gNodeB to an AMF? A.NGAP_UL_NAS_TRANSP B.RRC_SETUP C.NGAP_INIT_CONTEXT_SETUP_RSP D.NGAP_INIT_UE_MSG Answer: C

During a 5G test, a portable computer is directly connected to the LAN port of the Huawei CPE through a network cable to obtain a dynamic IP address for communication. A.True B.False Answer: B

Which of the following can be used to check whether an antenna is reversely connected during NR single site verification? A.Fixed-point CQT B.DT around the site C.Transmission test D.VSWR test Answer: C