Don't wanna be here? Send us removal request.
Statistics
We looked inside some of the posts by studentehelp8 and here's what we found interesting.
Average Info
Notes Per Post
0
Likes Per Post
0
Reblog Per Post
0
Reply Per Post
0
Time Between Posts
1 day
Number of Posts By Type
Text
17
Last Seen Tumblr Blogs
Fun Fact
Tumblr was attacked by a cross-site scripting worm deployed by the Internet troll group GNAA on Dec 3, 2012.
Text
STR 581 Final Exam Part 3
Buy A+ grade tutorial for STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 3, capstone final examination part 3, str 581 week 6 capstone final exam part 3, str 581 week 6 capstone final exam part 3 through Studentehelp portal.
1. A company that attempts to lead its industry in price and convenience by pursuing a focus on lean and efficient operations is pursuing what strategy?
Operational excellence
Low-cost leadership
Customer intimacy
Product leadership
2. One of the ways to change the course of a brand is to modify the product. Under product modification, ________ adds size, weight, materials, supplements, and accessories that expand the product’s performance, versatility, safety, or convenience.
technological improvement
feature improvement
style improvement
quality improvement
3. Marketers need to identify the hierarchy of attributes that guide consumer decision making in order to understand different competitive forces and how these various sets get formed. This process of identifying the hierarchy is called ________.
market estimation
brand association
market partitioning
market valuation
4. This is designed to check systematically and continuously whether the premises on which the strategy is based are still valid
Special alert control
Strategic surveillance
Implementation control
Premise control
5. A firm must know where to position its product based on price and
promotional efforts
quality
communication
region
6. When performing this analysis, it is good for strategic planners to consider similarities between the benefits the customers derive from the products and services that other firms offer.
Competitive analysis
Business analysis
Customer analysis
Company analysis
7. What is the perceived monetary value of the bundle of economic, functional, and psychological benefits customers expect from a given market offering because of the product, service, people, and image?
Ultimate service benefit
Complete marketing benefit
Total customer benefit
Total management benefit
8. A valuable result of task environment analysis with respect to geographic, demographic, psychographic and buyer-behavior factors is called
competitor profile
financial position
vendor profile
customer profile
9. The ability to meet humanity’s needs without harming future generations is now a top priority in most corporate agenda
ethics
sustainability
rules
righteousness
10. Large-scale, future-oriented plans for interacting with the competitive environment to achieve the company objective refers to its
strategy
dynamic policies
competitive analysis
goals
11. With ________ as a target market strategy, the firm concentrates on serving many needs of a particular customer group.
single-segment concentration
product specialization
market specialization
selective specialization
12. Company X's principal strength is its inbound and outbound logistics system; its relative weakness, however, is after-sales service. Its competitor, Company Y, however is often plagued with lagging shipments and an inflexible distribution setup. Company Y remains successful because it maintains a fully staffed service department and, as a result, the company is known for its dependable service. This type of analysis allows them to identify ways to build on relative strengths and avoid dependence on capabilities at which the other firm excels.
Disaggregating
Benchmarking
Past performance comparison
Industry comparison
13. The strategic factor that involves the beliefs, values, attitudes, opinions, and lifestyles of persons in the firm’s external environment, as developed from cultural, ecological, demographic, religious, educational, and ethnic conditioning.
Political factor
Stakeholder factor
Economic factor
Social factor
14. Leaders galvanize commitment to embrace change through clarifying strategic intent, building an organization, and
shaping organizational culture
developing a vision
developing a mission
planning strategy
15. How do functional tactics compare to business strategies?
Functional tactics are more focused on the general direction of the firm than business strategies.
Functional tactics are more focused on a commitment to corporate strategy than business strategies.
Functional tactics are more specific than business strategies.
Functional tactics are more long-term than business strategies.
16. Under which of the following conditions is the frequency the most important factor in media selection?
When introducing flanker brands
When going into undefined target markets
When launching infrequently purchased brands
When there is high consumer resistance to the product
17. New-to-the-world products are ________.
new product enhancements that supplement established products
low-cost products designed to obtain an edge in highly competitive markets
new products that create an entirely new market
existing products that are targeted to new geographical markets
18. BMW’s "The ultimate driving machine," American Express' "Don't leave home without it," New York Times' "All the news that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out and touch someone" are all examples of ________.
brand mission
brand vision
brand slogan
brand personality
19. Which component of a marketing audit includes major developments in income, prices, savings, and credit that affect the company?
Economic
Political
Cultural
Technological
20. Prestige LLC, a small company that manufactures specialty cereals and energy bars, wants to launch a "green marketing" program in response to heightened consumer awareness about environmental issues. What should the company do to maximize the program's chances of being successful?
Explain the rules and regulations laid out by governmental agencies to protect the environment.
Focus on the efforts and costs incurred by the company to bring these "green" products to consumers.
Emphasize benefits to the consumer rather than environmental benefits.
Demonstrate that the products will benefit both customers and the society in the long-term.
21. When diversification involves additions of a business related to the firm in terms of technology, markets or products, it involves
vertical diversification
concentric diversification
horizontal integration
concentrated growth
22. These social responsibilities are those that are voluntarily assumed by a business or organization. They include public relations activities, good citizenship, and full corporate social responsibility.
Economic responsibility
Legal responsibility
Employee responsibility
Discretionary responsibility
23. Which control should periodically reassess its approach to the marketplace with a good marketing audit?
Strategic control
Marketing control
Ethical control
Performance control
24. What type of strategy consists of geographical pricing, price discounts and allowances, promotional pricing, and differentiated pricing?
Regular prices
Fixed pricing
Price adaptation
Altered pricing
25. A set of ideas on organizational control based on the belief that the separation of the ownership from management creates the potential for the wishes of owners to be ignored refers to
agency theory
the moral hazard problem
Adam’s theory
ethical responsibilities
26. Firms using this generic strategy attempt to build customer loyalty by stressing a specific product attribute above other product qualities.
Cost leadership
Concentrated growth
Focus
Differentiation
27. A company can learn a great deal by analyzing the degrees of brand loyalty. For example, ________ can show the firm which brands are most competitive with its own.
switchers
hard-core loyals
shifting loyals
split loyals
28. This is an important structural decision and resultant separate activities need to be coordinated and integrated back together as a whole so the business functions effectively.
Broadening
Differentiation
Diversification
Preferencing
29. This is a historically popular technique through which managers create a quick overview of a company's strategic situation—it is based on achieving a sound fit between internal resources and the external situation.
Internal analysis
Value chain analysis
External analysis
SWOT analysis
30. The marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which stage of the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place?
Step 4 – analyzing the information
Step 5 – drafting the report
Step 1 – defining the problem
Step 2 – developing the research plan
Strategic Planning & Implementation – str581 Course Content include Topics and Objectives for STR 581 Capstone Final Exam Part 3
STR 581 Capstone Final Exam Part 3 has a well-defined syllabus. We have presented the entire syllabus with both compulsory and optional modules for the Strategic Planning & Implementation Course. Past trend suggests that the focus of exam has changed year-on-year. So, we have covered the entire topics important for the exam. The course is designed to give students a thorough background in the latest advances in environmental scanning, strategic analysis, corporate social responsibility, implementation and evaluation, and risk management.
Internal Capabilities and Resources
Strategic Choice and Evaluation
Create and Sell Your Business Plan
Implementation, Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans
Mission, Vision, and Values
External Environmental Scanning
Read more at - STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 3
#str 581 capstone final exam part 3#str 581 capstone exam part 3#str 581 final exam part 3#str 581 week 6 capstone final exam part 3
0 notes
Text
STR 581 Final Exam Part 2
STR 581 Capstone Final Examination, Part 2
1. Internal reports that review the actual impact of decisions are prepared by:
the controller
department heads
factory workers
management accountants
2. Horizontal analysis is also known as:
trend analysis
vertical analysis
linear analysis
common size analysis
3. Which of the following is an advantage of corporations relative to partnerships and sole proprietorships?
most common form of organization
reduced legal liability for investors
lower taxes
harder to transfer ownership
4. Serox stock was selling for $20 two years ago. The stock sold for $25 one year ago, and it is currently selling for $28. Serox pays a $1.10 dividend per year. What was the rate of return for owning Serox in the most recent year? (Round to the nearest percent.)
32%
16%
12%
40%
5. External financing needed: Jockey Company has total assets worth $4,417,665. At year-end it will have net income of $2,771,342 and pay out 60 percent as dividends. If the firm wants no external financing, what is the growth rate it can support?
30.3%
27.3%
32.9%
25.1%
6. An unrealistic budget is more likely to result when it:
has been developed by all levels of management.
has been developed in a top down fashion.
has been developed in a bottom up fashion.
is developed with performance appraisal usages in mind.
7. Which of the following financial statements is concerned with the company at a point in time?
balance sheet
retained earnings statement
statement of cash flows
income statement
8. Next year Jenkins Traders will pay a dividend of $3.00. It expects to increase its dividend by $0.25 in each of the following three years. If their required rate of return if 14 percent, what is the present value of their dividends over the next four years?
$12.50
$11.63
$9.72
$13.50
9. An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n):
product activity
cost driver
cost pool
overhead rate
10. The major element in budgetary control is:
the approval of the budget by the stockholders
the valuation of inventories
the preparation of long-term plans
the comparison of actual results with planned objectives.
11. Tule Time Comics is considering a new show that will generate annual cash flows of $100,000 into the infinite future. If the initial outlay for such a production is $1,500,000 and the appropriate discount rate is 6 percent for the cash flows, then what is the profitability index for the project?
0.11
1.11
0.90
1.90
12. How firms estimate their cost of capital: The WACC for a firm is 13.00 percent. You know that the firm’s cost of debt capital is 10 percent and the cost of equity capital is 20% What proportion of the firm is financed with debt?
70%
50%
33%
30%
13. The most important information needed to determine if companies can pay their current obligations is the:
relationship between current assets and current liabilities
relationship between short-term and long-term liabilities
projected net income for next year
net income for this year
14. Process costing is used when:
dissimilar products are involved
production is aimed at fulfilling a specific customer order.
the production process is continuous.
costs are to be assigned to specific jobs.
15. A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a:
fixed cost
mixed cost
manufacturing cost
variable cost
16.The group of users of accounting information charged with achieving the goals of the business is its:
investors
auditors
creditors
managers
17. Teakap, Inc. has current assets of $1,456,312 and total assets of $4,812,369 for the year ending September 30, 2006. It also has current liabilities of $1,041,012, common equity of $1,500,000 and retained earnings of $1,468,347. How much long-term debt does the firm have?
$803,010
$2,303,010
$1,844,022
$2,123,612
18. The cash conversion cycle?
begins when the firm invests cash to purchase the raw materials that would be used to produce the goods that the firm manufactures.
estimates how long it takes on average for the firm to collect its outstanding accounts receivables balance.
begins when the firm uses its cash to purchase raw materials and ends when the firm collects cash payments on its credit sales.
shows how long the firm keeps its inventory before selling it.
19. Ajax Corp. is expecting the following cash flows - $79,000, $112,000, $164,000, $84,000, and $242,000 – over the next five years. If the company’s opportunity cost is 15 percent, what is the present value of these cash flows? (Round to the nearest dollar.)
$480,906
$429,560
$414,322
$477,235
20. Jack Robbins is saving for a new car. He needs to have $21,000 for the car in three years. How much will he have to invest today in an account paying 8 percent annually to achieve his target? (Round to nearest dollar)
$26,454
$19,444
$22,680
$16,670
21. Which of the following presents a summary of changes in a firm’s balance sheet from the beginning of an accounting period to the end of that accounting period?
the statement of net worth
the statement of cash flows
the statement of working capital
the statement of retained earnings
22. M&M Proposition 1: Dynamo Corp. produces annual cash flows of $150 and is expected to exist forever. The company is currently financed with 75 percent equity and 25 percent debt. Your analysis tells you that the appropriate discount rates are 10 percent for the cash flows, and 7 percent for the debt. You currently own 10 percent of the stock.
If Dynamo wishes to change its capital structure from 75 percent equity to 60 percent equity and use the debt proceeds to pay a special dividend to shareholders, how much debt should they use?
$225
$600
$375
$321
23. Horizontal analysis is a technique for evaluating a series of financial statement data over a period of time:
that has been arranged from the highest number to the lowest number.
to determine the amount and/or percentage increase or decrease that has taken place.
to determine which items are in error.
that has been arranged from the lowest number to the highest number.
24. Jayadev Athreya has started his first job. He will invest $5,000 at the end of each year for the next 45 years in a fund that will earn a return of 10 percent. How much will Jayadev have at the end of 45 years?
$2,667,904
$5,233,442
$1,745,600
$3,594,524
25. Turnbull Corp. had an EBIT of $247 million in the last fiscal year. Its depreciation and amortization expenses amounted to $84 million. The firm has 135 million shares outstanding and a share price of $12.80. A competing firm that is very similar to Turnbull has an enterprise value/EBITDA multiple of 5.40.
What is the enterprise value of Turnbull Corp.? Round to the nearest million dollars.
$1,344 million
$453.6 million
$1,315 million
$1,787 million
26. Firms that achieve higher growth rates without seeking external financing:
Have a low plowback ratio
are highly leveraged
have less equity and/or are able to generate high net income leading to a high ROE.
None of these
27. In a process cost system, product costs are summarized:
on job cost sheets.
when the products are sold.
after each unit is produced.
on production cost reports.
28. The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles:
within industries
among accounting periods
throughout the accounting period
among firms
29. If a company’s weighted average cost of capital is less than the required return on equity, then the firm:
is financed with more than 50% debt
is perceived to be safe
partnership
has debt in its capital structure
30. Your firm has an equity multiplier of 2.47. What is the debt-to-equity ratio?
0
1.74
0.60
1.47
31. The accumulation of accounting data on the basis of the individual manager who has the authority to make day-to-day decisions about activities in an area is called:
master budgeting
static reporting
responsibility accounting
flexible accounting
32. Regatta, Inc., has six-year bonds outstanding that pay a 8.25 percent coupon rate. Investors buying the bond today can expect to earn a yield to maturity of 6.875 percent. What should the company’s bonds be priced at today? Assume annual coupon payments. (Round to the nearest dollar.)
$1014
$972
$923
$1,066
33. Variance reports are:
internal reports for management
SEC financial reports
external financial reports
all of these
34. The break-even point is where:
contribution margin equals total fixed costs.
total sales equal total variable costs.
total sales equal total fixed costs.
total variable costs equal total fixed costs.
35. When a company assigns the costs of direct materials, direct labor, and both variable and fixed manufacturing overhead to products, that company is using:
operations costing
product costing
absorption costing
variable costing
36. Which of the following is considered a hybrid organizational form?
sole proprietorship
partnership
limited liability partnership
corporation
37. Gateway, Corp. has an inventory turnover of 5.6. What is the firm’s days’s sales in inventory?
57.9
61.7
65.2
64.3
38. The process of evaluating financial data that change under alternative courses of action is called:
incremental analysis
contribution margin analysis
cost-benefit analysis
double entry analysis
39. What decision criteria should managers use in selecting projects when there is not enough capital to invest in all available positive NPV projects?
the modified internal rate of return
the profitability index
the discounted payback
the internal rate of return
Read more at - STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 2
#STR 581 Capstone Final Exam Part 2#str 581 capstone final examination part 2 answers#str 581 final exam part 2
0 notes
Text
STR 581Final Exam Part 1
STR 581 Capstone Final Examination, Part 1
Question 1 Because practical considerations make job tryouts for all candidates infeasible, it is necessary to __________ the relative level of job performance for each candidate on the basis of available information. Answer
predict
accept
assign
abandon
Question 2 Some studies indicate the best approach for transformational change may have the chief executive officer create an atmosphere for change Answer
but let others decide how to initiate change
and begin establishing a vision
but carefully set limits for the program
and establish a reward system
Question 3 Which of the following is a desirable strategy for managers aiming to reduce the negative consequences of rumors? Answer
Initiating disciplinary action against the employee who started the rumor
Encouraging employees to communicate their concerns and suggestions
Creating a more informal communication environment at the workplace
Refusing to comment on issues that appear to be controversial and unfair
Question 4 A project can be segmented into which of the following? Answer
Work packages
Success markers
Sub-jobs
Events
Question 5 Which of the following is an element that addresses elimination of waste under lean production? Answer
Group plant loading technology
Minimized run times
Production ahead of demand
Kanban production control system
Question 6 The Civil Rights Act of 1991 offered what for victims of unintentional discrimination? Answer
race norming
adverse impact
affirmative action
monetary damages and jury trials
Question 7 Active listening requires: Answer
summarizing all areas of the performance-interview feedback discussion.
verbal communications only
summarizing only the areas of agreement
interruptions to get your point across
Question 8 Which of the following is ISO 14000 primarily concerned with? Answer
Time management
Quality management
Environmental management
Continuous improvement management
Question 9 Training that results in ______ is costly because of the cost of training (which proved to be useless) and the cost of hampered performance. Answer
negative transfer of training
applicability of training
reinforcement of training
simulation of training
Question 10 As a university student, your institution’s social principles and practices reflect on you, as a stakeholder, in the organization. Therefore, it is your right to question how these practices should be evaluated in relation to the social issues that the school is addressing. If your university provides job-share programs, builds a day-care facility, and only uses recycled paper, it could be said to be ________. Answer
fulfilling its social obligation
socially image conscious
socially responsive
socially aware
Question 11 According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which Answer
a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
a job generates direct and clear information about performance
a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion
Question 12 Which of the following is considered a major process flow structure? Answer
Lean Manufacturing
Project
Lead Time
Fabrication
Question 13 An example of control criteria that can be used in any situation is ________. Answer
employee satisfaction
average time to process paperwork
client requests completed per hour
number of calls taken per day
Question 14 What can affirmative action assist organizations in achieving that diversity initiatives cannot?
Answer
Maximizing creativity
Maximizing workforce commitment
Correcting specific problems of the past
Increased productivity
Question 15 Adoration of a charismatic leader by followers can lead to Answer
greater understanding of the company mission
difficulty in developing a successor
a competitive work environment
limiting suggestions of fixes and improvements
Question 16 Which of the following is considered an organizational blueprint, which prescribes the quantity and time frame for when each end product will be assembled? Answer
WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
MRP (Material Requirements Plan)
ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning)
MPS (Master Production Schedule)
Question 17 In performing a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered as a threat? Answer
Lack of a strategic plan
Competitors
Recognized brand
Increased product demand
Question 18 When an employee volunteers to run a canned food drive, this is an example of Answer
employee happiness
employee productivity
organizational citizenship behavior
job satisfaction
Question 19 Conflicts can be resolved by withdrawing from them or suppressing them. This conflict-management technique is known as ________.
Answer
compromising
forcing
accommodating
avoiding
Question 20 Sam Meyers manages a telemarketing call center. He has 20 employees working for him who are displeased with the way he yells and threatens to terminate them for what they see as small issues. Which kind of power is Sam using to get the job done? Answer
Reward power
Referent power
Coercive power
Legitimate power
Question 21 In _____, workers have been fired for refusing to quit smoking, for living with someone without being married, drinking a competitor’s product, motorcycling, and other legal activities outside of work. Answer
invasion of privacy
lifestyle discrimination
defamation
constructive discharge
Question 22 Mary arrives at her new job. Before she can begin actually doing the work, she must complete a series of activities including role playing and virtual reality interactions. What type of training method does Mary’s new employer use? Answer
Simulation
Information presentation
On-the-job training
Organizational development
Question 23 Which of the following is one of Dr. Eli Goldratt's rules of production scheduling for optimized production technology? Answer
Utilization and activation of a resource are not the same.
If you lose an hour at a bottleneck it is better than making scrap.
An hour saved at a bottleneck operation does not increase the process flow.
Do not allow bottlenecks to govern the flow of the line.
Question 24 Deming’s PDCA (plan, do, check, and act) cycle underlies what inherent Six Sigma principle? Answer
Standard deviation
Project management
Control charting
Continuous improvement
Question 25 ________ refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. Answer
Emotional contagion
Self-determination
Self-efficacy
Affect intensity
Question 26 ____________ is the biggest hurdle to overcome in a pay-for-performance plan. Answer
Inflation
Merit-pay increases
Salary cap performance level
Compensation equation
Question 27 In order to make their firm a learning organization, managers should Answer
avoid the use of cross-functional teams
penalize mistakes
reinforce interdependence and reduce boundaries
increase the degree of departmentalization
Question 28 During the implementation of a project, which of the following should be the primary focus of a consulting firm? Answer
People management skills
Application of the learning curve theory
The correct project software
Tools and materials availability
Question 29 The concept that some leadership attributes will work in some situations but not in others can be described by the Answer
leadership effectiveness theory
behavioral theory
contingency theory
tactical theory
Question 30 Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics? Answer
All tactics are equally effective with regard to upward influence.
Individuals from collectivist cultures are typically more likely to use soft tactics that reflect personal power.
Soft tactics are less effective than hard tactics when used individually
The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics.
Strategic Planning & Implementation – str581 Course Content include Topics and Objectives for STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 1
STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 1 has a well-defined syllabus. We have presented the entire syllabus with both compulsory and optional modules for the Strategic Planning & Implementation Course. Past trend suggests that the focus of exam has changed year-on-year. So, we have covered the entire topics important for the exam. The course is designed to give students a thorough background in the latest advances in environmental scanning, strategic analysis, corporate social responsibility, implementation and evaluation, and risk management.
Internal Capabilities and Resources
Strategic Choice and Evaluation
Create and Sell Your Business Plan
Implementation, Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans
Mission, Vision, and Values
External Environmental Scanning
Read more at STR 581 Capstone Final Examination Part 1
0 notes
Text
MKT 421 Final Exam
Question 1
Which of the following statements best describes the modern view of marketing?
Answer
A. Marketing is concerned with generating a single exchange between a firm and a customer.
B. The job of marketing is to get rid of whatever the company is producing.
C. Marketing should take over production, accounting, and financial services within a firm.
D. Marketing begins with anticipating potential customer needs
Question 2
Predicting what types of bicycles different customers will want and deciding which of these customers the business will try to satisfy are activities a firm should do as part of
Answer
A. Marketing.
B. Production.
C. A command economy.
D. Making goods or performing services
Question 3
For Tesla, a new firm that makes an electric sports car, estimating how many competitors will make electric vehicles and what kinds they will make, is:
Answer
A. An example of the micro-macro dilemma.
B. A part of marketing.
C. A production activity.
D. One of the universal functions of innovation
Question 4
To compete more successfully with its many competitors offering packaged cookies, Famous Amos added its own line of extra chunky premium cookies. This seems to be an effort at:
Answer
A. Market development.
B. Product development.
C. Market penetration.
D. Combination
Question 5
Professional Dental Supply has been successfully selling dental instruments to dentists for the past 20 years, and has developed strong customer relations. When looking for new marketing opportunities, Professional Dental Supply will most likely look first at
Answer
A. Market development.
B. Product development.
C. Diversification.
D. Market penetration.
Question 6
Which of the following statements regarding marketing strategies is FALSE?
Answer
A. Developing successful marketing strategies does not need to be a hit-or-miss proposition.
B. These strategies require decisions about the specific customers the firm will target and the marketing mix the firm will develop to appeal to that target market.
C. These strategies must meet the needs of target customers, and a firm is likely to get a competitive advantage if it just meets needs in the same way as some other firm.
D. It is useful to think of the marketing strategy planning process as a narrowing-down process
Question 7
Which of the following is true?
Answer
A. The product P in the marketing mix stands for only tangible merchandise.
B. The product P in the marketing mix stands for both physical goods and tangible
C. The product P in the marketing mix stands for both physical goods and services.
D. The product P in the marketing mix stands for only physical goods
Question 8
The four Ps of a marketing mix are:
Answer
A. Product, Price, Promotion, and Profit
B. Product, Place, Promotion, and Price
C. Promotion, Production, Price, and People
D. Production, Personnel, Price, and Physical Distribution
Question 9
A firm's marketing mix decision areas would NOT include:
Answer
A. Price
B. People
C. Product
D. Promotion
Question 10
Big Fizz Co., a manufacturer of cola-flavored drinks, wants to add packaged fruit juices to its existing product line. Big Fizz must make some decisions regarding packaging and branding of the fruit juices. These decisions would fall under which variable of the marketing mix?
Answer
A. Promotion
B. Place
C. Price
D. Product
Question 11
When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:
Answer
A. Store location is to sales force selection.
B. Production is to marketing.
C. Personal selling is to mass selling.
D. Branding is to pricing
Question 12
The ______ area of the marketing mix is concerned with decisions about getting the right product to the target market when and where it is wanted.
Answer
A. Promotion
B. People
C. Place
D. Product
Question 13
The main difference between a marketing strategy and a marketing plan is that:
Answer
A. A marketing strategy provides more detail.
B. A marketing plan includes several marketing strategies.
C. A marketing strategy omits pricing plans.
D. Time-related details are included in a marketing plan.
Question 14
Which of the following would probably NOT be in a proposed marketing plan?
Answer
A. Expected sales and profit results.
B. A statement of how frequently the design of the website will be changed.
C. A description of the target market and marketing mix.
D. A list of what company resources (costs) would be required.
Question 15
A marketing plan is:
Answer
A. A marketing strategy—plus the time-related details for carrying it out.
B. A marketing strategy.
C. A target market and a related marketing mix.
D. A marketing program.
Question 16
Marketing strategy planners should recognize that:
Answer
A. Large firms like General Electric, Target, and Procter & Gamble are too large to aim at clearly defined markets.
B. Mass marketing is often very effective and desirable.
C. Target marketing is not limited to small market segments.
D. Target markets should not be large and spread out.
Question 17
Good marketing strategy planners know that:
Answer
A. Mass marketing is often very desirable and effective.
B. Target marketing does not limit one to small market segments.
C. The terms mass marketing and mass marketer mean basically the same thing.
D. Firms like Nabisco and WalMart are too large to aim at clearly defined target markets
Question 18
Target marketing, in contrast to mass marketing,
Answer
A. Ignores markets that are large and spread out.
B. Is limited to small market segments.
C. Focuses on fairly homogeneous market segments.
D. Assumes that all customers are basically the same.
Question 19
______________ is the process of naming broad product-markets and then segmenting these broad product-markets in order to select target markets and develop suitable marketing mixes.
Answer
A. Mass marketing
B. Market positioning
C. Diversification
D. Market segmentation
Question 20
Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets
Answer
A. Usually require computers to group people based on data from market research.
B. Remove the need for managerial judgment.
C. Eliminate the need for marketing managers to specify in advance what dimensions might be relevant for grouping consumers.
D. All of the above are true.
Question 21
The process of naming broad product-markets and then segmenting them in order to select target markets and develop suitable marketing mixes is called:
Answer
A. Market development.
B. Market penetration.
C. Market research.
D. Market segmentation.
Question 22
________________ ________________ utilizes qualitative and quantitative analysis procedures to help marketing managers make more informed decisions.
Answer
A. Marketing structure.
B. Marketing planning.
C. Marketing research.
D. Marketing processing.
Question 23
Procedures that develop and analyze new information to help marketing managers make decisions are called:
Answer
A. Analytical research.
B. Strategy planning.
C. Marketing research.
D. Operational planning.
Question 24
A ______________ is an organized way of continually gathering and analyzing data to get information to help marketing managers make ongoing decisions.
Answer
A. Marketing research project
B. Marketing information system
C. Marketing research department
D. Marketing model
Question 25
Marketing research which seeks structured responses that can be summarized is called:
Answer
A. Qualitative research.
B. Focus group research.
C. Situation analysis research.
D. Quantitative research.
Question 26
When focus group interviews are used in marketing,
Answer
A. It is primarily as a follow-up to more quantitative research.
B. Each person in the group answers the same questionnaire, to focus the discussion.
C. The research conclusions will vary depending on who watches the interview whether online or off-line.
D. The typical group size is 15 to 20 typical consumers whether online or off-line.
Question 27
One of the major disadvantages of the focus group interview approach is that
Answer
A. It is difficult to get in-depth information about the research topic.
B. There is no interviewer, so the research questions may not be answered.
C. It is difficult to measure the results objectively.
D. Ideas generated by the group cannot be tested later with other research.
Question 28
Which of the following statements about consumer products is true?
Answer
A. Specialty products are those that customers usually are least willing to search for.
B. Unsought products are not shopped for at all.
C. Shopping products are those products for which customers usually want to use routinized buying behavior.
D. Convenience products are those that customers want to buy at the lowest possible price.
Question 29
The marketing manager at Massimino & McCarthy, a chain of retail stores that sells men's clothing, is reviewing marketing research data to try to determine if changes in marketing strategy are needed. Which of the following sources of data would be a secondary data source?
Answer
A. Making phone calls to some of the best customers to learn their interest in a new line of clothing.
B. Spending time in stores observing customers' behavior.
C. Reviewing videotapes of a recent focus group.
D. Looking through the company's marketing information system to see past sales trends.
Question 30
The attitudes and behavior patterns of people are part of the
Answer
A. Competitive environment.
B. Firm's resources and objectives.
C. Social and cultural environment.
D. Political environment.
Question 31
______________ is the process of naming broad product-markets and then segmenting these broad product-markets in order to select target markets and develop suitable marketing mixes.
Answer
A. Mass marketing
B. Market positioning
C. Strategic planning
D. Market segmentation
Question 32
Which is the first step in market segmentation?
Answer
A. Naming a broad product-market of interest to the firm.
B. Evaluating market segments to determine if they are large enough.
C. Clustering people with similar needs into a market segment.
D. Finding one or two demographic characteristics to divide up the whole mass market.
Question 33
The first step in market segmentation should be:
Answer
A. Finding a demographic group likely to use your products.
B. Defining some broad product-markets where you may be able to operate profitably.
C. Evaluating what segment(s) you currently serve.
D. Deciding what new product you could develop.
Question 34
Tom and Sally Jones are preparing to purchase a new car. He currently has a Toyota Camry and she has a Honda Accord. They now have two children under age 5, so they plan to trade in Sally's car to purchase a minivan. Sally and Tom decided on a Honda Odyssey because Sally is familiar with Hondas and thinks they are very reliable. In this purchase situation, Tom and Sally's family life cycle stage is a _____________ segmentation dimension, and the benefit Sally seeks (reliability) is a _____________ segmentation dimension.
Answer
A. Geographic; behavioral.
B. Demographic; geographic.
C. Demographic; behavioral.
D. Geographic; demographic.
Question 35
The product life cycle:
Answer
A. Applies more to individual brands than to categories or types of products.
B. Shows that sales and profits tend to move together over time.
C. Has five major stages.
D. Describes the stages a new product idea goes through from beginning to end.
Question 36
The product life cycle has four stages. Which of the following is NOT one of these?
Answer
A. Market maturity
B. Market growth
C. Market introduction
D. Economic competition
Question 37
Which of the following observations concerning the market maturity stage is NOT TRUE?
Answer
A. New firms cannot enter the market at this stage.
B. There is a long-run downward pressure on prices.
C. Many aggressive competitors have entered the race for profits.
D. Promotion costs rise and some competitors cut prices to attract business.
Question 38
During the market introduction stage of the product life cycle:
Answer
A. Most potential customers are quite anxious to try out the new-product concept.
B. Products usually show large profits if marketers have successfully carved out new markets.
C. Considerable money is spent on promotion while place development is left until later stages.
D. Funds are being invested in marketing with the expectation of future profits.
Question 39
Cargill, Inc. is finally earning a profit on the unique product it introduced 6 months ago. Cargill's advertising is both informative and persuasive. Much money is being spent on Place development. There is little price competition, although several competitors have come out with reasonable imitations. Total industry sales and profits are both rising. In which stage of the product life cycle is Cargill operating?
Answer
A. Sales decline
B. Market introduction
C. Market growth
D. Market maturity
Question 40
Noise (in the traditional communication process) refers to:
Answer
A. Messages which are too loud or bold.
B. Radio advertising interference only.
C. Any distractions that reduce the effectiveness of the communication process.
D. Efforts by a firm's competitors to block its message channel.
Question 41
While watching a television program, Liza gets a phone call just as a commercial is starting. She presses the mute button on the television's remote control and takes the call, so she pays no attention to the commercial. In terms of the communication process, the telephone call is an example of:
Answer
A. Decoding.
B. Noise.
C. Encoding.
D. Feedback.
Question 42
Advertising allowances
Answer
A. Allow for coordination and integration of ad messages in the channel.
B. Involve intermediaries and producers sharing in the cost of ads.
C. Are price reductions to firms further along in the channel to encourage them to advertise or otherwise promote the firm's products locally.
D. Set the allowance amount as a percent of the retailer's actual purchases.
Question 43
A producer using very aggressive promotion to get final consumers to ask intermediaries for a new product has:
Answer
A. A selective distribution policy.
B. A target marketing policy.
C. A pulling policy
D. A pushing policy.
Question 44
A producer using normal promotion efforts—personal selling, sales promotion, and advertising—to help sell a whole marketing mix to possible channel members has:
Answer
A. An intensive distribution policy.
B. A target marketing policy.
C. A selective distribution policy.
D. A pushing policy.
Question 45
Integrated direct-response promotion:
Answer
A. Is not necessary or useful when the channel of distribution involves intermediaries.
B. Is usually part of a pushing effort rather than part of a pulling approach.
C. Focuses on achieving a measurable, direct response from specific target customers.(Correct answer)
D. None of these are true.
Question 46
Positioning analysis
Answer
A. Is not a product-oriented approach.
B. Helps managers understand the actual characteristics of their products.
C. Is a visual aid to understanding a product-market.
D. Shows that managers and customers usually view present brands similarly.
Question 47
Which of the following statements about positioning is NOT TRUE?
Answer
A. It refers to how customers think about proposed or present brands in a market.
B. It often makes use of techniques such as perceptual mapping.
C. Positioning issues are especially important when competitors in a market are very dissimilar.
D. It helps marketing managers know how customers view the firm's offering.
Question 48
When segmenting broad product-markets, cost considerations tend
Answer
A. To lead to more aggregating.
B. To encourage managers to disregard the criterion that a product-market segment should be substantial.
C. To be unimportant as long as the segmenting dimensions are operational.
D. To lead to a large number of small, but very homogeneous, product-market segments.
Question 49
When a company grows globally, this is an example of:
Answer
A. Product development.
B. Market development
C. Diversification.
D. Market penetration.
Question 50
Which of the following is NOT a trend affecting marketing strategy planning in the area of international marketing?
Answer
A. More attention to exporting by small companies.
B. Tensions between have and have-not cultures.
C. Global communication over the Internet.
D. Decreasing role of airfreight.
Question 51
A _____ is a market with very similar needs and sellers offering various close substitute ways of satisfying those needs.
Answer
A. Standard market
B. Generic market
C. Target market
D. Product-market
Question 52
Which of the following is a key trend affecting marketing strategy planning?
Answer
A. Slower new-product development.
B. Senior and ethnic submarkets are getting smaller.
C. Less use of technology in personal selling.
D. Growth of marketing information systems.
Question 53
It is usually the _________ job, perhaps with help from specialists in technology, to decide what types of sales technology tools are needed and how they will be used.
Answer
A. Procurement manager's
B. Sales manager's
C. Marketing executive's
D. Purchasing manager's
Question 54
Identify the incorrect statement about sales promotions.
Answer
A. Sales promotions can be used as tools to overcome customer price resistance.
B. Changes in technology have made sales promotions more efficient.
C. Sales promotions have increased because of competition in emerging markets.
D. The availability of more ad agencies and specialists has spurred growth in sales promotions.
Question 55
Which of the following is a key trend affecting marketing strategy planning?
Answer
A. Slower new-product development.
B. Less use of technology in personal selling.
C. Growth of marketing information systems.
D. Senior and ethnic submarkets are getting smaller.
Question 56
The future poses many challenges for marketing managers because:
Answer
A. New technologies are making it easier to abuse consumers' rights to privacy.
B. The marketing concept has become obsolete.
C. It is marketing managers who have full responsibility to preserve our macro-marketing system.
D. Social responsibility applies only to firms—not to consumers.
Question 57
Many Internet sites, such as Autobytel.com and Edmunds.com, have extensive information about the prices of new and used vehicles that anyone can use for free. In light of the availability of this information, what is the responsibility of consumers to use it?
Answer
A. Consumers should not trust any information they receive from any source except the government.
B. Consumers should not use it because it gives them an unfair advantage over car dealers.
C. Consumers have a responsibility to use the information and be smarter customers.
D. Consumers can use it, but should not feel a responsibility to do so.
Read more at MKt 421 Final Exam
0 notes
Text
QNT 561 Final Exam
Click and download the answers of QNT 561 Final Exam through Student E Help. And find best answers, solution paper, solved paper, test series of QNT 561 Final Exam 30 Questions, QNT 561 Final Exam Mymathlab, QNT 561 Final Exam Questions, QNT 561 Final Exam Free Answers.
Question 1 A random sample of size 15 is selected from a normal population. The population standard deviation is unknown. Assume the null hypothesis indicates a two-tailed test and the researcher decided to use the 0.10 significance level. For what values of t will the null hypothesis not be rejected? Answer a)To the left of -1.645 or to the right of 1.645 b)To the left of -1.345 or to the right of 1.345 c)Between -1.761 and 1.761 d)To the left of -1.282 or to the right of 1.282 Question 2 Which of the following is a characteristic of the F distribution? Answer a)Normally distributed b)Negatively skewed c)Equal to the t-distribution d)Positively skewed Question 3 For a chi-square test involving a contingency table, suppose the null hypothesis is rejected. We conclude that the two variables are __________. Answer a)related b)curvilinear c)linear d)not related Question 4 A sales manager for an advertising agency believes that there is a relationship between the number of contacts that a salesperson makes and the amount of sales dollars earned. What is the dependent variable? Answer a)sales managers b)amount of sales dollars c)salesperson d)number of contacts Question 5 Which of the following is most appropriately displayed with a frequency table? Answer a)What percentage of people prefer Hunt's brand ketchup b)The home location of the most valuable customers c)How much explanatory value comes from the study's variables d)The relationship between gender and job performance Question 6 The manager of Paul's fruit and vegetable store is considering the purchase of a new seedless watermelon from a wholesale distributor. Since this seedless watermelon costs $4, will sell for $7, and is highly perishable, he only expects to sell between six and nine of them. What is the opportunity loss for purchasing nine watermelons when the demand is for seven watermelons? Answer a)8 b)4 c)12 d)0 Question 7 A firm offers routine physical examinations as part of a health service program for its employees. The exams showed that 8% of the employees needed corrective shoes, 15% needed major dental work, and 3% needed both corrective shoes and major dental work. What is the probability that an employee selected at random will need either corrective shoes or major dental work? Answer a).25 b)1.00 c)0.50 d).20 Question 8 When data is collected using a qualitative, nominal variable, what is true about a frequency distribution that summarizes the data? Answer a)The upper and lower class limits must be calculated. b)The number of classes is equal to the number of variables plus 2. c)The “5 to the k rule” can be applied. d)A pie chart can be used to summarize the data. Question 9 If an ANOVA test is conducted and the null hypothesis is rejected, what does this indicate? Answer a)The p-value is less than a. b)All population means are different. c)At least one pair of population means is different. d)The population means are equal. Question 10 A random sample of 20 items is selected from a population. When computing a confidence interval for the population mean, what number of degrees of freedom should be used to determine the appropriate t-value? Answer a)25 b)21 c)19 d)20 Question 11 The question, "Should products be withdrawn if even one death is associated with its prescribed use, even if no fault for the tampered product accrues to the manufacturer?" is an example of a(n) _____. Answer a)strip data mining issue b)unresearchable question c)ill-defined problem d)favored-technique problem Question 12 A large department store examined a sample of the 18 credit card sales and recorded the amounts charged for each of three types of credit cards: MasterCard, Visa, and Discover. Six MasterCard sales, seven Visa, and five Discover sales were recorded. The store used an ANOVA to test if the mean sales for each credit card were equal. What are the degrees of freedom for the F statistic? Answer a)2 in the numerator, 15 in the denominator b)6 in the numerator, 15 in the denominator c)18 in the numerator, 3 in the denominator d)3 in the numerator, 18 in the denominator Question 13 A linear trend equation is used to represent time series values when the data are changing by equal what? Answer a)amounts b)percents and proportions c)proportions d)percents Question 14 Which of the following goals should a good survey instrument accomplish? Answer a)Encourage each participant to provide accurate responses b)Encourage participants to be succinct in their responses c)Encourage participants to answer only those questions they are comfortable answering d)Encourage participants to end the survey when they feel they have contributed enough information Question 15 Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing store sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided by a center aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales from each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an example of? Answer a)Exploratory study b)Case study c)Ex post facto study d)Longitudinal study Question 16 Bones Brothers & Associates prepare individual tax returns. Over prior years, Bones Brothers has maintained careful records regarding the time to prepare a return. The mean time to prepare a return is 90 minutes and the standard deviation of this distribution is 14 minutes. Suppose 100 returns from this year are selected and analyzed regarding the preparation time. What assumption do you need to make about the shape of the population distribution of all possible tax preparation times to make inferences about the mean time to complete a tax form? Answer a)The population distribution is skewed to the left. b)The population distribution is skewed to the right. c)The shape of the population distribution does not matter. d)The population distribution is normal. Question 17 Checklists with several items to be considered by respondents may be subject to _____. Answer a)recency effects b)leniency effects c)halo effects d)primacy effects Question 18 In a multiple rating list scale, ____. Answer a)participants rate multiple items on a 3-point scale b)the participant is restricted to circling their rating c)it is possible to visualize the results better than with other numerical scales d)the data generated are always ordinal Question 19 As the size of the sample increases, what happens to the shape of the distribution of sample means? Answer a)It cannot be predicted in advance b)It is positively skewed c)It is negatively skewed d)It approaches a normal distribution Question 20 For any chi-square goodness-of-fit test, the number of degrees of freedom is found by ______. Answer a)n + k b)k -1 c)n – k - 1 d)n + 1 Question 21 BankChoice is concerned about stagnating profits and asks, "How can profitability be improved?" This is an example of a(n) _____. Answer a)research question b)measurement question c)management question d)investigative question Question 22 A machine is set to fill the small-size packages of M&M candies with 56 candies per bag. A sample revealed three bags of 56, two bags of 57, one bag of 55, and two bags of 58. To test the hypothesis that the mean candies per bag is 56, how many degrees of freedom are there? Answer a)1 b)7 c)9 d)8 Question 23 An experimental study is one that _____. Answer a)attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another b)involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable c)attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses d)discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much Question 24 The monthly salaries of a sample of 100 employees were rounded to the nearest $10. They ranged from a low of $1,040 to a high of $1,720. If we want to condense the data into seven classes, what is the most convenient class interval? Answer a)$200 b)$50 c)$150 d)$100 Question 25 Consider a regression analysis, where the correlation coefficient is 0.18. Then, the coefficient of determination is _______. Answer a).0324 b).36 c)1.16 d).424 Question 26 In multiple regression analysis, when the independent variables are highly correlated, this situation is called __________________. Answer a)homoscedasticity b)curvilinearity c)multicollinearity d)autocorrelation Question 27 Sam's Club installed self-checkout stations that can track not only member's purchases but also packaging problems, as the system uses universal product codes to match the item the shopper has in their cart with its price and inventory level in the store, generating a spreadsheet style report for the researcher. If you consider the scanner as the tool for collecting data for Sam's researchers, they are doing data entry by ____. Answer a)spreadsheet b)Optical Character Recognition c)Field editing d)Voice recognition Question 28 The weekly incomes of a large group of executives are normally distributed with a mean of $2,000 and a standard deviation of $100. What is the z-score for an income of $2,100? Answer a)1.683 b)0.90 c)2.00 d)1.00 Question 29 A ranking scale is a scale that _____. Answer a)scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object b)groups participants c)groups concepts according to specific criteria d)scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects Question 30 What is the interpretation of a 96% confidence level? Answer a)The interval contains 96% of all sample means. b)Approximately 96 out of 100 such intervals would include the true value of the population parameter. c)There's a 96% chance that the given interval includes the true value of the population parameter. d)There's a 4% chance that the given interval does not include the true value of the population parameter.
Applied Business Research & Statistics – qnt561 Course Content include Topics and Objectives for QNT 561 Final Exam
QNT 561 Final Exam has a well-defined syllabus. We have presented the entire syllabus with both compulsory and optional modules for the Applied Business Research & Statistics Course. Past trend suggests that the focus of exam has changed year-on-year. So, we have covered the entire topics important for the exam. The course is designed to give students a thorough background in the latest advances in theoretical, applied and empirical with descriptive statistics, probability concepts, confidence intervals, sampling designs, data collection, and data analysis--including parametric and nonparametric tests of hypothesis and regression analysis.
Data Collection and Hypothesis
Data Analysis
Descriptive Statistics and Probability Distributions
Correlation and Regression Analysis
Using Research Data for Business Decisions
Research and Sampling Designs
Read more at - QNT 561 Final Exam
0 notes
Text
OPS 571 Final Exam
Student E Help is specialize in providing you with the best sources for completing the University of Phoenix Course OPS 571 Final Exam, UOP OPS 571 Final Exam, OPS 571 Operations Management Final Exam, OPS 571 Final Exam Answers Free.
Question 1 Which of the following is considered a major process flow structure? Answer
Lead Time
Fabrication
Lean Manufacturing
Project
Question 2 ISO audits result in certifications that are done by first, second, or third parties. Which of the following result in the best certification of a firm? Answer
Certification is sought by any firm assuming they pay annual dues.
2nd Party – where a customer audits its supplier
3rd Party – where a qualified national or international standards/certifying agency serves as an auditor
1st Party – where a firm audits itself against ISO standards
Question 3 Which of the following is ISO 14000 primarily concerned with? Answer
Quality management
Time management
Continuous improvement management
Environmental management
Question 4 Which is the one correct value stream principle? Answer
Look for efficiencies in the factory, office, physical, procedural, and technical operations.
Eliminate waste that stops, slows down, or diverts the value stream.
Concentrate on speeding up value-adding operations rather than removing waste.
Keep the value stream moving at minimum velocity.
Question 5 What is the starting point in developing a capacity plan for a health care operation? Answer
Determining the effective capacity over time
Estimating design capacity
Forecasting patient demand for a reasonable length of time
Discovery of the bottleneck operation
Question 6 Which of the following is considered an organizational blueprint, which prescribes the quantity and time frame for when each end product will be assembled?
Answer
MRP (Material Requirements Plan)
ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning)
MPS (Master Production Schedule)
WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
Question 7 Which of the following is an element that addresses elimination of waste under lean production? Answer
Kanban production control system
Production ahead of demand
Minimized run times
Group plant loading technology
Question 8 In most cases, demand for products or services can be broken into several components. Which of the following is considered a component of demand? Answer
Level elements
Future elements
Past elements
Cyclical elements
Question 9 Design for manufacturing and assembly delivers product improvements by emphasizing which of the following: Answer
Reducing product quality during the assembly process
Designing products so they can be manufactured by a virtual factory
Reducing equipment in the production process
Simplification of the product by reducing the number of separate parts
Question 10 Which of the following is one of the principles of reengineering? Answer
Quality at the source
Do not select suppliers on the basis of price alone.
Have those who use the output of a process perform the process.
Leverage high cost employees with lower cost employees.
Question 11 Which of the following is a characteristic that can be used to guide the design of service systems? Answer
Services are all similar.
Services businesses are inherently entrepreneurial.
Quality work means quality service.
Services cannot be inventoried.
Question 12 Considering Hau Lee’s uncertainty framework for classifying supply chains, which of the following is given to a supply chain which has an evolving supply process based on functional products? Answer
Risk hedging
Forward looking
Efficient
Agile
Question 13 There are many applications of poka-yokes in service organizations. Which of the following is one of the three-T's used to classify poka-yokes? Answer
Trust
Teamwork
Task
Time
Question 14 Which of the following is a major factor that distinguishes service design and development from manufacturing design and development? Answer
The service package has the same legal protection available to manufactured goods.
Manufacturing is far more capital intensive than services.
The service process and service product can be developed independently.
The service package is the major output of the development process.
Question 15 A project can be segmented into which of the following? Answer
Events
Sub-jobs
Work packages
Success markers
Question 16 Which of the following is a cost impact and payoff analysis tool from the operations consulting tool kit? Answer
Statistical tools
Decision trees
Work sampling
Gap analysis
Question 17 According to the theory of constraints, which of the following can be a capacity-constrained resource (CCR)? Answer
Product design
Inoperable equipment
An employee
A customer
Question 18 The ability to rapidly and inexpensively switch production from one product to another enables which of the following: Answer
Economies of shape
Economies of size
Economies of scale
Economies of scope
Question 19 According to the theory of constraints, which of the following financial measurements can be used to measure the firm's ability to make money? Answer
Operating expenses
Dividends
Sales
Return on investment
Question 20 Deming’s PDCA (plan, do, check, and act) cycle underlies what inherent Six Sigma principle? Answer
Continuous improvement
Control charting
Standard deviation
Project management
Question 21 Which of the following is usually included as an inventory holding cost? Answer
Order placing
Quantity discounts
Breakage
Typing up an order
Question 22 Which production process term best describes the situation when activities in a stage of production must stop because there is no work? Answer
Blocking
Starving
Staging
Buffering
Question 23 In a Gantt chart the vertical axis represents which of the following? Answer
Time
Revenue
Tasks
Cost
Question 24 The Shingo system states that the way to prevent defects from coming out at the end of a process is to do which of the following: Answer
Redesign the process in order to mitigate the bottlenecks.
Utilize SQC (statistical quality control).
Introduce controls within the process.
Slow down production rates until the process is in control.
Question 25 Which of the following terms describes the time a unit spends actually being worked on together with the time spent waiting in a queue? Answer
Flow time
Build time
Cycle time
Run time
Question 26 Which of the following is one of Dr. Eli Goldratt's rules of production scheduling for optimized production technology? Answer
An hour saved at a bottleneck operation does not increase the process flow.
If you lose an hour at a bottleneck it is better than making scrap.
Do not allow bottlenecks to govern the flow of the line.
Utilization and activation of a resource are not the same.
Question 27 During the implementation of a project, which of the following should be the primary focus of a consulting firm? Answer
The correct project software
Application of the learning curve theory
Tools and materials availability
People management skills
Question 28 Which of the following is an analytical tool used in Six-Sigma quality improvement programs? Answer
Gantt charts
Pareto charts
Tree charts
Pedigree charts
Question 29 A project manager must consider several components when overseeing the planning process of aggregate operations; specifically, whether such components are factors that are internal or external to the organization. Which of the following factors would be classified as an internal component for an organization? Answer
Inventory levels and economic conditions
Market demand and subcontractor capacity
Current physical capacity and current workforce
Competitor behavior and current workforce
Question 30 Which of the following is the net requirement using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 10,000 and the inventory on hand is 4,000? Answer
10,000
14,000
6,000
4,000
Read more at - OPS 571 Final Exam
0 notes
Text
MKT 421 Final Exam 2016 with Week 5 University of Phoenix
Student E Help education portal offers many different kind of MKT 421 Final Exam study material for students and help to improve marks.
0 notes
Text
LDR 300 Final Exam 30 Question For University of Phoenix Students
Studentehelp make it easy for you to find courses, online tutorials, and other resources that are available to meet your learning needs easy. We provide you best solution of ldr 300 final exam.
0 notes
Text
Law 575 Final Exam Answers Online Tutorials for University of Phoenix
Get answers to your questions about LAW 575 Final Exam Student E Help educational offerings university of phoenix students best answer, solved paper.
0 notes
Text
New Law 421 final exam 2016 Questions and Answers for Contemporary Business Law
The most helpful site is here for your service that is Student E Help. We are here to provide you Question, Answers and entire course of LAW 421 Final Exam.
0 notes
Text
New FIN 575 Final Exam Solutions for Project Budget and Finance
Learn and score good marks in university of phoenix examination. Solve your all questions in just seconds by Studentehelp and understand the concept from our learned professors regarding FIN 575 Final Exam.
0 notes
Text
COM 537 Final Exam Questions and Answers
Studentehelp is offering the latest Questions of University of Phoenix organizational communication COM 537 Final Exam Answers for free.
0 notes
Text
COM 295 Final Exam Answers University of Phoenix
Get University of Phoenix course business communication COM 295 Final Exam questions with the veracious answer provided by studentehelp.
0 notes
Text
BUS 475 Capstone Final Examination Part 2 Questions with Accurate Answers
Get the University of Phoenix BUS 475 capstone Final examinations part 2 Questions and Answers for free delivered by the finest UOP online tutors Studentehelp.
0 notes
Text
BUS 475 Capstone Final Examination Part 1 Questions paper and Answers
BUS 475 capstone Final examinations part 1 Questions with the excellent quality answers is available for free to download by the educational portal Studentehelp.
0 notes
Text
Accounting 561 Final Exam Questions and Answers - ACC 561 Wiley Plus Final Exam
Studentehelp is providing solved paper, complete assignment and exam guide for university of phoenix students. Here you find 100% correct answer regarding accounting 561 final exam.
0 notes
Text
ACC 291 Final Exam Answers - Principles of Accounting II – ACC 291
Remove your all stress regarding your university of phoenix Principles of Accounting II examination. Get connected with Studentehelp and solve your all problems regarding ACC 291 Final Exam Answers.
0 notes