#electrical engineering mcq questions and answers pdf
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Ic engines objective questions
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In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by (a) spark (b) injected fuel (c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion (d) ignition (e) combustion chamber. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft (a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 (e) 8. Engines Questions and Answers pdf freeload* * * 1. Engines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers List *I.C. Engines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers List 250 TOP I.C. Engines Objective type Questions and Answers » 250 TOP I.C. Which of the following is not an interna combustion engine.MCQs preparation for Engineering Competitive Exams Pages * Home * Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers * Engineering Interview Questions * Online Tests Home » I.C. Answer of that question is high heat value What is the reason? Please explain because the same question I have seen 1st or second page.
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If we take high heat value of oil in heat engine than fuel is evaporate because the fuels are volatile in nature and we not get full efficiency of fuel.That's why we So LHV of fuel is used in case of IC engine. Gases to the point where water vapor can be condensed and any latent heat is also utilized in the transfer process. In case of IC engine, where gasoline and diesel is used, it is possible to bring down the temperature of combustion Not possible to fully bring down the outlet temperature of gases to the point where water vapor is condensed.So, HHV is used. Similarly, in case of gas turbine, it is Rejected to the atmosphere, considering it is higher than the dew point of sulpher and preventing any sulpher droplet to form. At this temperature, still the combustion gases is having heat energy and can be used but it is The reason is theĬombustion products leave the stack at a temperature of about 130 C. For eg, in coal based thermal power plant, the HHV of coal is used. In whichĪpplication, the temperature can be brought back to the atmospheric condition. Now the real point is ,the decision, whether to use HHV or LHV depends solely on the type of application. So ,water vapor is not condensed in this case. Products reaches approximately, the ambient temperature.ĭefinition is, where the combustion products are not brought back to the atmospheric temperature. It means ,if we are using HHV of fuel, the heat energy is transferred until the temperature of the combustion So moreĪmount of heat is transferred if we consider HHV of fuel. Here, any water vapor which is present is condensed back by giving off its latent heat. Returned back to the initial state (atmospheric temperature, T = 25 C). Login / Register Download app for fast access + Download from play storeĪdd to Bookmark All Engineering + Electrical Computer Civil Mechanical Chemical Aotumobile Electronics Medical Science All Competitive exam data + Previous Papers Online Mock Test Vedic / Quicker Math Aptitude Reasoning General Knowledge English / Verbal Speak English Unit converter All Dictionary + Picture Dictionary English to Afrikaans English to Arabic English to Bengali English to Chinese English to English English to French English to German English to Gujarati English to Hindi English to Italian English to Japanese English to Kannada English to Korean English to Malayalam English to Marathi English to Nepali English to Portuguese English to Punjabi English to Russian English to Spanish English to Swedish English to Tamil English to Telugu English to Thai English to Turkish English to Urdu Know your baby name + Search baby / your name My Favorite List Teaching / Schooling Entertainment + Quotes (all category) Jokes (Hindi,Urdu,English) All Management courses + Marketing (HRM)Human Resource Management Web Tutorials + + Objective Questions (MCQ) All topics + Theory / Tutorial HTML CSS PHP JavaScript Read More My Account + My Account My Dictionary My Electrical Engg My Aptitude My English My General Knowledge Visit Contact us + Contact us / Help About us Privacy Policy About CopyrightĪs we know by definition,higher heating value of fuel is, where the combustion products are
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siva3155 · 6 years ago
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400+ TOP ELECTRICAL Engineering Interview Questions and Answers Pdf- EEE
ELECTRICAL Engineering Interview Questions with Answers free download - EEE :-
CLICK HERE ----> ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MCQs 1. What is electric traction? Electric traction means using the electric power for traction system (i.e. for railways,trams, trolleys etc). Electric traction means use of the electricity for all the above machines. Now a days, magnetic traction is also used for bullet trains.and basically dc motors are used for electric traction systems. 2. How can you start-up the 40w tube lite with 230v AC/DC without using any choke/Coil? It’s possible by means of Electronic chokes,otherwise it’s not possible to ionize the particles in tube light with normal voltage. 3. What is “pu” in electrical engineering? Pu stands for per unit and this will be used in single line diagram of power distribution and it is like a huge electrical circuit with no of components (generators, transformers, loads) with different ratings (in MVA and KV). To bring all the ratings into common platform we use pu concept in which, in general largest MVA and KV ratings of the component is considered as base values, then all other component ratings will get back into this basis.Those values are called as pu values. (p.u=actual value/base value). 4. Operation carried out in Thermal power stations? The water is obtained in the boiler and the coal is burnt so that steam is obtained this steam is allowed to hit the turbine , the turbine which is coupled with the generator generates the electricity. 5. Why link is provided in neutral of an ac circuit and fuse in phase of ac circuit? Link is provided at a Neutral common point in the circuit from which various connection are taken for the individual control circuit and so it is given in a link form to withstand high Amps. But in the case of Fuse in the Phase of AC circuit it is designed such that the fuse rating is calculated for the particular circuit (i.e load) only.So if any malfunction happen the fuse connected in the particular control circuit alone will blow off.
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Interview Questions 6. How tube light circuit is connected and how it works? A choke is connected in one end of the tube light and a starter is in series with the circuit. When supply is provided ,the starter will interrupt the supply cycle of AC. Due to the sudden change of supply the chock will generate around 1000 volts . This volt will capable of to break the electrons inside the tube to make electron flow. once the current passes through the tube the starter circuit will be out of part. now there is no change of supply causes choke voltage normalized and act as minimize the current. 7. whats is MARX CIRCUIT? It is used with generators for charging a number of capacitor in parallel and discharging them in series.It is used when voltage required for testing is higher than the available. 8. What is encoder, how it function? An encoder is a device used to change a signal (such as a bit stream) or data into a code. The code may serve any of a number of purposes such as compressing information for transmission or storage, encrypting or adding redundancies to the input code, or translating from one code to another. This is usually done by means of a programmed algorithm,especially if any part is digital, while most analog encoding is done with analog circuitry. 9. What are the advantages of speed control using thyristor? Advantages : Fast Switching Characteristics than Mosfet, BJT, IGBT Low cost Higher Accurate. 10. Why Human body feel Electric shock ?? n in an Electric train during running , We did nt feel any Shock ? why? Unfortunately our body is a pretty good conductor of electricity, The golden rule is Current takes the lowest resistant path if you have insulation to our feet as the circuit is not complete (wearing rubber footwear which doing some repairs is advisable as our footwear is a high resistance path not much current flows through our body).The electric train is well insulated from its electrical system. 11. what is the principle of motor? Whenever a current carrying conductor is placed in an magnetic field it produce turning or twisting movement is called as torque. 12. Why, when birds sit on transmission lines or current wires doesn’t get shock? Its true that if birds touch the single one line (phase or neutral) they don’t get electrical shock… if birds touch 2 lines than the circuit is closed and they get electrical shock.. so if a human touch single one line(phase) then he doesn’t get shock if he is in the air (not touching – standing on the ground if he is standing on the ground then touching the line (phase) he will get a shock because the ground on what we standing is like line (ground bed – like neutral)? and in the most of electric lines the neutral is grounded..so that means that human who touch the line closes the circuit between phase and neutral. 13. what is meant by armature reaction? The effect of armature flu to main flux is called armature reaction. The armature flux may support main flux or opposes main flux. 14. what happen if we give 220 volts dc supply to d bulb r tube light? Bulbs for AC are designed to operate such that it offers high impedance to AC supply. Normally they have low resistance. When DC supply is applied, due to low resistance, the current through lamp would be so high that it may damage the bulb element. 15. Which motor has high Starting Torque and Staring current DC motor, Induction motor or Synchronous motor? DC Series motor has high starting torque. We can not start the Induction motor and Synchronous motors on load, but can not start the DC series motor without load. 16. what is ACSR cable and where we use it? ACSR means Aluminium conductor steel reinforced, this conductor is used in transmission & distribution. 17. What is vacuum circuit breaker.define with cause and where be use it Device? A breaker is normally used to break a circuit. while breaking the circuit, the contact terminals will be separated. At the time of separation an air gap is formed in between the terminals. Due to existing current flow the air in the gap is ionized and results in the arc. various mediums are used to quench this arc in respective CB’s. but in VCB the medium is vacuum gas. since the air in the CB is having vacuum pressure the arc formation is interrupted. VCB’s can be used up to kv. 18. What will happen when power factor is leading in distribution of power? If their is high power factor, i.e if the power factor is close to one: losses in form of heat will be reduced, cable becomes less bulky and easy to carry, and very cheap to afford, & it also reduces over heating of transformers. 19. whats the one main difference between UPS & inverter ? And electrical engineering & electronics engineering ? uninterrupt power supply is mainly use for short time . means according to ups VA it gives backup. ups is also two types : on line and offline . online ups having high volt and amp for long time backup with with high dc voltage.but ups start with 2v dc with 7 amp. but inverter is start with 2v,24,dc to 36v dc and 20amp to 80amp battery with long time backup. 20. What is 2 phase motor? A two phase motor is a motor with the the starting winding and the running winding have a phase split. e.g;ac servo motor.where the auxiliary winding and the control winding have a phase split of 90 degree. 21. Advantages of vvvf drives over non vvvf drives for EOT cranes? smooth start and stop. no jerking of load. exact positioning better protection for motor. high/low speed selection. reliability of break shoe. programmable break control. easy circuitry reduction in controls increases motor life 22. What is the significance of vector grouping in Power Transformers? Every power transformer has a vector group listed by its manufacturer. Fundamentally it tells you the information about how the windings are connected (delta or wye) and the phace difference between the current and voltage. EG. DYN means Delta primary, Wye Secondry and the current is at o clock referred to the voltage. 23. Which type of A.C motor is used in the fan (ceiling fan, exhaust fan, pedestal fan, bracket fan etc) which are find in the houses ? Its Single Phase induction motor which mostly squirrel cage rotor and are capacitor start capacitor run. 24. Give two basic speed control scheme of DC shunt motor? By using flux control method:in this method a rheostat is connected across the field winding to control the field current.so by changing the current the flux produced by the field winding can be changed, and since speed is inversely proportional to flux speed can be controlled .armature control method:in this method a rheostat is connected across armature winding by varying the resistance the value of resistive drop(IaRa)can be varied,and since speed is directly proportional to Eb-IaRa the speed can be controlled. 25. what is the principle of motor? Whenever a current carrying conductor is placed in an magnetic field it produce turning or twisting movement is called as torque. 26. what is meant by armature reaction? The effect of armature flu to main flux is called armature reaction. The armature flux may support main flux or opposes main flux. 27. Give two basic speed control scheme of DC shunt motor? By using flux control method:in this method a rheostat is connected across the field winding to control the field current.so by changing the current the flux produced by the field winding can be changed, and since speed is inversely proportional to flux speed can be controlled .armature control method:in this method a rheostat is connected across armature wdg.by varying the resistance the value of resistive drop(IaRa)can be varied,and since speed is directly proportional to Eb-IaRa the speed can be controlled. 28. what is the difference between synchronous generator & asynchronous generator? In simple, synchronous generator supply’s both active and reactive power but asynchronous generator(induction generator) supply’s only active power and observe reactive power for magnetizing.This type of generators are used in windmills. 29. What is the Polarization index value ? (pi value)and simple definition of polarization index ? Its ratio between insulation resistance(IR)i.e meggar value for 0min to insulation resistance for min. It ranges from 5-7 for new motors & normally for motor to be in good condition it should be Greater than .5 . 30. Why syn. generators are used for the production of electricity? synchronous machines have capability to work on different power factor(or say different imaginary power varying the field emf. Hence syn. generators r used for the production of electricity. 31. What is the difference between synchronous generator & asynchronous generator? In simple, synchronous generator supply’s both active and reactive power but asynchronous generator(induction generator) supply’s only active power and observe reactive power for magnetizing.This type of generators are used in windmills. 32. 1 ton is equal to how many watts? 1 ton = 12000 BTU/hr and to convert BTU/hr to horsepower, 12,000 * 0.000929 = 4.715 hp therefore 1 ton = 4.715*.746 = .5 KW. 33. why syn. generators r used for the production of electricity? synchronous machines have capability to work on different power factor(or say different imaginary pow varying the field emf. Hence syn. generators r used for the production of electricity. 34. Enlist types of dc generator? D.C.Generators are classified into two types: separately excited d.c.generator self excited d.c.generator, which is further classified into;1)series 2)shunt and compound(which is further classified into cumulative and differential). 35. What is Automatic Voltage regulator(AVR)? AVR is an abbreviation for Automatic Voltage Regulator.It is important part in Synchronous Generators, it controls the output voltage of the generator by controlling its excitation current. Thus it can control the output Reactive Power of the Generator. 36. What is an exciter and how does it work? There are two types of exciters, static exciter and rotory exciter.purpose of excitor is to supply the excitation dc voltage to the fixed poles of generator.Rotory excitor is an additional small generator mounted on the shaft of main generator. if it is dc generator, it will supply dc to the rotory poles through slip ring and brushes( conventional alternator). if it is an ac excitor, out put of ac excitor is rectified by rotating diodes and supply dc to main fixed poles.ac excitor is the ac generator whose field winding are stationary and armature rotates. initial voltage is built up by residual magnetism.It gives the starting torque to the generator. 37. Difference between a four point starter and three point starter? The shunt connection in four point stater is provided separately form the line where as in three point stater it is connected with line which is the drawback in three point stater 38. Why use the VCB at High Transmission System ? Why can’t use ACB? Actually the thing is vacuum has high arc quenching property compare to air because in VCB ,the die electric strengths equal to 8 times of air . That y always vacuum used as inHT breaker and air used as in LT . 39. What is the difference between surge arrestor and lightning arrestor? LA is installed outside and the effect of lightning is grounded,where as surge arrestor installed inside panels comprising of resistors which consumes the energy and nullify the effect of surge. 40. What happens if i connect a capacitor to a generator load? Connecting a capacitor across a generator always improves power factor,but it will help depends up on the engine capacity of the alternator,other wise the alternator will be over loaded due to the extra watts consumed due to the improvement on pf. Secondly, don’t connect a capacitor across an alternator while it is picking up or without any other load. 41. Why the capacitors works on ac only? Generally capacitor gives infinite resistance to dc components(i.e., block the dc components). it allows the ac components to pass through. 42. Explain the working principal of the circuit breaker? Circuit Breaker is one which makes or breaks the circuit.It has two contacts namely fixed contact & moving contact.under normal condition the moving contact comes in contact with fixed contact thereby forming the closed contact for the flow of current. During abnormal & faulty conditions(when current exceeds the rated value) an arc is produced between the fixed & moving contacts & thereby it forms the open circuit Arc is extinguished by the Arc Quenching media like air, oil, vacuum etc. 43. How many types of colling system it transformers? ONAN (oil natural,air natural) ONAF (oil natural,air forced) OFAF (oil forced,air forced) ODWF (oil direct,water forced) OFAN (oil forced,air forced) 44. Define What is the function of anti-pumping in circuit breaker? when breaker is close at one time by close push button,the anti pumping contactor prevent re close the breaker by close push button after if it already close. 45. What is stepper motor.what is its uses? Stepper motor is the electrical machine which act upon input pulse applied to it. it is one type of synchronous motor which runs in steps in either direction instead of running in complete cycle.so, in automation parts it is used. 46. How to calculate capacitor bank value to maintain unity power factor with some suitable example? KVAR= KW(TAN(COS(-1)#e)- TAN(COS(-1)#d) ) #e= EXISTING P.F. #d= DESIRED P.F. 47. Tell me in detail about c.t. and p.t. ?(Company:reliance) The term C.T means current transformer,and the term P.T means potential transformer.In circuit where measurements of high voltage and high current is involved they are used there.Particularly when a measuring device like voltmeter or ammeter is not able to measure such high value of quantity because of large value of torque due to such high value it can damage the measuring device.so, CT and PT are introduced in the circuits. They work on the same principle of transformer, which is based on linkage of electromagnetic flux produced by primary with secondary.They work on the ratio to they are designed.E.g if CTis of ratio 50005A and it has to measure secondary current of 8000A.then ANS=8000*55000=8Aand this result will be given to ammeter .and after measuring 8A we can calculate the primary current.same is the operation of PT but measuring voltage. 48. There are a Transformer and an induction machine. Those two have the same supply. For which device the load current will be maximum? And why? The motor has max load current compare to that of transformer because the motor consumes real power.. and the transformer is only producing the working flux and its not consuming.. hence the load current in the transformer is because of core loss so it is minimum. 49. What is power factor? whether it should be high or low? why? Power factor should be high in order to get smooth operation of the system.Low power factor means losses will be more.it is the ratio of true power to apparent power. it has to be ideally 1. if it is too low then cable over heating & equipment overloading will occur. if it is greater than 1 then load will act as capacitor and starts feeding the source and will cause tripping.(if pf is poor ex: 0.17 to meet actual power load has to draw more current(V constant),result in more losses if pf is good ex: 0.95 to meet actual power load has to draw less current(V constant),result in less losses). 50. What is the difference between Isolator and Circuit Breaker? Isolator is a off load device which is used for isolating the downstream circuits from upstream circuits for the reason of any maintenance on downstream circuits. it is manually operated and does not contain any solenoid unlike circuit breaker. it should not be operated while it is having load. first the load on it must be made zero and then it can safely operated. its specification only rated current is given.But circuit breaker is onload automatic device used for breaking the circuit in case of abnormal conditions like short circuit, overload etc., it is having three specification 1 is rated current and 2 is short circuit breaking capacity and 3 is instantaneous tripping current. 51. what is boucholz relay and the significance of it in to the transformer? Boucholz relay is a device which is used for the protection of transformer from its internal faults, it is a gas based relay. whenever any internal fault occurs in a transformer, the boucholz relay at once gives a horn for some time, if the transformer is isolated from the circuit then it stop its sound itself other wise it trips the circuit by its own tripping mechanism. 52. What is SF6 Circuit Breaker? SF6 is Sulpher hexa Flouride gas.. if this gas is used as arc quenching medium in a Circuitbreaker means SF6 CB. 53. What is frantic effect? Output voltage is greater than the input voltage or receiving end voltage is greater than the sending end voltage. 54. What is meant by insulation voltage in cables? explain it? It is the property of a cable by virtue of it can withstand the applied voltage without rupturing it is known as insulation level of the cable. 55. Why we do 2 types of earthing on transformer (ie:)body earthing & neutral earthing , what is function. i am going to install a oo kva transformer & 380 kva DG set what should the earthing value? The two types of earthing are Familiar as Equipment earthing and system earthing. In Equipment earthing: body ( non conducting part)of the equipment shouldd be earthed to safegaurd the human beings.system Earthing : In this neutral of the supply source ( Transformer or Generator) should be grounded. With this,in case of unbalanced loading neutral will not be shifted.so that unbalanced voltages will not arise. We can protect the equipment also. With size of the equipment( transformer or alternator)and selection of relying system earthing will be further classified into directly earthed,Impedance earthing, resistive (NGRs) earthing. 56. What is the difference between MCB & MCCB, Where it can be used? MCB is miniature circuit breaker which is thermal operated and use for short circuit protection in small current rating circuit. MCCB moulded case circuit breaker and is thermal operated for over load current and magnetic operation for instant trip in short circuit condition.under voltage and under frequency may be inbuilt. Normally it is used where normal current is more than 100A. 57. Where should the lighting arrestor be placed in distribution lines? Near distribution transformers and out going feeders of 11kv and incomming feeder of 33kv and near power transformers in sub-stations. 58. Define IDMT relay? It is an inverse definite minimum time relay.In IDMT relay its operating is inversely proportional and also a characteristic of minimum time after which this relay operates.It is inverse in the sense ,the tripping time will decrease as the magnitude of fault current increase. 59. What are the transformer losses? TRANSFORMER LOSSES – Transformer losses have two sources-copper loss and magnetic loss. Copper losses are caused by the resistance of the wire (I2R). Magnetic losses are caused by eddy currents and hysteresis in the core. Copper loss is a constant after the coil has been wound and therefore a measurable loss. Hysteresis loss is constant for a particular voltage and current. Eddy-current loss, however, is different for each frequency passed through the transformer. 60. What is the count of hvdc transmission lines in India? Resolution:At present there are three hvdc transmission lines in india chandrapur to padghe(mumbai)–(100 MW at ±00 kV DC) rehand to delhi (100 MW at ±00 kV DC) talchal to kolar (200 MW) 61. What is meant by regenerative braking? Resolution:When the supply is cutt off for a running motor, it still continue running due to inertia. In order to stop it quickly we place a load(resitor) across the armature winding and the motor should have maintained continuous field supply. so that back e.m.f voltage is made to apply across the resistor and due to load the motor stops quickly.This type of breaking is called as “Regenerative Breaking”. 62. Why is the starting current high in a DC motor? Resolution:In DC motors, Voltage equation is V=Eb-IaRa (V = Terminal voltage,Eb = Back emf in Motor,Ia = Armature current,Ra = Aramture resistance).At starting, Eb is zero. Therefore, V=IaRa, Ia = V/Ra ,where Ra is very less like 0.01ohm.i.e, Ia will become enormously increased. 63. What are the advantages of star-delta starter with induction motor? Resolution: (1). The main advantage of using the star delta starter is reduction of current during the starting of the motor.Starting current is reduced to 3-4 times Of current of Direct online starting. (2). Hence the starting current is reduced , the voltage drops during the starting of motor in systems are reduced. 64. Why Delta Star Transformers are used for Lighting Loads? Resolution:For lighting loads, neutral conductor is must and hence the secondary must be star winding. and this lighting load is always unbalanced in all three phases. To minimize the current unbalance in the primary we use delta winding in the primary. So delta / star transformer is used for lighting loads. 65. Why in a three pin plug the earth pin is thicker and longer than the other pins? Resolution:It depends upon R=rho l/a where area(a) is inversely proportional to resistance (R), so if (a) increases, R decreases & if R is less the leakage current will take low resistance path so the earth pin should be thicker. It is longer because the The First to make the connection and Last to disconnnect should be earth Pin. This assures Safety for the person who uses the electrical instrument. 66. Why series motor cannot be started on no-load? Resolution:Series motor cannot be started without load because of high starting torque. Series motor are used in Trains, Crane etc. 67. Why ELCB can’t work if N input of ELCB do not connect to ground? Resolution:ELCB is used to detect earth leakage fault. Once the phase and neutral are connected in an ELCB, the current will flow through phase and that much current will have to return neutral so resultant current is zero. Once there is a ground fault in the load side, current from phase will directly pass through earth and it will not return through neutral through ELCB. That means once side current is going and not returning and hence because of this difference in current ELCB wil trip and it will safe guard the other circuits from faulty loads. If the neutral is not grounded, fault current will definitely high and that full fault current will come back through ELCB, and there will be no difference in current. 68. How electrical power is generated by an A.C Generator? For the generation of elect power we need a prime mover which supplies mechanical power input to the alternator, can be steam turbines,or hydro turbines .When poles of the rotor moves under the armature conductors which are placed on the stator ,field flux cut the armature conductor ,therefore voltage is generated and is of sinusoidal in nature…due to polarity change of rotor poles(i,e) N-S-N-S. 69. Why an ac solenoid valve attract the plunger even though we interchanges the terminal? Will the poles changes? Yes because the poles changes for every half-cycle of ac voltage so the polarity of AC voltage is continuously changing for every half cycle. so, interchanging of terminals in ac system does not show any difference. That’s why the ac solenoid attract the plunger even though it’s terminals are interchanged. 70. What is derating?, why it is necessary, it is same for all means for drives, motors,and cables. The current currying of cables will change depending upon the site temperature (location of site), type of run (it will run through duct, trench, buried etc.), number of tray, depth of trench, distance between cables. Considering this condition actual current currying capacity of cable reduce than current currying capacity (which given to cable Catalogue) this is called derating. 71. Why temperature rise is conducted in bus bars and isolators? Bus bars and isolators are rated for continuous power flow, that means they carry heavy currents which rises their temperature. so it is necessary to test this devices for temperature rise. 72. When voltage increases then current also increases then what is the need of over voltage relay and over current relay? Can we measure over voltage and over current by measuring current only? No.We can’t sense the over voltage by just measuring the current only because the current increases not only for over voltages but also for under voltage(As most of the loads are non-linear in nature).So,the over voltage protection & over current protection are completely different. Over voltage relay meant for sensing over voltages & protect the system from insulation break down and firing. Over current relay meant for sensing any internal short circuit, over load condition ,earth fault thereby reducing the system failure & risk of fire.So, for a better protection of the system.It should have both over voltage & over current relay. 73. If one lamp connects between two phases it will glow or not? If the voltage between the two phase is equal to the lamp voltage then the lamp will glow. When the voltage difference is big it will damage the lamp and when the difference is smaller the lamp will glow depending on the type of lamp. 74. How do you select a cable size (Cu & Al) for a particular load? At first calculate the electrical current of the load, after that derate the electrical current considering derating factor(depending on site condition and laying of cable) after choose the cable size from cable catalog considering derating electrical current.After that measure the length of cable required from supply point of load to load poin. Calculate the voltage drop which will max 3% (resistance and reactance of cable found from cable catalog of selecting cable) if voltage drop>3% then choose next higher size of cable. 75. What are HRC fuses and where it is used? HRC stand for “high rupturing capacity” fuse and it is used in distribution system for electrical transformers. 76. Which power plant has high load factor? All base load power plants have a high load factor. If we use high efficiency power plants to supply the base load,we can reduce the cost of generation.Hydel power plants have a higher efficiency than thermal & nuclear power plants. 77. Mention the methods for starting an induction motor? The different methods of starting an induction motor DOL:direct online starter Star delta starter Auto transformer starter Resistance starter Series reactor starter 78. What is the difference between earth resistance and earth electrode resistance? Only one of the terminals is evident in the earth resistance. In order to find the second terminal we should recourse to its definition: Earth Resistance is the resistance existing between the electrically accessible part of a buried electrode and another point of the earth, which is far away. The resistance of the electrode has the following components: (A) the resistance of the metal and that of the connection to it. (B) the contact resistance of the surrounding earth to the electrode. 79. Explain What is use of lockout relay in ht voltage? A lock-out relay is generally placed in line before or after the e-stop switch so the power can be shut off at one central location. This relay is powered by the same electrical source as the control power and is operated by a key lock switch. The relay itself may have up to 24 contact points within the unit itself. This allows the control power for multiple machines to be locked out by the turn of a single key switch. 80. What is the power factor of an alternator at no load? At no load Synchronous Impedance of the alternator is responsible for creating angle difference. So it should be zero lagging like inductor. 81. Explain How to determine capacitor tolerance codes? Resolution:In electronic circuits, the capacitor tolerance can be determined by a code that appears on the casing. The code is a letter that often follows a three-digit number (such as 130Z).The first two are the 1st and 2nd significant digits and the third is a multiplier code. Most of the time the last digit tells you how many zeros to write after the first two digits and these are read as Pico-Farads. 82. Why most of analog o/p devices having o/p range 4 to 20 mA and not 0 to 20 mA? Resolution:4-20 mA is a standard range used to indicate measured values for any process. The reason that 4ma is chosen instead of 0 mA is for fail safe operation .For example- a pressure instrument gives output 4mA to indicate 0 psi, up to 20 mA to indicate 100 psi, or full scale. Due to any problem in instrument (i.e) broken wire, its output reduces to 0 mA. So if range is 0-20 mA then we can differentiate whether it is due to broken wire or due to 0 psi. 83. Two bulbs of 100w and 40w respectively connected in series across a 230v supply which bulb will glow bright and why? Resolution:Since two bulbs are in series they will get equal amount of electrical current but as the supply voltage is constant across the bulb(P=V^2/R).So the resistance of 40W bulb is greater and voltage across 40W is more (V=IR) so 40W bulb will glow brighter. 84. What is meant by knee point voltage? Resolution:Knee point voltage is calculated for electrical Current transformers and is very important factor to choose a CT. It is the voltage at which a CT gets saturated.(CT-current transformer). 85. What is reverse power relay? Resolution:Reverse Power flow relay are used in generating stations’s protection. A generating stations is supposed to fed power to the grid and in case generating units are off,there is no generation in the plant then plant may take power from grid. To stop the flow of power from grid to generator we use reverse power relay. 86. What will happen if DC supply is given on the primary of a transformer? Resolution:Mainly transformer has high inductance and low resistance.In case of DC supply there is no inductance ,only resistance will act in the –> electrical circuit. So high electrical current will flow through primary side of the transformer.So for this reason coil and insulation will burn out. 87. What is the difference between isolators and –>electrical circuit breakers? What is bus-bar? Resolution:Isolators are mainly for switching purpose under normal conditions but they cannot operate in fault conditions .Actually they used for isolating the CBs for maintenance. Whereas CB gets activated under fault conditions according to the fault detected.Bus bar is nothing but a junction where the power is getting distributed for independent loads. 88. What are the advantage of free wheeling diode in a Full Wave rectifier? Resolution:It reduces the harmonics and it also reduces sparking and arching across the mechanical switch so that it reduces the voltage spike seen in a inductive load 89. What is the function of interposing current transformer? Resolution:The main function of an interposing current transformer is to balance the currents supplied to the relay where there would otherwise be an imbalance due to the ratios of the main current transformers. Interposing current transformer are equipped with a wide range of taps that can be selected by the user to achieve the balance required. 90. What are Motor Generator Sets and explain the different ways the motor generator set can be used ? Resolution:Motor Generator Sets are a combination of an electrical generator and an engine mounted together to form a single piece of equipment. Motor generator set is also referred to as a genset, or more commonly, a generator. The motor generator set can used in the following different ways: Alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) DC to AC DC at one voltage to DC at another voltage AC at one frequency to AC at another harmonically-related frequency 91. Define what is power quality meter ? Power Quality meters are common in many industrial environment. Small units are now available for home use as well. They give operators the ability to monitor the both perturbations on the power supply, as well as power used within a building, or by a single machine or appliance. In some situations, equipment function and operation is monitored and controlled from a remote location where communication is via modem, or highspeed communication lines.So we can understand the importance of power measurement through power quality meters. 92. What is the different between digital phase converter and ordinary phase converter? Digital phase converter are a recent development in phase converter technology that utilizes proprietary software in a powerful microprocessor to control solid state power switching components. This microprocessor, called a digital signal processor (DSP), monitors the phase conversion process, continually adjusting the input and output modules of the converter to maintain perfectly balanced three-phase power under all load conditions. 93. Explain the operation of variable frequency transformer? A variable frequency transformer is used to transmit electricity between two asynchronous alternating current domains. A variable frequency transformer is a doubly-fed electric machine resembling a vertical shaft hydroelectric generator with a three-phase wound rotor, connected by slip rings to one external ac power circuit. A direct-current torque motor is mounted on the same shaft. Changing the direction of torque applied to the shaft changes the direction of power flow; with no applied torque, the shaft rotates due to the difference in frequency between the networks connected to the rotor and stator.The variable frequency transformer behaves as a continuously adjustable phase-shifting transformer. It allows control of the power flow between two networks . 94. What is the main use of rotary phase converter ? Rotary phase converter will be converting single phase power into true balanced 3 phase power,so it is often called as single phase to three phase converter . Often the advantages of 3 phase motors, and other 3 phase equipment, make it worthwhile to convert single phase to 3 phase so that small and large consumers need not want to pay for the extra cost of a 3 phase service but may still wish to use 3 phase equipment. 95. Use of switch mode power converter in real-time basis? Switch mode power converter can be used in the following 5 different ways step down an unregulated dc input voltage to produce a regulated dc output voltage using a circuit known as Buck Converter or Step-Down SMPS, step up an unregulated dc input voltage to produce a regulated dc output voltage using a circuit known as Boost Converter or Step-Up SMPS, step up or step down an unregulated dc input voltage to produce a regulated dc output voltage, invert the input dc voltage using usually a circuit such as the Cuk converter, and produce multiple dc outputs using a circuit such as the fly-back converter. 96. Which type of oil is used as a transformer oil? Transformer oil, or insulating oil, is usually a highly-refined mineral oil that is stable at high temperatures and has excellent electrical insulating properties. It is used in oil filled transformers, some types of high voltage capacitors, fluorescent lamp ballasts, and some types of high voltage switches and circuit breakers. Its functions are to insulate, suppress corona and arcing, and to serve as a coolant. Well into the 170s, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB)s were often used as a dielectric fluid since they are not flammable. They are toxic, and under incomplete combustion, can form highly toxic products such as furan. Starting in the early 170s, concerns about the toxicity of PCBs have led to their banning in many countries. Today, non-toxic, stable silicon-based or fluoridated hydrocarbons are used, where the added expense of a fireresistant liquid offsets additional building cost for a transformer vault. Combustion-resistant vegetable oil-based dielectric coolants and synthetic pentaerythritol tetra fatty acid (C7, C8) esters are also becoming increasingly common as alternatives to naphthenic mineral oil. Esters are non-toxic to aquatic life, readily biodegradable, and have a lower volatility and higher flash points than mineral oil. 97. If we give 2334 A, 540V on Primary side of 1.125 MVA step up transformer, then what will be the Secondary Current, If Secondary Voltage=11 KV? As we know the Voltage & current relation for transformer-V1/V2 = I2/I1 We Know, VI= 540 V; V2=11KV or 11000 V; I1= 2334 Amps. By putting these value on Relation- 540/11000= I2/2334 So,I2 = 114.5 Amps 98. what are the points to be consider for MCB(miniature circuit breaker selection? I(L)*1.25=I(MAX) maximum current. Mcb specification are done on maximum current flow in circuit. 99. What is the full form of KVAR? We know there are three types of power in Electrical as Active, apparent & reactive. So KVAR is stand for “Kilo Volt Amps with Reactive component. 100. What is excitation? Excitation is applying an external voltage to DC shunt coil in DC motors. ELECTRICAL Interview Questions :: 101. In three pin plug 6 Amp. 220v AC rating. why earth pin diameter is higher than other two pin? what its purpose ? Because Current flow in the conductor is inversely proportional to the conductor diameter. So if any short circuits occur in the system first high currents bypassed in the Earthling terminal.( R=Pl/a area of the conductor increases resistance value decreases) 102. Difference between megger test equipment and contact resistance meter test instruments? Megger test equipment used to measure cable electric resistance, conductor continuity, phase identification where as contact resistance meter test instruments used to measure low resistance like relays ,contactors. 103. When we connect the large capacitor bank in series ? we connect large capacitor bank in series to improve the voltage power supply at the load end in balanced transmission line when there is considerable voltage drop along the balanced transmission line due to high impedance of the line.So in order to bring the voltage at the load terminals within its limits (i.e (+ or – %6 )of the rated high terminal voltage )the large capacitor bank is used in series. 104. What is electrical diversity factor in electrical installations? Electrical diversity factor is the ratio of the sum of the individual maximum demands of the various subdivisions of a system, or part of a system, to the maximum demand of the whole system, or part of the system, under consideration. Electrical diversity factor is usually more than one. 105. Why field rheostat is kept in minimum position while armature rheostat at maximum position? In motors at the time of starting the armature resistance is introduced to reduce the high starting current and the field resistance is kept minimum to have high starting torque. 106. Why computer humming sound occurred in HT transmission line? This computer humming sound is coming due to ionization (breakdown of air into charged particles) of air around transmission conductor. This effect is called as Corona effect, and it is considered as power loss. 107. Explain What is rated speed? At the time of motor taking normal current (rated current)the speed of the motor is called rated speed. It is a speed at which any system take small current and give maximum efficiency. 108. What is different between resistance grounding system and resistance earthing system? Resistance grounding system means connecting the neutral point of the load to the ground to carry the residual current in case of unbalanced conditions through the neutral to the ground whereas resistance earthing system is done in an electric equipment in order to protect he equipment in occurrence of fault in the system. 109. Why should be the frequency 50 Hz 60Hz only why not others like 45, 95 56 or anything , why should we maintain the frequency constant if so why it is only 50 Hz 60Hz? We can have the frequency at any frequency you like, but than you must also make your own motors,high voltage transformers or any other equipment you want to use.We maintain the frequency at 50hz or 60hz because the world maintains a standard at 50 /60hz and the equipments are are made to operate at these frequency. 110. How to determine alternating current frequency? Zero crossings of the sine wave to trigger a monostable (pulse generator) is a way to determine alternating current frequency. A fixed width pulse is generated for each cycle. Thus there are “n” pulses per second, each with with a constant energy. The more pulses there are per second, the more the energy. The pulses are integrated (filtered or averaged) to get a steady DC voltage which is proportional to frequency. This voltage can then be displayed on an analogue or digital voltmeter, indicating frequency. This method is more suitable than a direct counter, as it can get good accuracy in a second or so. 111. Why electricity in India is in the multiples of 11 like 11kv, 22kv, 33kv ? Transformer Induced voltage equation contains 4.44 factor. E=4.44*f*T*phi E -Induced emf per phase T -number of turns f -frequency phi -maximum flux per pole From the equation we see that E is proportional to 4.4 and it is in turn multiple of 11. So always transmission voltage is multiple of 11 112. Why we use ac system in India why not dc ? Firstly, the output of power stations comes from a rotary turbine, which by it’s nature is AC and therefore requires no power electronics to convert to DC. Secondly it is much easier to change the voltage of AC electricity for transmission and distribution. thirdly the cost of plant associated with AC transmission (circuit breakers, transformers etc) is much lower than the equivilant of DC transmission AC transmission provides a number of technical advantages. When a fault on the network occurs, a large fault current occurs. In an AC system this becomes much easier to interupt, as the sine wave current will naturally tend to zero at some point making the current easier to interrupt. 113. Which type of motor is used in trains, what is the rating of supply used explain Working principal? Dc series is in the trains to get high starting torque while starting of the trains and operating voltage is 1500v dc. 114. Battery banks are in connected in series or parallel and why? Battery banks are always connected in series in order to get a multiplied voltage where the AH or current capacity remaining same. Ex : 24 nos. 2V,200Ah batteries connected in series will give 48V,200Ah output (AH = Ampere hours) 115. What is inrush current? Inrush current is the current drawn by a piece of electrically operated equipment when power is first applied. It can occur with AC or DC powered equipment, and can happen even with low supply voltages. 116. In a Tap changing transformer where is the tap connected, is it connected in the primary side or secondary side? Tapings are connected to high voltage winding side, because of low current. If we connect tapings to low voltage side, sparks will produce while tap changing operation due to high current. 117. Why transformer ratings are in kva? Since the power factor of transformer is dependent on load we only define VA rating and does not include power factor .In case of motors, power factor depend on construction and hence rating of motors is in KWatts and include power factor. 118. Define what is difference between fuse and breaker? Fuses are burned at the time of over current flows in the circuit but breakers are just open(not burn) at the time of over current flow. Fuses are used in only one time but breakers are used by multiple number of times. 119. What is the difference between delta-delta, delta-star transformer? Delta-delta transformer is used at generating station or a receiving station for Change of Voltage (i,e) generally it is used where the Voltage is high & Current is low.Delta-star is a distribution kind of transformer where from secondary star neutral is taken as a return path and this configuration is used for Step down voltage phenomena. 120. Capacitor is load free component but why ampere meter shows current when capacitor bank breaker close? As we know that Electrical is having two type of load, Active and Reactive .Capacitor is a reactive load which is not considering as a load,& its factor is Isin@ .Meter is design based on Current RMS value because of it meter is showing the current RMS value. 121. What’s electric traction? Traction implies with the electric power for traction system i. e. for railways, trams, trolleys etc. electric traction implies use of the electricity for all these. Now a day, magnetic traction is also utilised for bullet trains. Essentially dc motors are utilized for electric traction systems. 122. What is “pu” in EE? Pu stands for per unit in power system. (pu = actual value/ base value) 123. Define stepper motor. What is the use of stepper motor? The motor which work or act on the applied input pulse in it, is called as stepper motor.This stepper motor is under the category of synchronous motor, which often does not fully depend of complete cycle. It likes to works in either direction related to steps. for this purpose it mainly used in automation parts. 124. What is a differential amplifier? Also, explain CMRR. Differential Amplifier: The amplifier, which is used to amplify the voltage difference between two input-lines neither of which is grounded, is called differential amplifier. This reduces the amount of noise which is injected into the amplifier, because any noise appearing simultaneously on both the input-terminals as the amplifying circuitry rejects it being a common mode signal. CMRR: It can be defined as the ratio of differential voltage-gain to common made voltage gain. If a differential amplifier is perfect, CMRR will be infinite because in that case common mode voltage gain would be zero. 125. What is use of lockout relay in ht voltage? A lock-out relay is generally placed in line before or after the e-stop switch so the power can be shut off at one central location. This relay is powered by the same electrical source as the control power which is operated by a key lock switch. The relay itself may have up to 24 contact points within the unit itself. This allows the control power for multiple machines to be locked out by the turn of a single key switch. 126. How can you start-up the 40w tube lite with 230v AC/DC without using any choke/Coil? It’s possible with Electronic choke. otherwise it’s not possible to ionize the particles in tube. light, with normal voltage. 127. What types domain of Laplace transforms? What behavior can Laplace transform predict how the system work? Types domain of Laplace transforms is s-domain, Laplace transforms provide a method to find position, acceleration or voltage the system will have. 128. In the magnetic fluxes, what is the role of armature reaction? The armature flux has an important role for the running condition. This armature flux can oppose the main flux or it may support the main flux for better running condition. This effect of supporting and opposing of main flux to armature flux is called armature reaction. 129. Explain thin film resistors and wire-wound resistors Thin film resistors- It is constructed as a thin film of resistive material is deposited on an insulating substrate. Desired results are obtained by either trimming the layer thickness or by cutting helical grooves of suitable pitch along its length. During this process, the value of the resistance is monitored closely and cutting of grooves is stopped as soon as the desired value of resistance is obtained. Wire wound resistors – length of wire wound around an insulating cylindrical core are known as wire wound resistors. These wires are made of materials such as Constantan and Manganin because of their high resistivity, and low temperature coefficients. The complete wire wound resistor is coated with an insulating material such as baked enamel 130. whats the one main difference between UPS & inverter ? And electrical engineering & electronics engineering ? uninterrupt power supply is mainly use for short time . means according to ups VA it gives backup. ups is also two types : on line and offline . online ups having high volt and amp for long time backup with with high dc voltage.but ups start with v dc with 7 amp. but inverter is startwith v,24,dc to 36v dc and 0amp to 180amp battery with long time backup. 131. What are the operation carried out in Thermal power station? The water is obtained in the boiler and the coal is burnt so that steam is obtained this steam is allowed to hit the turbine, the turbine which is coupled with the generator generates the electricity 132. What is the difference between Electronic regulator and ordinary rheostat regulator for fans? The difference between the electronic and ordinary regulator is the fact that in electronic reg. power losses tend to be less because as we minimize the speed the electronic reg. give the power necessary for that particular speed but in case of ordinary rheostat type reg. the power wastage is same for every speed and no power is saved. In electronic regulator triac is employed for speed control. by varying the firing angle speed is controlled but in rheostatic control resistance is decreased by steps to achievespeed control. 133. What is 2 phase motor? A two phase motor is often a motor with the the starting winding and the running winding have a phase split. e.g; ac servo motor. where the auxiliary winding and the control winding have a phase split of 90 degree. 134. What does quality factor depend on in resonance? Quality factor q depends on frequency and bandwidth. 135. What are the types of power in electrical power? There are normally three types of power are counted in electrical power. They are, Apparent power Active power Reactive power 136. What are the advantages of VSCF wind electrical system? Advantages of VSCF wind electrical system are: No complex pitch changing mechanism is needed. Aero turbine always keeps going at maximum efficiency point. Extra energy in the high wind speed region of the speed – duration curve can be extracted Significant reduction in aerodynamic stresses, which are associated with constant – speed operation. 137. What is slip in an induction motor? Slip can be defined as the distinction between the flux speed (Ns) and the rotor speed (N). Speed of the rotor of an induction motor is always less than its synchronous speed. It is usually expressed as a percentage of synchronous speed (Ns) and represented by the symbol ‘S’. 138. Why link is provided in neutral of an ac circuit and fuse in phase of ac circuit? Link is provided at a Neutral common point in the circuit from which various connection are taken for the individual control circuit and so it is given in a link form to withstand high Amps. But in the case of Fuse in the Phase of AC circuit it is designed such that the fuse rating is calculated for the particular circuit (i.e load) only.So if any malfunction happen the fuse connected in the particular control circuit alone will blow off. 139. State the difference between generator and alternator? Generator and alternator are two devices, which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. Both have the same principle of electromagnetic induction, the only difference is that their construction. Generator persists stationary magnetic field and rotating conductor which rolls on the armature with slip rings and brushes riding against each other, hence it converts the induced emf into dc current for external load whereas an alternator has a stationary armature and rotating magnetic field for high voltages but for low voltage output rotating armature and stationary magnetic field is used. 140. What is ACSR cable and where we use it? ACSR means Aluminium conductor steel reinforced, this conductor is used in transmission & distribution. 141. Why star delta starter is preferred with induction motor? Star delta starter is preferred with induction motor due to following reasons: Starting current is reduced 3-4 times of the direct current due to which voltage drops and hence it causes less losses. Star delta starter circuit comes in circuit first during starting of motor, which reduces voltage 3 times, that is why current also reduces up to 3 times and hence less motor burning is caused. In addition, starting torque is increased and it prevents the damage of motor winding. 142. State the difference between generator and alternator Generator and alternator are two devices, which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. Both have the same principle of electromagnetic induction, the only difference is that their construction. Generator persists stationary magnetic field and rotating conductor which rolls on the armature with slip rings and brushes riding against each other, hence it converts the induced emf into dc current for external load whereas an alternator has a stationary armature and rotating magnetic field for high voltages but for low voltage output rotating armature and stationary magnetic field is used. 143. Why AC systems are preferred over DC systems? Due to following reasons, AC systems are preferred over DC systems: a. It is easy to maintain and change the voltage of AC electricity for transmission and distribution. b. Plant cost for AC transmission (circuit breakers, transformers etc) is much lower than the equivalent DC transmission c. From power stations, AC is produced so it is better to use AC then DC instead of converting it. d. When a large fault occurs in a network, it is easier to interrupt in an AC system, as the sine wave current will naturally tend to zero at some point making the current easier to interrupt. 144. How can you relate power engineering with electrical engineering? Power engineering is a sub division of electrical engineering. It deals with generation, transmission and distribution of energy in electrical form. Design of all power equipments also comes under power engineering. Power engineers may work on the design and maintenance of the power grid i.e. called on grid systems and they might work on off grid systems that are not connected to the system. 145. What are the various kind of cables used for transmission? Cables, which are used for transmitting power, can be categorized in three forms: Low-tension cables, which can transmit voltage upto 1000 volts. High-tension cables can transmit voltage upto 23000 volts. Super tension cables can transmit voltage 66 kV to 132 kV. 146. Why back emf used for a dc motor? highlight its significance. The induced emf developed when the rotating conductors of the armature between the poles of magnet, in a DC motor, cut the magnetic flux, opposes the current flowing through the conductor, when the armature rotates, is called back emf. Its value depends upon the speed of rotation of the armature conductors. In starting, the value of back emf is zero. 147. What is slip in an induction motor? Slip can be defined as the difference between the flux speed (Ns) and the rotor speed (N). Speed of the rotor of an induction motor is always less than its synchronous speed. It is usually expressed as a percentage of synchronous speed (Ns) and represented by the symbol ‘S’. 148. Explain the application of storage batteries. Storage batteries are used for various purposes, some of the applications are mentioned below: For the operation of protective devices and for emergency lighting at generating stations and substations. For starting, ignition and lighting of automobiles, aircrafts etc. For lighting on steam and diesel railways trains. As a supply power source in telephone exchange, laboratories and broad casting stations. For emergency lighting at hospitals, banks, rural areas where electricity supplies are not possible. 149. Explain advantages of storage batteries Few advantages of storage batteries are mentioned below: Most efficient form of storing energy portably. Stored energy is available immediately because there is no lag of time for delivering the stored energy. Reliable source for supply of energy. The energy can be drawn at a fairly constant rate. 160. What are the different methods for the starting of a synchronous motor. Starting methods: Synchronous motor can be started by the following two methods: By means of an auxiliary motor: The rotor of a synchronous motor is rotated by auxiliary motor. Then rotor poles are excited due to which the rotor field is locked with the stator-revolving field and continuous rotation is obtained. By providing damper winding: Here, bar conductors are embedded in the outer periphery of the rotor poles and are short-circuited with the short-circuiting rings at both sides. The machine is started as a squirrel cage induction motor first. When it picks up speed, excitation is given to the rotor and the rotor starts rotating continuously as the rotor field is locked with stator revolving field. 161. Name the types of motors used in vacuum cleaners, phonographic appliances, vending machines,refrigerators, rolling mills, lathes, power factor improvement and cranes. Following motors are used: – Vacuum cleaners- Universal motor. Phonographic appliances – Hysteresis motor. Vending machines – Shaded pole motor. Refrigerators – Capacitor split phase motors. Rolling mills – Cumulative motors. Lathes – DC shunt motors. Power factor improvement – Synchronous motors. 162. State Thevenin’s Theorem: According to thevenin’s theorem, the current flowing through a load resistance Connected across any two terminals of a linear active bilateral network is the ratio open circuit voltage (i.e. the voltage across the two terminals when RL is removed) and sum of load resistance and internal resistance of the network. It is given by Voc / (Ri + RL). 163. State Norton’s Theorem The Norton’s theorem explains the fact that there are two terminals and they are as follows: One is terminal active network containing voltage sources Another is the resistance that is viewed from the output terminals. The output terminals are equivalent to the constant source of current and it allows giving the parallel resistance. The Norton’s theorem also explains about the constant current that is equal to the current of the short circuit placed across the terminals. The parallel resistance of the network can be viewed from the open circuit terminals when all the voltage and current sources are removed and replaced by the internal resistance. 164. State Maximum power transfer theorem The Maximum power transfer theorem explains about the load that a resistance will extract from the network. This includes the maximum power from the network and in this case the load resistance is being is equal to the resistance of the network and it also allows the resistance to be equal to the resistance of the network. This resistance can be viewed by the output terminals and the energy sources can be removed by leaving the internal resistance behind. 165. Explain different losses in a transformer. There are two types of losses occurring in transformer: Constant losses or Iron losses: The losses that occur in the core are known as core losses or iron losses. Two types of iron losses are: 1. eddy current loss 2. Hysteresis loss. These losses depend upon the supply voltage, frequency, core material and its construction. As long as supply voltage and frequency is constant, these losses remain the same whether the transformer is loaded or not. These are also known as constant losses. Variable losses or copper losses: when the transformer is loaded, current flows in primary and secondary windings, there is loss of electrical energy due to the resistance of the primary winding, and secondary winding and they are called variable losses. These losses depend upon the loading conditions of the transformers. Therefore, these losses are also called as variable losses. 176. Explain different types of D.C motors? Give their applications Different type of DC motors and their applications are as follows:- Shunt motors: It has a constant speed though its starting torque is not very high. Therefore, it is suitable for constant speed drive, where high starting torque is not required such as pumps, blowers, fan, lathe machines, tools, belt or chain conveyor etc. Service motors: It has high starting torque & its speed is inversely proportional to the loading conditions i.e. when lightly loaded, the speed is high and when heavily loaded, it is low. Therefore, motor is used in lifts, cranes, traction work, coal loader and coal cutter in coalmines etc. Compound motors: It also has high starting torque and variable speed. Its advantage is, it can run at NIL loads without any danger. This motor will therefore find its application in loads having high inertia load or requiring high intermittent torque such as elevators, conveyor, rolling mill, planes, presses, shears and punches, coal cutter and winding machines etc. 177. Explain the process of commutation in a dc machine. Explain what are inter-poles and why they are required in a dc machine. Commutation: It is phenomenon when an armature coil moves under the influence of one pole- pair; it carries constant current in one direction. As the coil moves into the influence of the next pole- pair, the current in it must reverse. This reversal of current in a coil is called commutation. Several coils undergo commutation simultaneously. The reversal of current is opposed by the static coil emf and therefore must be aided in some fashion for smooth current reversal, which otherwise would result in sparking at the brushes. The aiding emf is dynamically induced into the coils undergoing commutation by means of compoles or interpoles, which are series excited by the armature current. These are located in the interpolar region of the main poles and therefore influence the armature coils only when these undergo commutation. 178. Comment on the working principle of operation of a single-phase transformer. Working principle of operation of a single-phase transformer can be explained as An AC supply passes through the primary winding, a current will start flowing in the primary winding. As a result, the flux is set. This flux is linked with primary and secondary windings. Hence, voltage is induced in both the windings. Now, when the load is connected to the secondary side, the current will start flowing in the load in the secondary winding, resulting in the flow of additional current in the secondary winding. Hence, according to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, emf will be induced in both the windings. The voltage induced in the primary winding is due to its self inductance and known as self induced emf and according to Lenze’s law it will oppose the cause i.e. supply voltage hence called as back emf. The voltage induced in secondary coil is known as mutually induced voltage. Hence, transformer works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. 179. Define the following terms:- • Reliability, • Maximum demand, • Reserve-generating capacity, • Availability (operational). Reliability: It is the capacity of the power system to serve all power demands without failure over long periods. Maximum Demand: It is maximum load demand required in a power station during a given period. Reserve generating capacity: Extra generation capacity installed to meet the need of scheduled downtimes for preventive maintenance is called reserve-generating capacity. Availability: As the percentage of the time a unit is available to produce power whether needed by the system or not. 180. Mention the disadvantages of low power factor? How can it be improved? Disadvantages of low power factor: Line losses are 1.57 times unity power factor. Larger generators and transformers are required. Low lagging power factor causes a large voltage drop, hence extra regulation equipment is required to keep voltage drop within prescribed limits. Greater conductor size: To transmit or distribute a fixed amount of power at fixed voltage, the conductors will have to carry more current at low power factor. This requires a large conductor size. 181. State the methods of improving power factor? Methods of improving power factor: By connecting static capacitors in parallel with the load operating at lagging power factor. A synchronous motor takes a leading current when over excited and therefore behaves like a capacitor. By using phase advancers to improve the power factor of induction motors. It provides exciting ampere turns to the rotor circuit of the motor. By providing more ampere-turns than required, the induction motor can be made to operate on leading power factor like an overexcited synchronous motor. 182. State the factors, for the choice of electrical system for an aero turbine. The choice of electrical system for an aero turbine is guided by three factors: Type of electrical output: dc, variable- frequency ac, and constant- frequency ac. Aero turbine rotational speed: constant speed with variable blade pitch, nearly constant speed with simpler pitch- changing mechanism or variable speed with fixed pitch blades. Utilization of electrical energy output: in conjunction with battery or other form of storage, or interconnection with power grid. 183. What are the advantages of VSCF wind electrical system? Advantages of VSCF wind electrical system are: No complex pitch changing mechanism is needed. Aero turbine always operates at maximum efficiency point. Extra energy in the high wind speed region of the speed – duration curve can be extracted Significant reduction in aerodynamic stresses, which are associated with constant – speed operation. 184. Explain the terms real power, apparent power and reactive power for ac circuits and also the units used. Real Power: It is the product of voltage, current and power factor i.e. P = V I cos j and basic unit of real power is watt. i.e. Expressed as W or kW. Apparent power: It is the product of voltage and current. Apparent power = V I and basic unit of apparent power is volt- ampere. Expressed as VA or KVA. Reactive Power: It is the product of voltage, current and sine of angle between the voltage and current i.e. Reactive power = voltage X current X sinj or Reactive power = V I sin j and has no other unit but expressed in VAR or KVAR. 185. Define the following: Average demand, Maximum demand, Demand factor, Load factor. Average Demand: the average power requirement during some specified period of time of considerable duration is called the average demand of installation. Maximum Demand: The maximum demand of an installation is defined as the greatest of all the demand, which have occurred during a given period. It is measured accordingly to specifications, over a prescribed time interval during a certain period. Demand Factor: It is defined as the ratio of actual maximum demand made by the load to the rating of the connected load. Load Factor: It is defined as the ratio of the average power to the maximum demand. 186. Explain forward resistance, static resistance and dynamic resistance of a pn junction diode. Forward Resistance: Resistance offered in a diode circuit, when it is forward biased, is called forward resistance. DC or Static Resistance: DC resistance can be explained as the ratio of the dc-voltage across the diode to the direct current flowing through it. AC or Dynamic Resistance: It can be defined as the reciprocal of the slope of the forward characteristic of the diode. It is the resistance offered by a diode to the changing forward current. 187. How does Zener phenomenon differ from Avalanche breakdown? The phenomenon when the depletion region expands and the potential barrier increases leading to a very high electric field across the junction, due to which suddenly the reverse current increases under a very high reverse voltage is called Zener effect. Zener-breakdown or Avalanche breakdown may occur independently or both of these may occur simultaneously. Diode junctions that breakdown below 5v are caused by Zener Effect. Junctions that experience breakdown above 5v are caused by avalanche-effect. The Zener-breakdown occurs in heavily doped junctions, which produce narrow depletion layers. The avalanche breakdown occurs in lightly doped junctions, which produce wide depletion layers. 191. Compare JFET’s and MOSFET’s. Comparison of JFET’s and MOSFET’s: JFET’s can only be operated in the depletion mode whereas MOSFET’s can be operated in either depletion or in enhancement mode. In a JFET, if the gate is forward-biased, excess-carrier injunction occurs and the gatecurrent is substantial. MOSFET’s have input impedance much higher than that of JFET’s. Thus is due to negligible small leakage current. JFET’s have characteristic curves more flat than that of MOSFET is indicating a higher drain resistance. When JFET is operated with a reverse-bias on the junction, the gate-current IG is larger than it would be in a comparable MOSFET. 192. Explain thin film resistors and wire-wound resistors a. Thin film resistors- It is constructed as a thin film of resistive material is deposited on an insulating substrate. Desired results are obtained by either trimming the layer thickness or by cutting helical grooves of suitable pitch along its length. During this process, the value of the resistance is monitored closely and cutting of grooves is stopped as soon as the desired value of resistance is obtained. b. Wire wound resistors – length of wire wound around an insulating cylindrical core are known as wire wound resistors. These wires are made of materials such as Constantan and Manganin because of their high resistivity, and low temperature coefficients. The complete wire wound resistor is coated with an insulating material such as baked enamel 193. What is a differential amplifier? Also, explain CMRR. Differential Amplifier: The amplifier, which is used to amplify the voltage difference between two input-lines neither of which is grounded, is called differential amplifier. This reduces the amount of noise injected into the amplifier, because any noise appearing simultaneously on both the input-terminals as the amplifying circuitry rejects it being a common mode signal. CMRR: It can be defined as the ratio of differential voltage-gain to common made voltage gain. If a differential amplifier is perfect, CMRR would be infinite because in that case common mode voltage gain would be zero. 196. What is the difference between electronic regulator and ordinary electrical rheostat regulator for fans? The difference between the electronic and ordinary electrical regulator is that in electronic regulator power losses are less because as we decrease the speed the electronic regulator gives the power needed for that particular speed but in case of ordinary rheostat type regulator, the power wastage is same for every speed and no power is saved.In electronic regulator, triac is employed for speed control by varying the firing angle speed and it is controlled but in rheostatic ,control resistance is decreased by steps to achieve speed control. 197. What is the voltage gain or transfer function of amplifier? Vout/Vin 198. What does the KVAR means? The KVAR indicates the electrical power. KVAR means “Kilo Volt Amperes with Reactive components” 199. Why use the VCB at High Transmission System ? Why can't use ACB? Actually the thing is vacuum has high arc quenching property compare to air because in VCB ,the die electric strengths equal to 8 times of air . That y always vacuum used as inHT breaker and air used as in LT . 200. What is the difference between MCB & MCCB, Where it can be used? MCB is miniature circuit breaker which is thermal operated and use for short circuit protection in small current rating circuit. MCCB moulded case circuit breaker and is thermal operated for over load current and magnetic operation for instant trip in short circuit condition.under voltage and under frequency may be inbuilt. Normally it is used where normal current is more than 100A. Basic ELECTRICAL Engineer Interview Questions and Answers :: Read the full article
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batexamin · 7 years ago
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Agriculture GK Objective Question & Answers MCQ for Competitive Exam PDF
Agriculture GK Objective Question & Answers MCQ for Competitive Exam PDF
General Agriculture Quiz, Agriculture Competitive Exam Questions And Answers, Agriculture Current Affairs 2017 Pdf, General Agriculture Objective Questions Ebook, Agriculture Question Bank With Answers Download, Agriculture Mcq With Answers Pdf, Interview Questions Answers Agriculture, Agriculture Current Affairs 2016 Pdf, Latest Current Affairs And News About Agriculture, Indian Agriculture General Knowledge Pdf , Agriculture General Knowledge Objective Questions, Objective And Practice Questions For Agriculture, Gk Questions: Indian Agriculture, Agriculture Question Answer, GK Quiz, General Knowledge, Agriculture Question Answer, Agriculture GK Quiz, General Knowledge on Agriculture, Objective Agriculture Question and answer, Agriculture Competitive Exam Questions and Answers   Dear Readers, Welcome to daily Current Affairs quiz questions with answers on Agriculture. These objective type (MCQ) questions on Agriculture are useful for competitive exams like IBPS, Bank PO, SBI PO, RRB, RBI, LIC, Specialist Officer, Clerk, SSC, UPSC, Railway etc. Try Objective type Question For Agriculture Subject Competition.   Covering various important national and international topics, the chosen questions help you improve your general knowledge (GK) and perform the best. Every year mostly 2 or 3 questions from this topic are asked in various competitive exams like SSC, IBPS, Railways etc. Agriculture Question Answer, Agriculture GK Quiz, General Knowledge on Agriculture, Objective Agriculture Question and answer.    Learn and prepare with these daily current affairs quiz and practice test questions on Agriculture to crack current affairs section of any competitive exam. These questions are from the topic of Indian Agriculture. Questions are very useful for competitive exams and General Knowledge.   
Agriculture GK Objective Question & Answers MCQ for Competitive Exam PDF
  The main advantage of 'PVC'pipes for drainage is the feasibility of— (A) Mechanical laying (B) Physical laying (C) Chemical laying (D) Physical, chemical laying both (Ans : A) 2. 'ESCORT' tractor is manufactured at— (A) Faridabad (B) Ghaziabad (C) Kanpur (D) Chennai (Ans : A) 3. Soil erosion by wind brings about the serious damage in soil by changing the— (A) Soil permeability (B) Soil structure (C) Soil texture (D) Soil plasticity (Ans : C) 4. High compression petrol engines are used in some tractors and have high performance in— (A) U.S.A. (B) Germany (C) Japan (D) Holland (Ans : A) 5. The distribution of fertilizers by aircraft is widely practised in— (A) England (B) France (C) Gennany (D) New Zealand (Ans : D) 6. A 2- row potato harvester, working in good conditions with 4 to 5 men on the machine, can do how much hectare per day ? (A) 0.5-0.6 ha (B) 1.2-1.4 ha (C) 2.5 ha (D) 1.8-1.9 ha (Ans : B) 7. Mole drainage is practised extensively in country— (A) New Zealand (B) Japan (C) U.S.A. (D) China (Ans : A) 8. Which is not included in the sources of energy, getting for agricultural work ? (A) Diesel engine (B) Electric motor (C) Bullocks (D) Cow (Ans : D) 9. Which is included in dairy equipments ? (A) Threshers (B) Lactometer (C) Cane Planter (D) Winnowers (Ans : B) 10. In our country, for the manufacturing of agricultural implements tools, mostly wood is used, because— (A) Easy available at all the places (B) Wood is cheaper (C) Easy to repare tools made-up of wooden, compound to metal tools (D) Above (A) to (C) are correct (Ans : D) 11. Which of the following wood is not used for making handle of spade ? (A) Sheesham (B) Babool (C) Neem (D) Mango (Ans : A) 12. Soil turning plough makes the furrow of which type (shape) ? (A) 'V' shape (B) 'L' shape (C) 'O' shape (D) No definite shape (Ans : B) 13. Which of the following is one (single) handed soil turning plough ? (A) Punjab plough (B) Praja plough (C) Victory plough (D) U. P. No.1 plough (Ans : B) 14. The purpose of tillage is/are— (A) Soil clods breaking and suppressing in soil (B) Eradication of weeds (C) Leveling of soil (D) Above (A), (B) and (C) (Ans : D) 15. The main function of cultivator is— (A) To turn the soil (B) To make furrow in soil (C) To pulverize the soil (D) All above three functions (Ans : C) 16. Bakhar is generally used in— (A) U. P. (B) Bundelkhand (C) Vindhya Pradesh (D) In all the States/parts of India (in All India) (Ans : B) 17. Harrow is drawn by— (A) Bullocks (B) Tractor (C) Diesel (D) Bullocks and Tractor both (Ans : D) 18. Which of the following is not a secondary tillage implement ? (A) Cultivators (B) Harrow (C) Hoe (D) Meston plough (Ans : D) 19. The term 'Olpad' in 'Olpad Thresher' is named on the name of— (A) Scientist (B) Village (C) Labourer (D) Farmer (Ans : B) 20. Which of the following 'hoe' is bullock drawn ? (A) Akola hoe (B) Sharma hoe (C) Wheel hoe (D) Naini type hoe (Ans : A) 21. The land levelling implement is— (A) Patela (B) Roller (C) Scrapper (D) All of the above (Ans : D) 22. Patela is used for— (A) Sowing (B) Levelling (C) Earthing (D) Weeding (Ans : B) 23. Which of the material is not used for making rollers ? (A) Wood (B) Stone (C) Iron (D) Steel (Ans : D) 24. In which condition, roller is used ? (A) Where soil is wet (B) Where clods are present in soil (C) Where soil is friable (D) None of the above (Ans : D) 25. Which one of the following work is not done by scrappers ? (A) For levelling of soil (B) For making irrigation channels (C) For covering the sown-seeds by earth (D) For making ridges (Ans : C) 26. Dibbler is used for— (A) Ploughing (B) Seed sowing (C) Levelling of land (D) Interculture (Ans : B) 27. The minimum expenditure is incurred by implements for sowing seeds among the following— (A) Deshi plough (B) Cultivator (C) Dibbler (D) Seed-drill (Ans : D) 28. Which of the following tool is used for measuring the draft of agricultural implements? (A) Dynamometer (B) Hydrometer (C) Galvanometer (D) Barometer (Ans : A) 29. Which of the following does not affect the draft of ploughs ? (A) Width of furrow (B) Depth of furrow (C) Length of furrow (D) Soil moisture (Ans : C) 30. Swing-basket (Dhenkuli) is used for— (A) Making furrow (B) Lifting water from wells (C) Destroying weeds (D) Leveling of land (Ans : B) 31. Which of the following is used maximum for lifting water from wells ? (A) Persian wheel (Rahat) (B) Swing basket (Bedi) (C) Dhenkuli (D) Don (Ans : A) 32. Which of the following is used for lifting water from 8-10 m depth ? (A) Washer Rahat (B) Hand pump (C) Mayadar lift (D) None of the above (Ans : D) 33. In which implement. bullocks are not used for lifting water ? (A) Buldev Balti (B) Charsa (C) Egyptian screw (D) Rahat (Persian wheel) (Ans : C) 34. The working efficiency per day of deshi plough is— (A) 0.3 ha (B) 0.4 ha (C) 0.6 ha (D) 0.8 ha (Ans : B) 35. Which of the method of ploughing is mostly practised ? (A) Outside to inside ploughing (B) Inside to outside ploughing (C) Ploughing by putting furrow from one side of field (D) Ploughing by halai making (Ans : D) 36. The best method of ploughing through deshi plough is— (A) Outside to inside ploughing (B) Inside to outside ploughing (C) Ploughing by making halai (D) Ploughing by making furrow from one side of field (Ans : C) 37. How much is the working efficiency of dibbler (ha per day) ? (A) 0.15 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.45 (Ans : A) 38. Tillage includes— (A) Ploughing of land (B) Keep the land free from weeds (C) Make the soil levelled (D) All of the above operations (Ans : D) 39. Function of the seed-drill is— (A) Making furrow (B) Dropping seeds (C) Covering the seeds in furrow (D) All of the above (Ans : D) 40. Wrought iron contains carbon (per cent) — (A) 0.05-1% (B) 1-2% (C) 2-3% (D) 3-4% (Ans : A) 41. The mould-board of a tractor drawn soil turning plough is the type of— (A) General purpose (B) Stubble (C) Sod (breaker) (D) High speed (Ans : D) 42. Among the following, ridger is not used in crop— (A) Maize (B) Gram (C) Potato (D) Sugarcane (Ans : B) 43. Belt mostly used is of types— (A) Rubber (B) Kirmich (C) Leather (D) Cotton thread (Ans : A) 44. The major defects of rubber belts are— (A) Costly (B) Slips on wet (C) Early rubbed (D) Increased due to heat (Ans : B) 45. How many m.m. are in one foot length ? (A) 304.8 (B) 404.8 (C) 204.8 (D) 104.8 (Ans : A) 46. The grooved pulleys are made-up of— (A) Steel (B) Cast iron (C) Wooden (D) Above (A) and (B) both (Ans : D) 47. A general farmer used deshi plough for the purpose of— (A) Land ploughing (B) Collecting weeds (C) Making soil powdery (D) Above all works (Ans : D) 48. Which of the following is best for driving machine from low power to slow speed ? (A) Belts and pulley (B) Spur gear (C) Toothed wheel and chains (D) None of the above (Ans : A) 49. Reapers are used for— (A) Crop cutting (B) Threshing of harvested crop produce (lank) (C) Seeds sowing (D) Fodder cutting (Ans : A) 50. Threshers (except Olpad threshers) are driven by— (A) One pair of bullocks (B) Two pair of bullocks (C) Diesel (D) All of the above (Ans : C) 51. Winnowing it called— (A) Cutting a crop (B) To separate straw etc. from threshed lank (C) To thresh (D) Cutting the fodder (Ans : B) 52. Chaff-cutter is driven by— (A) Hand (B) Bullocks (C) Electric power (D) All of the above (Ans : D) 53. Sugarcane juice is extracted (%) from canes through bullock-drawn cane-crusher— (A) 50-55 (B) 70-75 (C) 25-30 (D) 60-65 (Ans : D) 54. 'Olpad' thresher is used in— (A) Oil extraction from mustard, toria etc. (B) Extracting juice from cane (C) Threshing of wheat, barley, pea etc. (D) All (A), (B) and (C) (Ans : C) 55. 'Seed dresser' is used for— (A) Mixing/treating seeds with chemicals (B) Sowing seeds at proper distance (C) Making seeds of high grade (D) Keeping seeds effective upto longer period (Ans : A) 56. 'Try square' is used by— (A) Blacksmith (B) Carpenter (C) Potter (D) Farmers  (Ans : B) 57. Which type of saw is not included ? (A) Cross cut saw (B) Deshi saw (C) Tenon saw (D) Teething saw (Ans : D) 58. Which type of saw, used for cutting round shape in hole ? (A) Fret saw (B) Penal saw (C) Tenon saw (D) Key hole saw  (Ans : D) 59. 'Draw-Knife' is used for— (A) To fit galua in grinder (B) Making round the corners of wood (C) Smoothing the base of wood (D) Sharping teeth of saw  (Ans : B) 60. The tool used for making deep pit in wood is— (A) Adge (B) Saw (C) Draw knife (D) Chisel  (Ans : D) 61. The main work of 'scrapper' is— (A) For cutting the wood (B) For scrapping the wood (C) For smoothing the wood (D) All of the above  (Ans : C) 62. 'File' is used for— (A) Scrapping the wood (B) Cutting the wood (C) Forcing the wood (D) Making equal by scrapping the wood (Ans : D) 63. The type of file is generally— (A) Round (B) Triangular (C) Flate (D) Above all types (Ans : D) 64. Brace machine is used for— (A) Making hole in wood (B) Scrapping the wood (C) For smoothing the wood (D) None of these (Ans : A) 65. Which one machine/tool is not used in making hole in wood ? (A) Ordinary drill (B) Hand drill (C) Pincer (D) Twist bit (Ans : C) 66. 'Bar cramp' is a tool of— (A) Wood cutting (B) Catching tightly wood (C) Beating tool (D) Smoothing tool (Ans : B) 67. Nail (Keel) pulling is done by— (A) Claw-hammer (B) Pincer (C) Plier (D) All of these Ans : (E) 68. 'Forging' is said— (A) Heating the iron (B) Beating the hot iron (C) Converting into desired shape by beating the iron (D) Beating iron and making hole in it (Ans : C) 69. 'Anvil' (Nihai) is used for— (A) Beating the iron on keeping over this (B) By beating iron through this (C) Heating iron through handling this (D) Cooling of hot iron (Ans : A) 70. Fire is pulled-up through— (A) Poker (B) Sewage block (C) Showel (D) Anvil (Ans : A) 71. 'Sledge' is used to— (A) Lift heavy material (B) Fire furnace (C) Cut the iron in cold condition (D) Cut the iron in hot condition (Ans : A) 72. The roller of cane-crusher is made-up of which steel ? (A) Cast iron (B) Gun metal (C) High carbon steel (D) Wrought iron  (Ans : A) 73. The tool use for catching (handling) the claw and turning it hither and thither during beating is called— (A) Sewage block (B) Chisel (C) Plier (D) Tongs (Ans : D) 74. Punches are of— (A) Two types (B) Three types (C) Four types (D) Several types (Ans : B) 75. Agricultural tractors are generally having horse power (h.p.) — (A) 20-50 (B) 50-70 (C)10-15 (D) 20-25 (Ans : A) 76. A three-tine furrow plough is ploughing at a speed of 2 km/hr and the each furrow size is 20 cm wide and 12 cm deep furrow. How much time, it would require to plough 5 hectare land ? (A) 41 hours 40 minutes (B) 40 hours 55 minutes (C) 20 hours 55 minutes (D) None of these (Ans : A) 77. If a gear 'A', having 50 teeth and running at a speed of 200 r.p.m. is driving to another gear 'B' having 125 r.p.m. How many number of teeth in gear' B' ? (A) 500 (B) 400 (C) 80 (D) 60 (Ans : C) 78. Animal driven cane planter is developed by— (A) ICAR (B) CIAE (C) IISR (D) IARI (Ans : C) 79. A 10 cm wide belt is running at a speed of 900 r.p.m. If the 15 H. P. is available, then how much plies of belt ? (A) 3 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 4  (Ans : D) 80. How much width belt would be needed if 20 H. P. is to be transferred through a belt of 10 plies, where speed of belt is 1460 r.p.m. ? (A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 6 cm (Ans : B) 81. A 10 cm wide belt, having the speed of 1350 meter per minute, would be appropriate to transfer the how much H. P. ? (A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 40 (Ans : B) 82. A tractor driving pulley has its 25 cm diameter and revolving at a speed of 960 r.p.m. If on the shaft of a thresher, an attached pulley is revolving at a speed of 1600 r.p.m. what would be the diameter of this pulley ? (A) 16 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 20 cm (Ans : C) 83. A pulley of 21 cm diameter and revolving at 1600 r.p.m. Find out the speed of the belt running over it— (A) 1120 m/minute (B) 1200 m/minute (C) 1056 m/minute (D) None of these  (Ans : B) 84. If the distance between two pullies, having the diameter of 45 cm and 39 cm, is 3.2 metre, then what would be length of required flate belt ? (A) 6.8 m (B) 7.72 m (C) 9.4 m (D) 7.2 m  (Ans : B) 85. Two pair of bullocks are ploughing a field by victory ploughs at a speed of 2 km/hr. If the average width of each furrow is 25 cm. How much time will be required to plough one hectare land? Where after each two hours working, 20 minutes rest is required to provide ? (A) 10 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 11 hours 40 minutes (D) 8 hours 20 minutes (Ans : C) 86. If the relative distance is 2.5 metre of centre points of two pullies, having SO cm and 25 cm diameters, then, how much length (metre) of 'V' belt would be required ? (A) 6.18875 (B) 5.18775 (C) 6.28775 (D) 6.18775 (Ans : D) 87. A 'chain' contains how much metre ? (A) 20.1168 (B) 21.1168 (C) 15.1168 (D) 18.1168  (Ans : A) 88. If the rate of electricity is rupee one per unit, then, a 20 h. p. electric motor, having approx. 100% efficiency will require how much cost (Rs.) on 100 hours running to irrigate the field ? (A) 500 (B) 750 (C) 1500 (D) 2000 (Ans : C) 89. 'Drip' irrigation is generally followed in the country— (A) Israel (B) America (C) Australia (D) Japan (Ans : A) 90. In India, under canal net-work system of irrigation, generally, how much amount of water is allowed to run in small canal ? (A) Less than 4 cusec (B) Less than 10 cusec (C) Between 15 to 20 cusec (D) Between 25 to 30 cusec (Ans : B) 91. Method of irrigation is— (A) Surface irrigation (B) Sprinkler irrigation (C) Drip irrigation (D) All of these (Ans : D) 92. The Torque—a power to generate revolutions is expressed as (its unit is kg metre) — (A) Length of arm (m) x Force (kg) (B) Length of arm (cm) x Force (kg) (C) Length of arm (m) x Force (g) (D) Length of arm (rom) x Force (mg)  (Ans : A) 93. Work is expressed by the formula as— (A) Work = Force (kg) x Distance (m) (B) Work = Force (g) x Distance (m) (C) Work = Force (mg) x Distance (m) (D) Work = Force (kg) x Distance (cm) (Ans : A) 94. The length of 'Engineer chain' is— (A) 100 ft (B) 80 ft (C) 20 ft (D) None of these  (Ans : A) 95. The length of 'Gunter chain' is— (A) 66 ft (B) 100 ft (C) 20 ft (D) 90 ft (Ans : A) 96. The area of an acre is— (A) 0.40 (B) 0.80 (C) 1.10 (D) None of these (Ans : D) 97. One centimetre is equal to— (A) 5 mm (B) 10 mm (C) 15 mm (D) None of these (Ans : B) 98. The draft of 'Victory plough' is— (A) 80-100 kg (B) 40-50 kg (C) 70-80 kg (D) 10-20 kg (Ans : A) 99. How much horse power (h.p.) is in one kW (Kilowatt) ? (A) 1.34 (B) 1.90 (C) 2.00 (D) 3.80 (Ans : A) 100. Man power is considered equal to how much horse power (h.p.) ? (A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4  (Ans : A)    
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onlinetestseries-blog · 8 years ago
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Frequently asked questions about GATE exam
What is GATE?
GATE- Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering is an all India examination that primarily tests the comprehensive understanding of the candidate in various undergraduate subjects in Engineering & Technology. The GATE score reflects the relative performance level in a particular branch. GATE score is valid for three years. The score is used for admissions to post-graduate engineering programs in an Indian higher education institutes with financial assistance provided by MHRD and other Government agencies. The score may also use by Public & Private sector unit ads for employment screening purposes.
Why should go for GATE Exams?
There are various reasons for one to go for GATE:
This     is an opportunity for the student to get a technical profile jobs in their     dream companies. Companies are more preferred towards recruiting tech(ME) students     during placements.
It     is also stipend based course with average stipend of Rs 15000/- to Rs     20000/- for GATE qualified students.
GATE     qualified candidates in the Engineering discipline are also eligible for     the award of JRF & SRF in CSIR Laboratories.
Some     government organizations (PSUs) prescribe GATE qualification as a     requirement.
Based     on the GATE score, some of the foreign university (Like NTU, Singapore) prefers     Ph.D. position without any GRE score.
What are the Eligibility Criteria for appearing in GATE?
Candidate     must be in the final year of the technical programmes either completed     Bachelors in Engineering/Technology/Architecture can apply.
Master's     degree holders in any branch of Science/Mathematics/Statistics/Computer     Applications or equivalent and those who are in the final or pre-final     year of such programmes.
Candidates     in the second or higher year of the Four-year Integrated Master's degree     programme (Post-B.Sc.) in Engineering/Technology or in the third or higher     year of Five-year Integrated Master's degree programme and Dual Degree     programme in Engineering/ Technology.
Candidates     with qualifications apply through examination conducted by professional     societies organized by UPSC/AICTE as equivalent to B.E./B.Tech. Those who     have completed Section A or equivalent of such professional courses are     also eligible.
How many times one can attempt GATE Exam and what is the age limit to appear in GATE?
Ans- Number of attempts is not restricted for GATE Exam. The best of the valid GATE score is accepted which we provide in application form. The GATE score is valid for 3 years only and there is no age limit to attempt GATE.
What is the latest GATE question paper pattern?
Ans- Total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10 questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PE, PI, TF and XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 15% of the total marks, the General Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 70% percentage of the total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
What are the types of questions asked in GATE?
Ans- GATE 2016 would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
What is the process of calculation of GATE score?
Ans- GATE scores are totally dependent on highest marks & qualifying marks and may differ from year to year. For similar marks you get different scores during different years.
After the evaluation of the answers, distributed marks based on the above formula will be calculated corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate for CE, CS, EC, EE and ME papers and the GATE 2017 Score will be calculated based on the distributed marks. For all other papers, actual marks obtained will be used for calculating the GATE 2014 Score.
GATE 2017 Score calculate using the formula:
In the GATE 2017 score formula, MCQ is usually 25 marks (out of 100) or μ + σ , whichever is larger. Here μ is the mean and σ is the standard deviation of marks of all the candidates who appeared in the paper.
What is the application fee for GATE?
Ans- Application Fee has been re-considering as shown below:
Women     Candidates- Rs.750
SC/ST/PWD     Category Candidates- Rs.750
All     Other Candidates- Rs.1500
What is the Application/Registration Process for GATE 2017?
Ans- Registration is complete online application can be filled through GOAPS website.
1.        GOAPS has the web address http://appsgate.iitr.ac.in. It can also be obtained from the website of the appropriate Zonal GATE Offices or from the website of the GATE Organizing Institute 2017.
2.        The following screen will show after clicking on the above link.
3.        Click on the SUBMIT button after filling the email ID and password
4.        To accept the declaration you need to click on the edit application form after clicking on the check box.
5.        The online application will appear. Fill the necessary details and upload the scanned photograph, signature and other mandatory details. After this section, you need to clear the payment section which you can do through the net banking, credit/debit card, E-Challan.
6.        Now, check the status of your GATE application. Make sure that you meet the eligibility criteria specified on the GATE website and have compulsory certificates/documents as required.
Documents required for National & International Candidate
Personal     information (name, date of birth, your personal mobile number, parent’s     name, parent’s mobile number, etc.)
Address     for Communication (including PIN code)
Eligibility     degree details
College     address, PIN code of college
GATE     paper, choice of GATE examination cities
For     Indian Candidates- Scanned image of your photograph, signature, thumb     impression. Scanned copy in pdf format of Degree Certificate or mark sheet     of previous semester/year (for final year candidates) / Provisional     certificate (letter) from the Institute for final year students Scanned     copy of Category/PwD Certificate (if relevant) in pdf format ID Proof :     Only Passport/PAN Card/Voter ID/Aadhaar UID/College ID/Employee ID card.
For International Candidate- Scanned image of your photograph, signature, thumb impression. Scanned copy of Degree Certificate or mark sheet of previous semester/year (for final year candidates) in pdf format ID Proof : Only Passport/Government issued ID/College ID/Employee ID card
 What are the supporting documents required to be submitted during Registration/Application process?
Ans- Supporting Documents required at different stages are mentioned below:
Eligibility     Documents
C/ST/PWD Certificate
Candidates     who claim to be in any of the category have to submit valid document     provided by competent authority, to qualify for the reduced fee.
Those     candidates, who require a writer to assist writing the exam, also need to     provide a valid PWD certificate.
Authorities Empowered to Issue Certificates (SC/ST)
District     Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Collector/     Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ 1st Class Stipendiary     Magistrate/ City Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/ Taluk Magistrate/     Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner.
Chief     Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency     Magistrate
Revenue     Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar
Sub-Divisional     Officer of the area where the Candidate and/or her/his family resides
Administrator/     Secretary to Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshadweep Islands)
Certificate issued by any other official will not be accepted.
PWD Category Candidates should attach a recently obtained proper PWD certificate to avail concession under the PWD category, which is to be submitted during the admission process. The responsibility of verifying PWD certificate lies with the admitting institute. The GATE committee will not be responsible for any invalid declaration of the PWD status of applicants.
Certificate from Principal Applicants who mention that they are up to now complete their course, will receive a "Certificate from Principal". Please download the form from http://gate.iitk.ac.in/GATE2015/docs/CertificateFromPrincipal.pdf, get the signature & seal of the Principle/HOD on this and then upload.
What is All India Online Test Series?
Ans- All India Online Test Series is an assessment platform for GATE Examination. It helps student to get comfortable with the real GATE Exam Environment. Developed by the EX IES Officers and IITs Alumni who are having vast experience in the field of GATE. Some faculties consist of GATE toppers who secured AIR 1, 2 etc during their time.  All India Online Test Series consist of tests for various branches like Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering, Electrical, Electronics & Communication Engineering, and Computer Science Engineering.
ALL INDIA ONLINE TEST SERIES will help students to evaluate themselves in national level. All questions are prepared considering previous asked questions.
Tests are prepared according to the various difficulty and easy level as asked in the Exams.
GATE 2017 All India Online Test Series consist of total 67 tests which are divided further in Sectional Test, Subject Wise, Full length and GATE mock test.
How is All India Online Test Series Unique from others?
Ans- All India Online Test Series is an assessment platform to provide the real time exam experience to the students. Part Syllabus and Full Syllabus tests are designed for thorough coverage of the entire syllabus in a systematic way. Most importantly, these tests are designed as per revised syllabus of GATE- 2017. Online Test Series is the best platform to enable concept building and to improve the performance.
Features of Success All India Online Test Series
Practice     as much as you want to. With an unlimited number of practice sessions     available, you will never run out of practice material.
Practice     from 1000+ high quality GATE practice questions that cover every single     concept that the GATE tests you on.
With     solutions and detailed explanations that serve as mini-lessons, learn how     to solve every single GATE question.
Create     your own practice sessions from an unlimited number of options including     lessons, question types, time limit & difficulty levels
Get     question/topic/subject wise in-depth student’s performance reports with an     interactive dashboard along with feedback on areas that require to be     revised and practice
Engineers     Success GATE Online Test Series is a nationally recognized GATE Test Preparation framework     which sets you for the actual GATE exam efficiently
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mcqquestions · 2 years ago
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Electrical Objective Questions
Electrical Objective Questions
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mcqquestions · 2 years ago
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Electrical Engineering MCQs
Electrical Engineering MCQs
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mcqquestions · 2 years ago
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Top Electrical Engineering Technical Questions and Answers Pdf
Electrical engineering is a field that deals with the study and application of electricity, electronics, and electromagnetism. It encompasses a wide range of subfields, including power engineering, control systems engineering, telecommunications, and computer engineering. Electrical engineers play a critical role in designing, developing, and maintaining a wide range of electrical systems and devices, including power generators, motors, control systems, and communication systems.
As the field of electrical engineering is vast, it can be challenging to prepare for competitive exams in this field. However, with the right approach, it is possible to successfully pass these exams and achieve your goals. One of the most effective ways to prepare for electrical engineering competitive exams is to practice with a wide range of questions and answers.
There are many resources available online mcqquestions.net offer practice questions and answers in pdf format. These resources provide a comprehensive overview of the key concepts that are likely to be covered on the exam, along with practice questions and detailed answers. The questions and answers are usually presented in the form of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) which are a common type of question format in most of the competitive exams.
These pdfs are a great way to prepare for the exam as they provide a clear and concise overview of the key concepts, along with practice questions that help to reinforce the concepts. Additionally, the answers provided in the pdfs are detailed and help to explain the reasoning behind the correct answer, which is particularly useful for understanding why a certain answer is correct.
It is important to note that while practice questions and answers in pdf format are a great resource, they should be used in conjunction with other study materials. This includes textbooks, online tutorials, and lectures. It is also important to stay up-to-date with the latest developments in the field of electrical engineering by reading industry journals, attending conferences, and participating in professional development opportunities.
Another important aspect of preparing for electrical engineering competitive exams is understanding the exam format. This includes the types of questions that will be asked, the duration of the exam, and the overall structure of the test. It is also important to develop good time management skills, as this will help you to manage your time effectively during the exam.
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A good understanding of the basic concepts and principles of electrical engineering is also crucial. This includes understanding the fundamental laws of electricity, such as Ohm's law and Kirchhoff's laws, as well as the properties of different types of electrical circuits and components. Additionally, it is important to have a good grasp of mathematical concepts and techniques, such as calculus and differential equations, as they are often used in electrical engineering calculations. Furthermore, it is also important to have a good understanding of the different software and tools used in the field of electrical engineering, such as simulation software, CAD software, and programming languages.
In conclusion, preparing for electrical engineering competitive exams requires a combination of practice, study, and staying current with the latest developments in the field. By utilizing resources such as practice questions and answers in pdf format, along with staying organized and seeking help when needed, you can increase your chances of success on the exam. Additionally, having a good understanding of the basic concepts and principles, mathematical concepts and techniques, and software and tools used in the field of electrical engineering, developing good time management skills and understanding the exam format is crucial.
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mcqquestions · 2 years ago
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Electrical Engineering 1000 Questions Answers Pdf Download
Electrical engineering is a field that deals with the study and application of electricity, electronics, and electromagnetism. It encompasses a wide range of subfields, including power engineering, control systems engineering, telecommunications, and computer engineering. Electrical engineers play a critical role in designing, developing, and maintaining a wide range of electrical systems and devices, including power generators, motors, control systems, and communication systems.
One of the best ways to prepare for electrical engineering competitive exams is to practice with a variety of questions. There are many resources available online, including the website mcqquestions.net, which offers a wide range of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in the field of electrical engineering. These questions cover a wide range of topics, including power systems, control systems, electronics, and telecommunications.
Practicing with these questions can help you to improve your understanding of key concepts and develop your problem-solving skills. Additionally, by taking practice tests, you can familiarize yourself with the exam format and develop your time management skills.
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Another great resource for preparing for electrical engineering competitive exams is the use of study guides and practice test in pdf format. These guides provide a comprehensive overview of the key concepts that are likely to be covered on the exam, along with practice questions and detailed answers.
In addition to practice questions and study guides, it's also important to stay up-to-date with the latest developments in the field of electrical engineering. This could involve reading industry journals, attending conferences, and participating in professional development opportunities.
Overall, preparing for electrical engineering competitive exams requires a combination of practice, study, and staying current with the latest developments in the field. By utilizing resources such as mcqquestions.net and study guides in pdf format, along with staying organized and seeking help when needed, you can increase your chances of success on the exam.
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mcqquestions · 2 years ago
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions for Competitive Exams Pdf
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions MCQ with Answer PDF Download
like GATE, IES, JTO, PSUs, RRB JE/AEN, RRB loco pilot and technicians, SSC JE, DMRC, LMRC, ISRO and other state level engineering exams. GATE Study Material: · GATE Exam Pattern, Syllabus, Best Books, Previous Papers, Notes Download You can also download Electrical Questions and Answers Pdf these all electrical objective question with answer key will be help you for yours electrical exams preparation like GATE, IES, SSC JE and other state and India level JE and AE exams. Below table provides you Electrical Engineering Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Free Download. This post provides estimate 1000++ MCQ Electrical Question which are help all country students. In this article provide you all subjects MCQ or objective question with answer categories wise. Electrical Engineering Objective Questions for Competitive Exams Pdf This article covers these subjects MCQ on Basic Electrical, MCQ on Electrical Circuit Theory, MCQ on Measuring Instruments, MCQ on Power Generation MCQ on Switchgear and Protection, MCQ on Machine, MCQ on Transmission and Distribution
Electrical Machine Objective MCQ PDF Download This category all MCQ or objective question related to Electrical Machine. Below table provide you all latest MCQ Electrical Machine topics D.C. Generators, D.C. Motors, Transformers, Poly Phase Induction Motors, Single Phase Induction Motors, and Synchronous Motors. You can download free pdf all Electrical Machine Objective MCQ PDF Download following download links.
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Your preparation for the exams will be helped by these Electrical Engineering Objective Questions MCQ with Answers. For more Electrical Engineering study material, follow the above links. We hope all the Electrical Questions and Answers Pdf study material here will help you crack your university exams and also help you crack competitive exams like GATE, IES, SSC JE and other exams. These all Electrical Questions and Answers Pdf here provide also useful for studying for other state and national level exams like SSC Jen, BSNL Je and JTO Exams, Railways Jen and Section Engineers, DRDO, DMRC, Metro, and many other state and national level engineering exams. If you like this article, please share it with your friends and classmates, because sharing is caring.
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siva3155 · 6 years ago
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[EEE] ELECTRICAL Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Below are the list of all Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for EEE students. also we can provide Electrical objective questions books & Interview questions. CLICK HERE ----> EEE INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Questions with Answers pdf :-
1. Current Electricity 2. Network Theorems 3. Electrostatics 4. Magnetism and Electromagnetism 5. Magnetic Circuit 6. Electromagnetic Induction 7. Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries 8. A.C. Fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit Theory 9. D.C. Generators 10. D.C. Motors 11. Transformers 12. Polyphase Induction Motors 13. Single Phase Induction Motors 14. Synchronous Motors 15. Rectifiers and Converters 16. Power Plant Engineering (Generation of Electrical Power) 17. Economics of Power Generation 18. Transmission and Distribution 19. Switchgear and Protection 20. Cables 21. Electrical Engineering Materials 22. Electrical Machine Design 23. Measurement and Instrumentation 24. Control Systems 25. Electric Traction 26. Industrial Drives 27. Heating and Welding 28. Series-parallel Circuits 29. Passive Filters 30. Ohm's Law 31. DIGITAL ELECTRONICS 32. Quantities and Units 33. Series Circuits 34. Branch, Loop and Node Analyses 35. Alternating Current and Voltage 36. Inductors 37. RC Circuits 38. RLC Circuits and Resonance 39. Three-Phase Systems in Power Applications 40. Time Response of Reactive Circuits 41. Circuit Theorems and Conversions 42. OP-AMP Circuits 43. ANALOG ELECTRONICS 44. SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY 45. SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE 46. TRANSISTORS 47. TRANSISTOR BIASING 48. SINGLE STAGE TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS 49. Multi-Stage Transistor Amplifiers 50. TRANSISTOR AUDIO POWER AMPLIFIERS 51. Operational Amplifier  52. HYBRID PARAMETERS 53. ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTS 54. INTEGRATED CIRCUITS 55. POWER ELECTRONICS 56. SCR (Silicon Controlled Rectifiers) 57. FET – Field Effect Transistors 58. Solid-State Switching Circuits 59. Regulated D.C. Power Supply 60. Modulation and Demodulation 61. Transistor Tuned Amplifiers 62. Oscillators 63. Amplifiers with Negative Feedback 64. Parallel Circuits 65. EARTHING or GROUNDING CLICK HERE--->BASIC ELECTRONICS Questions and Answers ****** Dear Electrical students, We provide Basic Electrical Engineering multiple choice questions and answers with explanation & EEE objective type questions mcqs books pdf free download here. these are very important & Helpful for campus placement test, semester exams, job interviews and competitive exams like GATE, IES, PSU, NET/SET/Jhttpss://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electrical_engineeringRF, UPSC and diploma.
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ELECTRICAL Engineering Mcqs Especially we are prepare for the Electrical Engineering freshers and professionals, these model questions are asked in the online technical test, Quiz and interview of many companies. These are also very important for your lab viva in university exams like JNTU, Andhra,OU,Anna university,Pune,VTU,UPTU,CUSAT etc. Electrical Engineering objective type Questions pdf free download :- Read the full article
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siva3155 · 6 years ago
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300+ TOP INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions and Answers
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions :-
1. The selection of an electric motor for any application depends on which of the following factors ? (a)    Electrical characteristics (b)    Mechanical characteristics (c)    Size and rating of motors (d)    Cost (e)    All of the above Answer: e 2. For a particular application the type of electric-and control gear are determined by which of the following considerations ? (a)    Starting torque (b)    Conditions of environment (c)    Limitation on starting current (d)    Speed control range and its nature (e)    All of the above Answer: e 3. Which of the following motors is preferred for traction work ? (a)     Universal motor (b)     D.C. series motor (c)    Synchronous motor (d)    Three-phase induction motor Answer: c 4   Which of the following motors always starts on load ? (a)     Conveyor motor (b)     Floor mill motor (c)    Fan motor (d)    All of the above Answer: d 5. is preferred for automatic drives. (a)     Squirrel cage induction motor (b)     Synchronous motors (c)    Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors (d)    Any of the above Answer: c
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INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions 6. When the load is above _____ a synchronous motor is found to be more economical. (a)     2 kW (b)     20 kW (c)     50 kW (d)     100 kW Answer: d 7. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be (a)     variable load (b)     continuous (c)    continuous but periodical (d)    intermittent and variable load Answer: d 8. Light duty cranes are used in which of the following ? (a)     Power houses (b)     Pumping stations (c)    Automobile workshops (d)    All of the above Answer: d 9. While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which electrical characteristics will be of least significance ? (a)    Running characteristics (b)    Starting characteristics (c)    Efficiency (d)    Braking Answer: d 10. Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for overhead travelling cranes ? (a)    Slow speed motors (b)    Continuous duty motors (c)    Short time rated motors (d)    None of the above Answer: c 11. is preferred for synthetic fibre mills. (a)     Synchronous motor (b)     Reluctance motor (c)    Series motor (d)    Shunt motor Answer: b 12. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used for ______ excavators. (a)     Light duty (b)     Medium duty (c)    Heavy duty (d)    All of the above Answer: c 13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ? (a)    Induction motor (b)    Synchronous motor (c)    Capacitor start single phase motor (d)    Any of the above Answer: a 14. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for maintenance ? (a)     Frame (b)     Rearing (c)    Stator winding (d)    Rotor winding Answer: b 15. need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors, (a)     Paper mills (b)     Grinding mills (c)    Air-conditioners (d)    Lifts and hoists Answer: d 16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal pump, will be of least significance ? (a)    Starting characteristics (b)    Operating speed (c)    Horse power (d)    Speed control Answer: d 17. _______ motor is a constant speed motor. (a)    Synchronous motor (b)    Schrage motor (c)    Induction motor (d)    Universal motor Answer: a 18. The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is generally (a)    less than running torque (b)    same as running torque (c)    slightly more than running torque (d)    double the running torque Answer: a 19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills ? (a)     Single phase motors (b)     Squirrel cage induction motors (c)    Slip ring induction motors (d)    D.C. motors Answer: d 20. is not a part of ball bearing ? (a)    Inner race (b)    Outer race (c)    Cage (d)    Bush Answer: d 21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of which of the following? (a)     Flux (b)     Armature current (c)     Flux and armature current (d)    Speed Answer: d 22. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on _______ bearings. (a)     ball or roller (b)     needle (c)     bush (d)     thrust Answer: a 23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are still preferred ? (a)     High efficiency operation (b)     Reversibility (c)    Variable speed drive (d)    High starting torque Answer: c 24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required (a)     synchronous motors are preferred (b)     A.C. motors are preferred (c)    individual drive is preferred (d)    group drive is preferred Answer: c 25. A reluctance motor (a)    is provided with slip rings (b)    requires starting gear (c)    has high cost (d)    is compact Answer: d 26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms of (a)     'crowd' motion (b)     angle of swing (c)    cubic metres (d)    travel in metres Answer: c 27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ? (a)     D.C. series motor (b)     D.C. shunt motor (c)    Squirrel cage induction motor (d)    Wound rotor induction motor Answer: b 28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for (a)   �� water pumps (b)     jaw crushers (c)    centrifugal blowers (d)    none of the above Answer: b 29. Which of the following is essentially needed while selecting a motor ? (a)     Pulley (b)     Starter (c)    Foundation pedal (d)    Bearings Answer: b 30. Reluctance motor is a (a)     variable torque motor (b)     low torque variable speed motor (c)    self starting type synchronous motor (d)    low noise, slow speed motor Answer: c 31. method of starting a three phase induction motor needs six terminals. (a)    Star-delta (b)    Resistance starting (c)    Auto-transformer (d)    None of the above Answer: a 32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction motors the starting voltage is not reduced. (a)    auto-transformer (b)    star-delta (c)    slip ring (d)    any of the above Answer: c 33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against ______ load. (a) heavy (b) medium (c) normal (d) low Answer: a 34. For a motor-generator set which of the following motors will be preferred ? (a)     Synchronous motor (b)     Slip ring induction motor (c)    Pole changing induction motor (d)    Squirrel cage induction motor Answer: a 35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for kiln drives ? (a)     Cascade controlled A.C. motor (b)     Slip ring induction motor (c)    Three  phase  shunt  wound  com-mutator motor (d)    Any of the above Answer: d INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Mcqs Pdf :: 36. Heat control switches are used in (a)    transformers (b)    cooling ranges (c)    three phase induction motors (d)    single phase Answer: b 37. has relatively wider range of speed control. (a)     Synchronous motor (6)     Ship ring induction motor (c)    Squirrel cage induction motor (d)    D.C. shunt motor Answer: d 38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the following methods of starting cannot be used ? (a)     Resistance in rotor circuit (b)     Resistance in stator circuit (c)     Auto-transformer starting (d)     Star-delta starting Answer: a 39. In which of the following applications the load on motor changes in cyclic order ? (a)     Electric shovels (b)     Cranes (c)     Rolling mills (d)     All of the above Answer: d 40. Flame proof motors are used in (a)     paper mills (b)     steel mills (c)    moist atmospheres (d)    explosive atmospheres Answer: d 41. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load ? (a) Printing machine (b) Punching machine (c) Planer (d) Lathe Answer: b 42. For derries and winches which of the following drives can be used ? (a)    Pole changing squirrel cage motors (b)    D.C. motors with Ward-leonard con-trol (c)    A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance (d)    Any of the above Answer: d 43. Battery operated scooter for braking uses (a)     plugging (b)     mechanical braking (c)    regenerative braking (d)    rheostatic braking Answer: b 44. has least range of speed control. (a)    Slip ring induction motor (b)    Synchronous motor (c)    D.C. shunt motor (d)    Schrage motor Answer: b 45. has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio. (a)    D.C. shunt motor (b)    D.C. series motor (c)    Squirrel cage induction motor (d)     Slip ring induction motor Answer: c 46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit is possible, (a)     d.c. shunt motor (b)     schrage motor (c)    synchronous motor (d)    slip ring induction motor Answer: d 47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following motors ? (a)     Squirel cage induction motor (b)     Schrage motor (c)    Synchronous motor (d)    None of the above Answer: c 48. In ________  the  speed can be varied by changing the position of brushes. (a)     slip ring motor (b)     schrage motor (c)    induction motor (d)    repulsion motor Answer: b 49. In which of the following applications variable speed operation is preferred ? (a)     Exhaust fan (b)     Ceiling fan (c)     Refrigerator (d)     Water pump Answer: b 50. Heavy duty cranes are used in (a)    ore handling plants (b)    steel plants (c)    heavy engineering workshops (d)    all of the above Answer: d 51. The travelling speed of cranes varies from (a)     20 to 30 m/s (b)     10 to 15 m/s (c)     5 to 10 m/s (d)     1 to 2.5 m/s Answer: d 52. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses which of the following advantages ? (a)     Lower cost (b)     Better efficiency (c)     High power factor (d)     All of the above Answer: c 53. By the use of which of the following m D.C. can be obtained from AC. ? (a)    Silicon diodes (b)    Mercury arc rectifier (c)    Motor generator set (d)    Any of the above Answer: d 54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main consideration ? (a)     Squirrel cage induction motor (b)     Wound rotor induction motor (e)    Synchronous motor (d)     D.C. motor Answer: d 55. Which of the following motors is preferred when smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired ? (a)     D.C. motor (b)     Squirrel cage induction motor (c)     Wound rotor induction motor (d)     Synchronous motor Answer: a 56. For crane travel which of the following motors is normally used ? (a)     Synchronous motor (b)     D.C. differentially compound motor (c)    Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor (d)    AC. slip ring motor Answer: d 57. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms of (a)     type of drive (b)     span (c)     tonnes (d)     any of the above Answer: c 58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are which of the following ? (a)     Precise control (b)     Smooth movement (c)    Fast speed control (d)    All of the above Answer: d 59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom hoist of a travelling crane ? (a)     Single phase motor (b)     Synchronous motor (c)    A.C. slip ring motor (d)    Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor Answer: c 60. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as compared to squirrel cage induction motor, when major consideration is (a)    slop speed operation (b)    high starting torque (c)    low windage losses (d)    all of the above Answer: b 61. Which of the following motors has series characteristics ? (a)     Shaded pole motor (b)     Repulsion motor (c)    Capacitor start motor (d)    None of the above Answer: b 62. Which of the following happens when star-delta starter is used ? (a)    Starting voltage is reduced (b)    Starting current is reduced (c)    Both (a) and (b) (d)    None of the above Answer: c 63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is incorrect ? (a)     Unsuitable for heavy duty starting (b)     Torque varies as armature current (c)    Torque-armature current is a straight line (d)    Torque is zero for zero armature current Answer: a 64. For which of the following applications motor has to start with high acceleration? (a)    Oil expeller (b)    Floor mill (c)    Lifts and hoists (d)    Centrifugal pump Answer: c 65. Which of the following types of motor enclosure is safest ? (a)    Totally enclosed (b)    Totally enclosed fan cooled (c)    Open type (d)    Semi closed Answer: b 66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of the following characteristics is of great importance ? (a)     Type of bearings (b)     Type of enclosure (c)    Noise (d)    Arrangement for power transmis¬sion (e)    None of the above Answer: c 67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an  electric motor depends on which of the following ? (a)     r.p.m. only (b)     Horse power only (c)    Horse power and r.p.m. (d)    Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor Answer: c 68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ? (a)     A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor (b)     Four motors of 25 H.P. each (c)    Five motors of 20 H.P. each (d)    Ten motors of 10 H.P. each Answer: a 69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as (a)    horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases (b)    horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases (c)    horsepower rating and operating speed increases (d)    horsepower rating and operating speed decreases Answer: a 70. In series motor which of the following methods can be used for changing the flux per pole ? (a)    Tapped field control (b)    Diverter field control (c)    Series-parallel control (d)    Any of the above Answer: d INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Questions with Answers Pdf Download :: Read the full article
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siva3155 · 6 years ago
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300+ TOP Telecom Project Manager Objective Questions and Answers
TELECOM PROJECT MANAGER Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. Which of the following is a function of a workflow engine? a. to provide network repair information for field service technicians b. to prompt customer-care representatives to sell specific service packages c. to facilitate communication and task sequencing among various OSSs d. to draw graphical network maps for capacity planning Ans: c 2. Speech Servers support N+1 Redundancy by networking hosts together. During a failover scenario, which component in the secondary Speech Server takes over and manages Speech Server resources? A. LVR B. RCM C. CCM D. PMGR Ans: D 3. Which of the following is not a protocol used for communicating with network elements? a. CMIP b. SNMP c. TL1 d. TMN Ans: d 4. All network elements are equipped with built-in intelligence that will reroute network traffic around trouble spots. a. true b. false Ans: b 5. Legacy systems are ________. a. systems created from parts of other systems b. any RBOC OSS c. older, stand-alone mainframe systems common to ILECs d. systems used to interconnect LEC OSSs Ans: c 6. OSS interconnection is mandated and a critical factor in determining ILEC entry into long-distance markets. a. true b. false Ans: a 7. Interconnection gateways often perform error-checking functions to help speed the ordering process. a. true b. false Ans: a 8. Which of the following is not an inhibitor to DSL deployment? a. DSLAMs cannot be housed with circuit switches. b. Some lines carry load coils and filters that can negate DSLs. c. LEC line records are often inaccurate. d. Services riding adjacent lines can interfere with DSLs. Ans: a 9. IP guarantees time and delivery sequence for all packets on a network. a. true b. false Ans: b 10. When configuring for N+1 redundancy, where must the Speech Server resources be located? A. the primary vpshosts file B. the secondary vpshosts file C. the existing Speech Server group D. the primary node's Pool Manager (PMGR) Ans: A
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TELECOM PROJECT MANAGER MCQs 11. Which component, common on both the Media Processing Server (MPS)Application and Speech Server, uses and manages call conferencing, phone line application, and Speech Server resources? A. Pool Manager (PMGR) B. Call Control Manager (CCM) C. Resource Control Manager (RCM) D. Vengine Application Management Process (VAMP) Ans: A 12. What is the maximum number of Speech Server nodes that can connect to one DCC 3000? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 32 Ans: D 13. Each of the following is an advantage that wireless local area networks deliver to businesses except a. greater network security b. increased productivity c. time savings d. financial savings Ans: a 14. VoWLAN uses a WLAN for a. enhanced security transmissions b. voice communications c. roaming between wired segments d. segmentation Ans: b 15. The primary advantage of wireless technology is a. low cost b. decreased flexibility c. mobility d. bandwidth Ans: c 16. Each telephone subscriber is connected to several central offices (COs) a. True b. False Ans: b 17. The local loop, or the connections between individual subscribers and central offices, is also known as the last mile. a. True b. False Ans: a 18. The ________________ is a particular set of standards that allows the interworking of products from different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber- optic ring that will permit transmission in both directions. a. local-area network (LAN) b. wide-area network (WAN) c. synchronous optical network (SONET) d. common channel signaling network Ans: c 19. Packet switching is used for which of the following? a. credit-card verification b. automated teller machines c. SS7 d. the Internet and the World Wide Web e. all of the above Ans: e 20. Analog signals can be ________ by combining them with a carrier frequency. a. carried b. transported c. multiplexed d. mixed Ans: c 21. ______________ is a high-performance switching and multiplexing technology that utilizes fixed-length packets to carry different types of traffic. a. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) b. asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL) c. synchronous optical network (SONET) d. none of the above Ans: a TELECOM PROJECT MANAGER Objective type Questions with Answers 22. The types of media that can transmit information in the telecommunications world are the following ______________. a. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and wireless b. hybrid fiber/coax and copper wire c. wireless and copper wire d. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and hybrid fiber/coax Ans: a 23. A(n) ____ is a network that connects computer systems and devices within the same geographic area. a. PAN b. LAN c. MAN d. WAN Ans: b 24. The present state of mobile wireless communications is often called ____. a. 1G b. 2G c. 2.5G d. 3G Ans: c 25. ____ is a specialized subset of telecommunications that refers to the electronic collection, processing, and distribution of data. a. Data communications b. Synchronous communications c. Asynchronous communications d. Electronic communications Ans: a 26. A(n) ____ is a type of topology that has a central hub or computer system, and other computers or computer devices are located at the end of communications lines that originate from the central hub or computer. a. ring network b. hierarchical network c. bus network d. star network Ans: d 27. Which layer of the OSI model enables the user and host nodes to communicate with each other? a. Session b. Network c. Transport d. Application Ans: c 28. Which of the following refers to ALL types of data transmissions from voice to video and receiving of data across a distance via a communication channel? A. Network B. Modem C. Telecommunications D. UPS E. All of the above Ans: c 29. Corporate networks that use the infrastructure standards of the Internet are called a/an A. Extranet B. World Wide Web C. Internet D. Intranet E. All of the above Ans: d 30. What type of signals were you using on the last occasion when you used a hand-held remote control to change the channel on your television? A. Electrical pulses B. Microwaves C. Infrared D. radio waves E. All of the above Ans: c 31. What type of signals is being used between a radio and a radio tower? A. Infrared B. radio waves C. Microwaves D. Electrical pulses E. All of the above Ans: b 32. What type of signals is being used between a cellular telephone and a cellular tower? A. Electrical pulses B. Infrared C. radio waves D. Microwaves E. All of the above Ans: d 33. Why is a digital network preferred over an analogue one? A. It is newer B. It is smaller C. It has lower power consumption D. It has higher capacity for the same bandwidth Ans: d 34. The difference(s) between GSM and PCN is : A. GSM operates in the frequency range of 900MHz while PCN operates in the 1800MHz range B. GSM is the standard used in Europe, while PCN is the one in North America C. GSM uses digital technology while PCN is analogue D. None of the above Ans: a 35. Central coordinating function and administration is carried out by a) Cell site b) BSC c) MTSO d) PSTN and BSC. Ans: c 36. The quality of voice received can be estimated and judged by a) Number of dropped calls b) Subjective tests c) Coverage capacity d) Transmitting power Ans: b 37. Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey? A. implementation suggestions B. access point locations C. security requirements D. access point mounting methods Ans: c 38. What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.) A. identify potential problem areas B. define intended coverage areas C. assess compliance with local building codes D. determine the final location of APs and antennas E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference Ans: a,b 39. To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey? A. transmit only B. diversity C. receive only D. single isolated antenna Ans: b 40. The average splice loss for a multimode fusion splice is: a) 0.05 dB b) 0.10 dB c) 0.30 dB d) 0.75 dB Ans: a 41. For an optical fiber system, the essential determinants of end-to-end bandwidth are: a) The optical fiber and the receiver b) The transmitter and the optical fiber c) The transmitter and the receiver d) None of the above Ans: b TELECOM PROJECT MANAGER Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article
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siva3155 · 6 years ago
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ENGINEERING QUESTIONS and ANSWERS Pdf free Download
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ENGINEERING QUESTIONS with ANSWERS :-
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ENGINEERING :- AGRICULTURE AUTOMOBILE AERONAUTICAL BIOMEDICAL CFO MECHATRONICS NETWORK INDUSTRIAL MARINE PETROLEUM ELECTRONICS FIREFIGHTER NUCLEAR TECHNICAL IQ PRODUCTION LaptopRepairer APPLIED ENERGYOILGAS BUILDINGSERVICES DAE KNITTING RE Desktop MINING INSTRUMENTATION BIO METALLURGY JAVA .NET Read the full article
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