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Forty-five realities about the PBA as association celebrates 45th commemoration
APRIL 9, 1975 was a milestone day for sports in the nation after the Philippine Basketball Association (PBA) was framed, the principal ever proficient b-ball alliance in Asia. From that point forward, the class has become a ball rivalry as well as a wellspring of amusement for Filipinos throughout the years.
As the group praises its 45th year, SPIN.ph concocted things that you could conceivably think about the class that relates with the numbers 1 to 45. Indeed, even with the rich history of the association, trust us when we state it was difficult to think of a rundown.
You should? What’s your critical minute in the PBA.
1
The principal player to score in the PBA was Joy Dionisio. Playing for Concepcion Carrier, Dionisio scored a lay-up in the principal round of the class last April 9, 1975. Notwithstanding, Dionisio’s group bowed to Mariwasa, 101-98, in the initial game. Toyota, in the mean time, likewise came out champs in that playdate with a 105-101 triumph over U-Tex.
2
The MVPs won by Abet Guidaben, the player with the most number of games in the PBA with 1,081 games.
3
The quantity of MVPs won by William ‘Marshes’ Adornado, the principal player to win the individual plum in 1975. He won it again in 1976 and 1981.
4
The quantity of MVPs won each by Ramon Fernandez and Alvin Patrimonio, the past high until June Mar Fajardo broke the record. Fernandez won the honor in 1982, 1984, 1986, and 1988, while Patrimonio copped the plum in 1991, 1993, 1994, and 1997.
Four is additionally the occasions Vergel Meneses won an All-Star MVP, doing the accomplishment in 1995, 1998, 2000, and 2003.
5
Jun Bernardino was the fifth chief of the PBA where he served the group for a long time, the longest ever.
6
The occasions June Mar Fajardo won the PBA MVP in back to back design, the most ever, outperforming Fernandez and Patrimonio. Through the span of his MVP seasons, Fajardo won eight PBA titles, and even got a group record 31 bounce back in Game Seven of the 2019 Philippine Cup finals against Magnolia on May 15.
7
The quantity of Best Import grants Bobby Parks won in his PBA profession. The honor was later named after him.
8
In view of the PBA Annual, the Philippine group filled in as visitor group in eight seasons through the span of the 45 years of the PBA.
9
The quantity of PBA groups in the main year of the PBA. They were Toyota, Crispa, U-Tex, Mariwasa, Concepcion Carrier, Royal Tru Orange, Tanduay, Presto, and 7-Up.
10
Current PBA official Willie Marcial is the tenth individual to hold the position.
Ten is likewise the quantity of takes Ryan Reyes had in a January 29, 2012 game against Powerade, the most ever.
11
Norman Black has brought home 11 PBA titles as a mentor and is the second strategist throughout the entire existence of the class to win a Grand Slam when San Miguel asserted the uncommon accomplishment in 1989.
12
The quantity of titles won by Barangay Ginebra, the most mainstream group in the PBA. The Gin Kings have won three All-Filipino/Philippine Cup crowns and nine titles in meetings with imports.
13
The occasions Crispa won PBA titles, the most among groups that have disbanded from the class. The Redmanizers had a celebrated competition with Toyota in a tussle that made geniuses for the association around then. Crispa disbanded in 1984 per year after Toyota additionally left the class.
14
The quantity of successive misfortunes Shopinas endured in the 2011-2012 Philippine Cup, the longest such streak in PBA history that happened from October 5 to December 8, 2011.
15
Virgilio ‘Child’ Dalupan won 15 PBA titles for the Crispa Redmanizers, turning into the best mentor before Tim Cone outperformed him. Dalupan additionally won two Grand Slams for the group in 1976 and 1983. In winning the 1976 Grand Slam, Dalupan just lost multiple times.
16
The pullover number of Toyota cager Gil Cortez, the main player to win the Rookie of the Year in 1976.
17
Allan Caidic changed over a class record 17 three-pointers when he scored 79 focuses in Tivoli’s 162-149 triumph over Ginebra in November 21, 1991.
18
The quantity of focuses Shell scored at halftime in its match against Mobiline on May 3, 2000. Shell proceeded to score only 47 in its 32-point rout, the least yield ever in a game by a PBA group ever.
19
Crispa dominated 19 straight matches from September 30 to December 9, 1980, considered the longest series of wins ever in PBA history.
20
As indicated by the PBA Annual, there are 20 establishments who have either disbanded or been sold. They are Barako Bull/Air21/Burger King/FedEx, Powerade/Coca-Cola, Sta. Lucia, Air21/Shopinas, Red Bull/Barako Bull, U-Tex, Pilipinas Shell, Sunkist/Sarsi/Pop Cola/Swift, Tanduay, Great Taste/CFC/Presto/Tivoli, Manila Beer/Beer Hausen, Toyota, Mariwasa/Noritake/Honda/Finance/Galerie Dominique, Seven-Up, Filmanbank, Carrier/Quasar/Fiberlite, Manhattan/Sunkist/Winston/Countryfair, Crispa, Tefilin, and Galleon/CDCP.
21
The quantity of misfortunes the San Miguel Beermen and Alaska Milkmen each had in their Grand Slam a long time in 1989 and 1996. With a 51-21 record, the 1996 Alaska group had the most successes among all groups which won the Grand Slam followed by the San Miguel crew in 1989 with a 50-21 imprint.
22
The quantity of titles Tim Cone has won in his training vocation, the most by some other guide throughout the entire existence of the PBA, that saw spells with Alaska, San Mig Coffee, and Barangay Ginebra.
23
Robert Jaworski played for a long time in the PBA, the most throughout the entire existence of the alliance. He played for Toyota before moving for Barangay Ginebra where he fabricated the ‘Never Say Die’ mantra of the group that despite everything exists right up ’til the present time.
24
The quantity of free tosses Nelson Asaytono made in a July 2, 1992 game by Swift against Purefoods, the most ever. The Mighty Meaties lost, 110-106.
25
The principal portion of the PBA’s greatest players were named in 2000 during the association’s 25th commemoration. The 25 were Johnny Abarrientos, Bogs Adornado, Ato Agustin, Francis Arnaiz, Ricardo Brown, Allan Caidic, Hector Calma, Philip Cezar, Atoy Co, Jerry Codinera, Kenneth Duremdes, Bernie Fabiosa, Ramon Fernandez, Danny Florencio, Abet Guidaben, Freddie Hubalde, Robert Jaworski, Jojo Lastimosa, Lim Eng Beng, Samboy Lim, Ronnie Magsanoc, Vergel Meneses, Manny Paner, Alvin Patrimonio, and Benjie Paras.
Danny Ildefonso, Willie Miller, James Yap, Asi Taulava, Eric Menk, Kelly Williams, Jayjay Helterbrand, Jimmy Alapag, Mark Caguioa, Arwind Santos, Jayson Castro, Marc Pingris, Kerby Raymundo, Chito Loyzaga, and Marlou Aquino later joined the 40 greatest in 2015.
26
Establishing magistrate Leo Prieto served the alliance for a long time where 26 meetings were held from 1975 to 1983.
27
The quantity of titles the San Miguel Beermen have in their spell in the PBA that started since the alliance’s initiation in 1975. The establishment has the most number of titles in the alliance with Alaska and Magnolia a far second with 14.
28
Eugene Quilban gathered an association record 28 helps for 7-Up in its 123-100 win over Shell on August 9, 1992.
29
The triumphant edge of Ginebra when it scored the most number of focuses in history with 197 in its game against Great Taste on November 21, 1985.
30
The quantity of games San Mig Coffee lost when it caught the Grand Slam in the 2013-2014 season. The triumphant level of .577 was the most minimal among the Grand Slam groups yet the Mixers despite everything took care of business to make it to the history books. San Mig Coffee beat Rain or Shine twice and Talk ‘N Text during that year, giving lead trainer Tim Cone the subsequent Grand Slam of his instructing vocation.
31
The period of Benjie Paras when he won his second MVP in 1999. In a year that saw a deluge of Fil-outsiders, Paras safeguarded his accomplishment of turning into the main player to win the MVP and Rookie of the Year on that year after he did it in 1989.
32
Ginebra scored 32 back to back focuses in the final quarter on its way to a 116-90 win over Shell on May 14, 1991. That 32-0 shoot was generally number of focuses scored successively and unanswered throughout the entire existence of the class.
33
Michael Hackett had 33 focuses in the second from last quarter of Ginebra’s 197-168 win over Great Taste on November 21, 1985. That was the most number of focuses scored by an import in a quarter, with Hackett in the long run completing with 103, a group record in those days.
34
LA Tenorio of Barangay Ginebra was 34 years of age when he played his 597th back to back game, outperforming Alvin Patrimonio as the group’s Iron Man on March 18, 2019.
35
The quantity of All-Star games the PBA has played. This incorporates the Rookies, Sophomores, Juniors versus Veterans, and North versus South arrangements, and the ongoing three-leg All-Star matches held in 2017 and 2018.
36
It was in the 36th season (2010-2011) of the PBA where the class returned to the old three-meeting position – the Philippine Cup, Commissioner’s Cup, and Governors’ Cup.
37
The joined number of misfortunes Talk ‘N Text and San Miguel had in a three-year stretch in the Philippine Cup after the two groups had the option to catch the Perpetual Trophy in 2013 and 2017 individually. The Tropang Texters had a 60-19 record from 2011 to 2013, while the Beermen gathered a 53-18 imprint from 2015 to 2017.
The trophy later named as the Jun Bernardino Trophy was kept forever by the two groups for winning three successive titles in the most renowned meeting of the association.
38
The quantity of two-point endeavors Paul Alvarez had when he scored a then-record 71 focuses in Alaska’s 169-138 win over Shell. Alvarez changed over 31 two-pointers in that game, an association high.
39
The quantity of minutes Terrence Romeo played when he scored a group record 48 focuses in the All-Star Game Luzon leg in 2018 in the Smart All-Stars 152-149 win over the PBA All-Stars in Batangas City. Romeo won his third All-Star MVP in the challenge.
40
There are just five 4-0 scopes in the historical backdrop of the
1. Which of the following investigation is useful for Myocardial metabolism and blood flow ?
a) CT scan
b) MRI scan
c) Positron Emission Tomography scan
d) Chest X-ray
Ans: c
2.Barr body is seen in
a) Buccal mucosa smear
b) RBC
c)WBC
d) Saliva
Ans: a
3. Which is not a acute phase reactant
a) C-Reactive protein
b) Haptoglobulin
c) Complement
d) alpha feto protein
Ans:d
4.Which of the following disorders have been shown to be genetically transmitted by singleautosomal dominant enes?
a) Catatonic schizophrenia"
b) Phenyl ketonuria
c) Creutzfeldt - Jacob diseased
D) Huntington's disease
Ans:d
5.False statement about fragile - X syndrome is '
a) Breakage in long arm of X chromosome
b) Common genetic disorder
c) Micro - orchidism
d) Long face
Ans:c
6.C3 and C4 levels are raised in
a) Autoimmune disease
b) SLE
c)RA
d) All of the above
Ans:a
7.Which one of the following statements about Natural Killer (NK) cells is not correct?
a)NK cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected cells in vitro, without previous sensitization
b)NK cells are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissue
c)NK cells are CD 3 positive
d)NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody degendent cellular cytotoxicity
Ans:c
8.The chromosomal anomaly in Klinefelter syndrome is
a)47XXY
d)45XO
c)47XXX
d)47XXXX
Ans:a
9.Down syndrome is due to
a) Trisomy 21
b) Translocation 13-15/21
c) Translocation 22/21
d) All of the above
Ans:d
10.Interferons secreted by all except
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblast
d) Lymphocytes
Ans:a
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11.The translocation in Burkitt's lymphoma is between chromosome
a) 8 and 14
b) 9 and 22
c) 11 and 13
d) 8 and 12
Ans:a
12.Non immune hydrops is not a feature of which of the following
a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) Alpha thalassemia
c) Renal malformations in foetus
d) Foetal cardiac abnormalities
Ans:c
13.Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in
a) Colorectal carcinoma
b) alcoholic cirrhosis
c) Emphysema
d) Diabetes mellitus
Ans:a
14.DNA analysis can be done from all except
a) Monocyte
b) Lymphocyte
c) Fibroblast
d) Amnion cell
Ans:c
15.A stable heritable alteration of DNA is known as
a) Translocation
b) Mutation
c) Syngamy
d) Gene fixation
Ans:b
16.Commonest blood group
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d)0
Ans:d
17.One of the following is not a_ chromosomal breakage syndrome?
a) Bloom's syndrome
b) Fredrichs Ataxia
c) Xeroderma pigmentosa
d) Fanconi's Anemia
Ans:b
18.Commonest chromosomal syndrome is: *
a) Trisomy 13
b) Trisomy 17
c) Trisomy 21
d) Fragile X syndrome
Ans:c
19.Which is true of Type II hypersensitivity?
a) Antigen against tissue
b) IgE mediated
c) Antibody directed to tissue antigen
d) Immune complex mediated
Ans:c
20.Analysis of protein antigen is done by
a) PCR
b) Western Blot
c) Southern blot
d) Northern blot
Ans:d
21.Vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linked recessive
d) x-linked dominant
Ans:d
22.In Philadelphia chromosome there is translocation between chromosomes
a) 11 and 22
b) 9 and 22
c) 5 and 13
d) 8 and 14
Ans:b
23.Hintingtons chorea is
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans:a
24.The part of RNA which does not code for protein is
a) Exon
b) Introns
c) Codon
d) Meson
Ans:b
25.All of the following are X-linked recessive disorder except
a) Myotonic Dystrophy "
b) Christmas disease
c) Hemophilia
d) Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Ans:a
26.The passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
Ans:d
27.Which of the following is true concerning Ig M?
a)It is the reaginic antibody
b)It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response
c)It peaks after Ig G has reached its peak
d)It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules
Ans:b
28.Which HLA antigens are recognized by cells
a)T-helper
b)T-effector
c)T-suppressor
d)Bcell
Ans:a
29. Pataus syndrome due to
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) 18 P
d) Trisomy 13
Ans:d
30. Treatment of serum sickness may include all except:
a) Epinephrine
b) Steroids
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Antihistamines
Ans:c
31.Opsonizing toxins are
a)C3a
b)C3b
c)C5a
d)C5-C9
Ans:b
32. HLA-B27 associated with all except
a) Psoriasis
b) Behcets syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans:b
33.Recombinant DNA technique was first done on genome of
a)E.coli
b)Bacteroids
c) Pseudomonas
d) Proteus
Ans:a
34.The following disease are transmitted by autosomal recessive genes
a) Idiopathic hemochromatosis
b)Von Reckling Hausen's disease
c) Von Willebrand disease
d) Cystic fibrosi
Ans:d
35.Otospongiosis is
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
Ans:a
36.Not a X-linked Recessive disease
a) Laurence Moon Beidel syndrome
b) Nephrogenic diabetes
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Colour blindness
Ans:a
38.Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be advisedin all of the following cases which are newly diagnosed except
a) Combined immunodeficiency
b) CML
c) Aplastic anemia
d) All
Ans:d
39.Interferon is not used in which of the following:
a) Hairy cell leukemia
b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
c) Chronic hepatitis B infection
d) Myelomonocytic leukemia
Ans:d
40.Which among the following does not secrete interleukin I alpha
a) Lymphocyte
b) Fibroblast
c) Macrophage
d) Neutrophils
Ans:d
41.Which of the following immunocompetent cells is concerned with cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity
a) Monocytes
b) Neutrophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Lymphocytes
Ans:d
42. Barrbody is seen in
a) turners syndrome
b) Klinefelters syndrome
c) testicular feminization
d) light chain IgG
Ans:b
43. Bence Jones proteins are
a) heavy chain IgG
b) present in bone marrow
c) seen in lymphoma
d) 46 XY
Ans:d
44. DNA analysis is useful for all except
a) Thalassemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Ectodermal dysplasia
d) Duchenne's dystrophy
Ans:c
45. Disease where gene therapy has been attempted or considered include:
a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
b) Hemophilia A
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Hypercholesterolemia
e) All of the above
Ans:e
46.Passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
Ans:d
47. True about transmission of an x-linked recessive disease are
a)All daughters will have disease
b)All sons will be carriers
c)50% of sons & 50% of daughters will have disease
d)50% of sons of an affected mother will contract disease
Ans:b
48. Single gene disorder is
a) glycogen storage disease
b) retinoblastoma
c)DM
d)HT
Ans:b
49.Edwards syndrome is
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d)5P
e) 18Q
Ans:b
50.The commonest cause of primary immuno deficiency is
a) Ig A deficiency
b) Agamma globulinemia
c) Congenital immunodeficiency
d) Acquired immuno deficiency
Ans:a
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51.Cyclosporin mainly affects
a) CD4+cells
b) CD 8 cells
c) B-cells
d) CD 3 +cells
Ans:a
52) AH of the following statements regarding mast cells are true except
a) they contain heparin proteoglycan
b) their number is increased in patients with bronchial asthma
c) disodium cromoglycate brings about their degranulation
d) they have receptors for Fc portion of IE.
Ans:c
53. Wilms tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration
a) lip-
b) llq-^
c) 13p-
d) 13q-
Ans:a
54. Percentage of Rh positivity is
a) 80%
c)92%
d)93%
b) 85%
Ans:d
55. All are X linked diseases except
a) Myotonic dystrophy
b)G6PD
c) Fabrys disease
d) Hemophilia A
Ans: a
56. Father has Autosomal dominant disease. Mother is normal with no family history of the disease. What are the chances of son getting the disease
a) 100%
b)50%
c)25%
d)0%
Ans:b
57. Dominant trait expresses in
a) homozygous state
b) heterozygous state
c) both homo and heterozygous state
d) males
Ans: c
58.Most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing
a) HLA-A
b)HLA-B
c)HLA-C
d)HLA-D
Ans:d
59.All of the following are autosomal dominant disorders except
a) tuberous sclerosis
b) polyposis coli
c) cystic fibrosis
d) myotonic dystonia
Ans:c
60.X linked recessive disease is characterized by
a) Vertical transmission
b) 50% female carriers if male is affected
c) 50% male affected if female is diseased
d) 50% male carriers if female is diseased
Ans:d
61.Achondroplasia is inherited as
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linkeddonlinant
d) x-linked recessive
Ans:a
62.All are Autosomal recessive except
a)-Cystic fibrosis
b) Hypercholesterolemia
c) Wilsons disease
d) Sickle cell anemia
Ans:b
63. Short stature with widely spread nipples and webbing of neck is seen in
a) Down's syndrome
b) Turner's syndrome
c) klinefelter's syndrome
d) Edward's syndrome
Ans:b
64.Pick out product manufactured at present by genetic engineering
a) Interferons
b) Rabies vaccine
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Tuberous sclerosis
Ans:b
65.All of the following are autosomal recessive except
a) Albinism
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Tuberous sclerosis
Ans:d
66.Which one of the following immunoglobulins is^characteristically elevajtedm filariasis?
a)IgA
b)IgE
c)IgG
d)TgSr
Ans:b
67.Which is not X-recessive?
a) beta thalassemia
b) G6PD deficiency
c) hemophilia A
d) colour blindness
Ans:a
68.Commonest chromosomal anomaly
a) fragile
b) trisomy 21
c) trisomy 13
d) trisomy 18
Ans:b
69.Interferon is not used in
a) CML
b) Polymyositis
c) Hairy cell leukaemia
d) Chronic hepatitis C infection
Ans:b
70. Mode of action of actinomycin - D is to prevent:
a) RNA elongation
b) DNA synthesis
c) DNA elongation
d) None of the above
Ans:a
71. A 15-year old girl presents with history of 7 days high fever, toxic appearance, anaemia, petechiae over skin, ulcers in the mouth and mild hepatosplenomegaly with total count of 30,000/cu mm.The most important investigation for diagnosis would be:
a) Blood culture
b) Splenic puncture
c) Liver biopsy
d) Bone marrow aspiration
Ans:a
72. Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Meningococcal meningitis
b) gram negative enterobacteriae
Ans:b
73. Endotoxic shock is due to
a) gram positive bacteria
b) gram negitive entrobacteriae
c) viruses
d) gas gangrene
Ans:b
74. The endotoxin which leads to endotoxic shocks is actually
a) Lipoprotein
b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Polysaccharide
d) Polyamide
Ans:b
75.Probenecid excretion is increased by
a) penicillin
b) cephalosporin
c)NaHC03-
d) tetracycline
Ans:a
77. Immunoglobulin administration is life saving in one of the following conditions:
a) Rabies
b) Clostridium
c) Poliomyelitis
d) Typhoid
Ans:b
78. Pick out the vaccine that gives lifelong protection after the initial course of vaccination
a) TAB vaccine
b)HDCV
c) Measles vaccine
d)BCG vaccine
Ans:c
79. Tetracyclines are useful in infections of
a) Rickettsia
b)Chlamydiae
c)LGV
d)All
Ans:d
80.True statement regarding Ciprofloxacin is
a) Excreted mainly through bile
b) Antacid when given with, facilitates absorption
c) It can be given only orally
d) Belongs to Fluroquinolones group
Ans:d
81.The antibiotic which is acid labile is
a)Ampicillin
b) Cloxacillin
c)Gentamicin
d) Methicillin
Ans:d
82.Cinchonism is due to
a) Quinine
b)Chloramine
c)Digoxin
d)Digitoxin
Ans:a
84. The half life of chloroquine is :
a) 6 hours
b) 7 days
c) 12 hours
d) 24 hours
Ans:b
85.Which of the following combination is not synergistic
a)Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis
b)Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis
c)Penicillin and chlortetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis
d)Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim in UT1
Ans:c
86.Nosocomial pneumonia is caused most commonly by
a) streptococcal
b) mycoplasma
c) gram negative bacteria
d) viruses
Ans:c
87. The persistence of one of the following clinical feature indicates very poor prognosis in a case of endotoxin shock:
a) Generalized weakness
b) Low volume pulse
c) Tachycardia
d) Oliguria
e) Restlessness
Ans:d
88.Treatment of travellers diarrhoea is
a) sulfaguanidine
b) Diphenoxylate and atropine
c) metronidazole
d) Chloromycetin and Streptomycin
Ans:b
89. The following are characteristic of central fever except
a) No diurnal variation
b) No sweating
c) decreased response to External cooling
d) Resistant to antipyretics
Ans:c
90. Ampicillin is used in all except
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Ans:d
91.First generation cephalosporins are not effective in... infection
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Ans:a
92.Which of the following is a useful bedside test in septicemia assessment?
a) Peripheral smear
b) Micro ESR assay
c)CRP levels
d) Urine microscopy
Ans:a
93.PTJO in a farmer dealing with goats milk is usually due to
a) Anthrax
b) Brucella
c) Mycobacterium
d) Histoplasma
Ans:b
95.Prognosis is related to incubation period in
a) Cholera
b) Rabies
c) Tetanus
d) Diphtheria
Ans:c
96.The following statement about arboviruses is FALSE
a)Complications include encephalitis and Hemorrhage
b)Transmission is typically by the ingestion of infected water
c)They occur predominantly in temperate climates
d)Incubation period is usually more than one month
Ans:b
97.The most common cause of seizures in a patient
a) Toxoplasmosis
b)Cryptococcal meningitis
c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyof AIDS is
Ans:a
98. HIV is a
a) Retrovirus
b) Flavivirus
c) Oncovirus
d) Arbovirus
Ans:a
99. Bronchopneumonia due to measles occurs because of
a) Running nose
b) Sinusitis
c) Immuno modulation
d) Bronchial obstruction
Ans:c
100. The most common ophthalmic lesion in AIDS is
a) Hard exudates
b) Cotton wool spots
c) Angioid Streaks
d) Microaneurysms
Ans:b
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