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Success in Practical Vocational Nursing 8th Edition Test Bank
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Sample chapter :
Chapter 04: How Practical/Vocational Nursing Evolved: 1836 to the Present
Knecht: Success in Practical/Vocational Nursing, 8th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The “first real school of nursing” was located in
a.
Israel.
b.
Greece.
c.
Italy.
d.
Germany.
ANS: D
The first real school of nursing was founded by the Lutheran Order of Deaconesses under the supervision of a German pastor, Theodor Fleidner, in Kaiserswerth, Germany. The other options are incorrect.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 50 OBJ: 1
TOP: History KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A
2. The best reason for studying nursing history is
a.
to prepare for the NCLEX-PN examination.
b.
to make nurses more professional.
c.
to help nurses adapt to change.
d.
to learn from nursing’s past mistakes.
ANS: C
Knowledge of the changes that have occurred in nursing prepares one to better understand and adapt to continuing changes. The other options have lesser degrees of validity.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 50 OBJ: N/A
TOP: Change in nursing KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
3. When was the first U.S. school of practical nursing founded?
a.
1830
b.
1853
c.
1892
d.
1902
ANS: C
The first class for formal training of practical nurses was offered in 1892 at the YWCA in Brooklyn, NY.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 50 OBJ: 1
TOP: History—first PN school KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
4. In what year was practical nurse licensure used for the first time?
a.
1903
b.
1914
c.
1938
d.
1941
ANS: B
Mississippi law provided for practical nurse licensure in 1914.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 57 OBJ: 4
TOP: Practical nurse licensure KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
5. The emergence of modern nursing is usually attributed to the influence of
a.
Florence Nightingale.
b.
Clara Barton.
c.
Lillian Wald.
d.
Sairy Gamp.
ANS: A
Miss Nightingale’s insistence that nurses be women of good character helped nursing emerge from its “Dark Ages” and elevated it to a respectable vocation. In addition, she established a school for nurse training and wrote several books on nursing. Although Barton and Wald are positive examples in nursing history, neither influenced nursing to the extent that Nightingale did. Sairy Gamp is a negative character associated with nursing history.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 52-55 OBJ: 2
TOP: Florence Nightingale KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
6. The first formal training for practical nurses focused on
a.
care for victims of war injuries.
b.
home care for children and people with chronic illness.
c.
training visiting nurses and public health nurses.
d.
creating nursing instructors for nursing programs.
ANS: B
The school at the Brooklyn YWCA placed the focus of training for practical nurses on home health care for patients with chronic illness, the aged, and children. The first program, created in 1892, was not affected by war. When visiting nurses and public health nurses went into the community, they were armed with their basic education, as described. Any trained nurse could teach in a practical nurse program at this point in time.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 57 | p. 58 OBJ: 1
TOP: History KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A
7. The event that had the greatest influence on the role of practical nurses in modern hospital nursing was
a.
the Crusades.
b.
the Industrial Revolution.
c.
the U.S. Civil War.
d.
World War II.
ANS: D
World War II and the shortage of nurses it created greatly expanded the practice sites available to practical nurses. In the face of the nursing shortage, hospitals gradually increased the responsibilities designated for the practical nurse. The other options had a lesser impact on modern hospital nursing.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 58 | p. 59 OBJ: 3 | 6
TOP: PN role change KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
8. When in history was it first recommended that tasks of the RN and LPN be differentiated and that practical nurses should function under the supervision of registered nurses?
a.
1750-1760
b.
1826-1850
c.
1949-1950
d.
1965-1980
ANS: C
In 1949, the Joint Committee on Practical Nurses and Auxiliary Workers in Nursing Services recommended the title licensed practical nurse to differentiate between the tasks of PNs and LPNs; the joint committee also recommended that LPNs work under the supervision of RNs.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 59 OBJ: 4
TOP: LPN task differentiation KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
9. The role of self-defined practical nurses throughout history has been to
a.
care for the ill, injured, and dying and birthing mothers.
b.
compete with physicians and surgeons.
c.
perform complex nursing skills independently.
d.
make contact with the gods on behalf of the ill person.
ANS: A
History has seen people called attendants, midwives, and self-proclaimed nurses who had special skills in helping those who were ill. These self-proclaimed nurses were the original home health nurses and visiting nurses, who cared for patients who were ill, injured, or dying and mothers who were giving birth. The other options were never considered roles of the practical nurse.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 56 OBJ: 4
TOP: Role of self-proclaimed nurses KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
10. The event that had the most profound influence in changing practical/vocational nursing was
a.
the depression of the 1930s, when nurses worked for room and board in lieu of salary.
b.
the post-World War II movement of practical/vocational nurses into hospital positions.
c.
the American Medical Association (AMA) proposal to develop registered care technicians as new health care workers.
d.
the first computer-adaptive test for practical/vocational nursing graduates.
ANS: B
The nursing shortage following World War II was responsible for hospitals hiring practical/vocational nurses and for the gradual expansion of the role of the practical/vocational nurse. None of the other options offered had the same degree of influence as World War II and the subsequent nursing shortage.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 58 | p. 59 OBJ: 6
TOP: History KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A
11. When permitted by the state Nurse Practice Act, under what conditions can the LPN/LVN perform complex nursing skills not taught in the basic educational program?
a.
When ordered to do so by the attending physician
b.
When the task is delegated to a competent LPN/LVN by a supervising RN
c.
When the LPN/LVN has graduated from a nursing program accredited by the National League for Nursing
d.
When the state of practice has declared a severe nursing shortage
ANS: B
Delegation, if allowed by the Nurse Practice Act of the state, can take place if the RN teaches the skill, observes a return demonstration, documents the teaching/learning process in the LPN/LVN’s file, and provides ongoing direct supervision. LPN/LVNs are under the direct supervision of professional nurses. Accreditation of the school does not confer the right to accept delegation. Nursing shortages cannot dictate the acceptability of delegation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 50 | p. 64 OBJ: 3
TOP: Delegation KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A
12. A major reason for LPN/LVN graduates to join nursing organizations is that membership
a.
keeps one updated on issues that affect practical nursing.
b.
enhances one’s standing among registered nurses.
c.
provides an opportunity to draft legislation for health care workers.
d.
encourages practical nurses to expand their social horizons.
ANS: A
Membership in a nursing organization provides access to information relevant to the standing, as well as the practice, of nursing. Proposed changes in the Nurse Practice Act can be disseminated and the organization can use its collective power to support or call for defeat of such measures. The greater the membership in an organization, the greater the political power the group has. The other options are not considered major reasons for belonging to a nursing organization.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 63 OBJ: N/A
TOP: Political action KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
13. Which statement best explains the “entry into practice” controversy?
a.
Nursing shortages would be relieved if all nurses entered into practice as LPN/LVNs.
b.
The return to self-proclaimed nurses would save scarce health care dollars.
c.
“Entry into practice” refers to discerning the educational level most appropriate for entry into the practice of nursing: ADN, BSN, MSN.
d.
After graduation, all professional and vocational nurses should enter practice by serving a 1-year internship in a hospital setting.
ANS: C
“Entry into practice,” originally advanced by the ANA, refers to the movement to establish two levels of nursing. More recently it has become a question of determining the most appropriate entry into practice for professional nurses: the ADN, BSN, or master’s level of preparation. The other options are not related to entry into practice.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 62 OBJ: 5
TOP: Entry into practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
14. Which was the first state to pass a law licensing practical nurses?
a.
Alabama
b.
California
c.
New York
d.
Mississippi
ANS: D
Mississippi was the first state to pass a law licensing practical nurses.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 57 OBJ: 4
TOP: Nursing history KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
15. The first chapter of the American Red Cross was established by
a.
Clara Barton.
b.
Sairy Gamp.
c.
Dorothea Lynde Dix.
d.
Florence Nightingale.
ANS: A
Clara Barton established the first chapter of the American Red Cross. Sairy Gamp was a fictional character in Charles Dickens’ novel Martin Chuzzlewit. Dorothea Lynde Dix was appointed superintendent of nurses and organized a corps of female nurses during the Civil War. Florence Nightingale nursed wounded soldiers during the Crimean War.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 56 OBJ: 1
TOP: Nursing history KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which of the following are major concerns associated with the present nursing shortage? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Patient safety
b.
High patient acuity
c.
High nurse-to-patient ratios
d.
High stress among nurses
e.
High recruitment incentives
ANS: A, B, C, D
Patient safety is a concern, because errors are more common when nurse-to-patient ratios are high. Patients in hospitals now are sicker than they were previously. High patient acuity requires increasingly skilled nurses, and the high-acuity patient requires more nursing time; neither may be available during a nursing shortage. Errors increase when one nurse has a patient load that is so large that care is rushed. Nurses leave the workforce as a result of high stress; this worsens the shortage. High recruitment incentives are not considered major concerns associated with the shortage of nurses.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 63 OBJ: 5
TOP: Present nursing shortage KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
2. Practical nurses are referred to as those who, from the beginning of time, chose (or were appointed) to care for individuals who were ill, injured, dying, or having babies. Names used to designate this person have included which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Midwife
b.
Attendant
c.
Trained nurse
d.
Practical nurse
e.
Self-proclaimed nurse
f.
Babysitter
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
Practical nurses have had a varied and colorful evolution. Practical nurses are referred to in a broad sense as those who, from the beginning of time, chose (or were appointed) to care for individuals who were ill, injured, dying, or having babies. Names used to designate this person have included midwife, attendant, trained nurse, practical nurse, and self-proclaimed nurse.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 56 OBJ: N/A
TOP: Nursing history KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
3. Which individuals made significant contributions to nursing? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Lillian Wald
b.
Linda Richards
c.
Sairy Gamp
d.
Betsy Prig
e.
Mary Mahoney
ANS: A, B, E
Wald organized the first visiting nurse service for the poor. Linda Richards was America’s first professionally trained nurse; she organized other training schools. Mary Mahoney was the first African-American graduate nurse. Gamp and Prigg were Dickens characters who portrayed nurses as scoundrels and women of ill repute.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 64 OBJ: N/A
TOP: History KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A
COMPLETION
1. After licensing, the LPN/LVN is permitted to perform complex nursing skills as delegated by the registered nurse (RN) and allowed by the ____________________.
ANS:
Nurse Practice Act
After licensing, the LPN/LVN is permitted to perform complex nursing skills as delegated by the registered nurse (RN) and allowed by the Nurse Practice Act.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 50 OBJ: N/A
TOP: Modern practical nurses KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: N/A
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Staffing Organizations 7th Edition Test Bank
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View Sample Chapter Below:
Chapter 04
Job Analysis and Rewards
True / False Questions
1.
Job analysis is the process of studying jobs in order to gather, analyze, synthesize, and report information about job requirements.
True False
2.
Job requirements job analysis involves collecting information on the activities performed on the job, and uses this information to assess the KSAOs needed for each job.
True False
3.
Competency based job analysis seeks to identify and describe the specific tasks, KSAOs, and job context for a particular job.
True False
4.
The job rewards approaches focuses on identifying a set of characteristics that reflects the rewards the organization realizes by having individuals perform a specific set of tasks.
True False
5.
Traditional job design is marked by formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions and specifications, and well-defined relationships between jobs.
True False
6.
Changes to jobs have become so radical that the concept of “jobs” is no longer a useful concept in most organizations.
True False
7.
Advances in technology are one of the major reasons for changes in jobs.
True False
8.
A job family is a grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions.
True False
9.
The smallest unit into which work can be divided without analyzing separate motions, movements, and mental processes is called an element.
True False
10.
Team-based work has increased the need for flexibility, and requires a different approach to job analysis because team members perform multiple roles and have multiple responsibilities.
True False
11.
Measures of engagement reflect specific skills sets that are readily measured through job analysis.
True False
12.
Competency analysis is one way to incorporate engagement into job analysis.
True False
13.
Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
True False
14.
The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs.
True False
15.
Task statements are written to emphasize the outcomes of a work process, as well as describing how the task is expected to be performed.
True False
16.
Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she does, what is produced, and what is used.
True False
17.
The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description.
True False
18.
Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as “supports,” “assists,” and “handles.”
True False
19.
The term “task dimension” has the same basic meaning as “duties” or “areas of responsibility.”
True False
20.
It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or importance to overall job performance.
True False
21.
Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks.
True False
22.
Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks.
True False
23.
The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job’s “context.”
True False
24.
Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance content validity and assess reliability.
True False
25.
It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts.
True False
26.
Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills.
True False
27.
In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is performed.
True False
28.
Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and relatively short cycle times for job tasks.
True False
29.
Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process.
True False
30.
When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant.
True False
31.
In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external consultants rather than internal staff.
True False
32.
A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements.
True False
33.
Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients.
True False
34.
The O*NET contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job characteristics.
True False
35.
The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires.
True False
36.
The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional opportunities.
True False
37.
Whereas job requirements job analysis starts by analyzing what people already do, competency-based job analysis starts from the organization’s mission and goals and works downward to determine requirements for each job based on these goals.
True False
38.
Competency-based job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
True False
39.
Competencies are more specific than KSAOs.
True False
40.
Competency-based job analysis attempts to identify and describe job requirements in the form of general KSAOs that are required across a range of jobs.
True False
41.
Competencies contribute to job performance, but not to organizational success.
True False
42.
Competency based job analysis is a way to facilitate increased staffing flexibility.
True False
43.
A key strategic HR reason for performing competency modeling is to create awareness and understanding of the need for change in business.
True False
44.
Competency modeling is useful for improving workforce skills, but is generally of little use for replacement or succession planning.
True False
45.
Although competency modeling has its advantages relative to job requirements job analysis, it does require considerable time and effort to establish competency models in an organization.
True False
46.
The “Great Eight” competencies include leading, supporting, presenting, analyzing, creating, organizing, adapting, and performing.
True False
47.
The legal implications of analyzing competencies beyond job specific ones are well-known.
True False
48.
Pay, benefits, and promotions are typical intrinsic job rewards.
True False
49.
Intrinsic rewards are best characterized as “inherent in the nature of the job and experienced by the employee as an outgrowth of actually doing the job.”
True False
50.
The employee value proposition is the bundle or package of KSAOs that the employee provides to the organization.
True False
51.
Surveys and interviews with employees are a key way to gather information on job rewards preferences and the rewards associated with their work.
True False
52.
When it comes to developing the employee value proposition, there are no real disadvantages to creating the largest package of rewards possible.
True False
53.
Interviews and surveys of current employees on job rewards, no matter how comprehensive, miss several relevant groups of individuals.
True False
54.
Surveys of employees clearly suggest that intrinsic rewards are seen as more important for job satisfaction than extrinsic rewards.
True False
55.
Interviews are more personal than surveys, but the summary and analysis of interview data is more time consuming and difficult.
True False
56.
One way to assess the importance of rewards to employees is to examine the rewards that other organizations provide to their employees.
True False
57.
The sample size used in job analysis is not relevant to legal defensibility.
True False
58.
Details regarding knowledge, skills, and abilities in a job description are important components of a legally defensible selection system.
True False
59.
If an employment discrimination case involves an organization’s defense of its selection procedures, the UGESP require the conduct of job analysis.
True False
60.
Although some have advocated for greater use of job analysis in legal cases, the courts currently recognize job titles as sufficiently detailed indicators of required characteristics of applicants.
True False
61.
Employment regulations give several specific techniques for using job analysis to identify essential job functions.
True False
62.
The EEOC has provided assistance to organizations for dealing with the issue of identifying essential job functions for the purpose of ADA compliance.
True False
63.
The ADA requires the performance of a job analysis to identify the essential functions of a job.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
64.
A job description is best defined as ______.
A.
the organization’s framework for AA compliance
B.
the organization’s indicator of tasks, duties, and responsibilities required for each job
C.
the organizations principle job training tool
D.
the organization’s performance appraisal instrument
65.
What is the job-analysis approach that involves collecting information on company strategy, and using this information to determine KSAOs and behavioral capabilities across the organization called?
A.
Competency-based
B.
Job requirements
C.
Job rewards
D.
all of these involve this process
66.
What is the job-analysis approach that involves collecting information on activities performed on the job, and uses this information to assess needed KSAOs for each job called?
A.
Competency-based
B.
Job requirements
C.
Job rewards
D.
all of these involve this process
67.
What is the job-analysis approach that involves collecting information from employees on preferences and outcomes of jobs called?
A.
Competency-based
B.
Job requirements
C.
Job rewards
D.
all of these involve this process
68.
Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
A.
formal organization charts
B.
clear and precise job descriptions
C.
well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
D.
all of these
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Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis 7th Edition Test Bank
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1. When a manager considers the effect of changes in an LP model’s coefficients he/she is performing
1. a random
2. a coefficient
3. a sensitivity
4. a qualitative
ANSWER: c
2. The coefficients in an LP model (cj, aij, bj) represent
1. random
2. numeric
3. random
4. numeric
ANSWER: b
3. A manager should consider how sensitive the model is to changes in all of the following except
1. differential
2. objective function
3. constraint
4. right-hand side values for
ANSWER: a
4. Benefits of sensitivity analysis include all the following except:
1. provides a better picture of how solutions change as model factors
2. fosters managerial acceptance of the optimal
3. overcomes management skepticism of optimal
4. answers potential managerial questions regarding the solution to an LP
ANSWER: b
5. Analytic Solver Platform provides sensitivity analysis information on all of the following except the
1. range of values for objective function coefficients which do not change optimal
2. impact on optimal objective function value of changes in constrained
3. impact on optimal objective function value of changes in value of decision
4. impact on right hand sides of changes in constraint
ANSWER: d
6. The sensitivity analysis provides information about which of the following?
1. the impact of a change to an objective function
2. the impact of a change in a resource
3. the impact of adding simple upper or lower bounds on a decision
4. all of
ANSWER: d
7. Analytic Solver Platform provides all of the following reports except
1. Answer
2. Sensitivity
3. Cost performance
4. Limits
ANSWER: c
8. The Cell Value column in the Solver Answer Report shows
1. which constraints are
2. final (optimal) value assumed by each constraint
3. objective function
4. Right hand sides of
ANSWER: b
9. Meaningful Analytic Solver Platform (ASP) sensitivity report headings can be defined
1. by adding cell notes to spreadsheet
2. by using the Guess button in the Analytic Solver Platform (ASP) dialog
3. by carefully labeling rows and columns in the spreadsheet
4. naming cells in the spreadsheet
ANSWER: c
10. The difference between the right-hand side (RHS) values of the constraints and the final (optimal) value assumed by the left-hand side (LHS) formula for each constraint is called the slack and is found in the
1. Status report
2. Slack report
3. Results report
4. Cell Value report
ANSWER: c
11. A binding greater than or equal to (≥) constraint in a minimization problem means that
1. the variable is up against an upper
2. the minimum requirement for the constraint has just been
3. another constraint is limiting the
4. the shadow price for the constraint will be
ANSWER: b
12. A binding less than or equal to (≤) constraint in a maximization problem means
1. that all of the resource represented by the constraint is consumed in the
2. it is not a constraint that the level curve
3. another constraint is limiting the
4. the requirement for the constraint has been
ANSWER: a
13. Binding constraints have
1. zero
2. negative
3. positive
4. surplus
ANSWER: a
14. The slope of the level curve for the objective function value can be changed by
1. increasing the value of the decision
2. doubling all the coefficients in the objective
3. increasing the right hand sides of
4. changing a coefficient in the objective
ANSWER: d
15. The allowable increase for a changing cell (decision variable) is
1. how many more units to produce to maximize
2. the amount by which the objective function coefficient can increase without changing the optimal
3. how much to charge to get the optimal
4. the amount by which constraint coefficient can increase without changing the optimal
ANSWER: b
16. The allowable decrease for a changing cell (decision variable) is
1. the amount by which the constraint coefficient can decrease without changing final optimal
2. an indication of how many more units to produce to maximize
3. the amount by which objective function coefficient can decrease without changing the final optimal
4. an indication of how much to charge to get the optimal
ANSWER: c
17. Which of the following statements is false concerning either of the Allowable Increase and Allowable Decrease columns in the Sensitivity Report?
1. The values equate the decision variable profit to the cost of resources
2. The values give the range over which a shadow price is
3. The values give the range over which an objective function coefficient can change without changing the optimal
4. The values provide a means to recognize when alternate optimal solution
ANSWER: a
18. The allowable increase for a constraint is
1. how many more units of resource to purchase to maximize
2. the amount by which the resource can increase given shadow
3. how much resource to use to get the optimal
4. the amount by which the constraint coefficient can increase without changing the final optimal
ANSWER: b
19. The allowable decrease for a constraint is
1. how many more units of resource to purchase to maximize
2. the amount by which the resource can decrease given shadow
3. how much resource to use to get the optimal
4. the amount by which constraint coefficient can increase without changing the final optimal
ANSWER: b
20. When performing sensitivity analysis, which of the following assumptions must apply?
1. All other coefficients remain
2. Only right hand side changes really mean
3. The X1 variable change is the most
4. The non-negativity assumption can be relaxed
ANSWER: a
21. Given an objective function value of 150 and a shadow price for resource 1 of 5, if 10 more units of resource 1 are added (assuming the allowable increase is greater than 10), what is the impact on the objective function value?
1. increase of 50
2. increase of unknown amount
3. decrease of 50
4. increase of 10
ANSWER: a
22. If the allowable increase for a constraint is 100 and we add 110 units of the resource what happens to the objective function value?
1. increase of 100
2. increase of 110
3. decrease of 100
4. increases but by unknown amount
ANSWER: d
23. The shadow price of a nonbinding constraint is
1. positive
2. zero
3. negative
4. indeterminate
ANSWER: b
24. If the shadow price for a resource is 0 and 150 units of the resource are added what happens to the objective function value?
1. increase of 150
2. increases more than 0 but less than 150
3. no change
4. increases but by an unknown amount
ANSWER: c
25. If the shadow price for a resource is 0 and 150 units of the resource are added what happens to the optimal solution?
1. increases by an unknown amount
2. increases more than 0 but less than 150
3. no change
4. decreases by an unknown amount
ANSWER: c
26. A change in the right hand side of a binding constraint may change all of the following except
1. optimal value of the decision variables
2. slack values
3. other right hand sides
4. objective function value
ANSWER: c
27. A change in the right hand side of a constraint changes
1. the slope of the objective function
2. objective function coefficients
3. other right hand sides
4. the feasible region
ANSWER: d
28. The absolute value of the shadow price indicates the amount by which the objective function will be
1. improved if the corresponding constraint is
2. improved if the corresponding constraint is
3. made worse if the corresponding constraint is
4. improved if the corresponding constraint is
ANSWER: a
29. The reduced cost for a changing cell (decision variable) is
1. the amount by which the objective function value changes if the variable is increased by one
2. how many more units to product to maximize
3. the per unit profits minus the per unit costs for that
4. equal to zero for variables at their optimal
ANSWER: c
30. All of the following are true about a variable with a negative reduced cost in a maximization problem except
1. its objective function coefficient must increase by that amount in order to enter the
2. it is at its simple lower
3. it has surplus
4. the objective function value will decrease by that value if the variable is increased by one
ANSWER: c
31. A variable with a final value equal to its simple lower or upper bound and a reduced cost of zero indicates that
1. an alternate optimal solution
2. an error in formulation has been
3. the right hand sides should be
4. the objective function needs new
ANSWER: a
32. For a minimization problem, if a decision variable’s final value is 0, and its reduced cost is negative, which of the following is true?
1. Alternate optimal solutions
2. There is evidence of
3. No feasible solution was
4. The variable has a non-negativity
ANSWER: d
33. What is the value of the objective function if X1 is set to 0 in the following Limits Report?
Target
Cell
Name
Value
$E$5
Unit profit: Total Profit:
3200
Adjustable Lower Target Upper Target
Cell Name Value Limit Result Limit Result
$B$4 Number to make: X1 80 0 800 79.99999999 3200
$C$4 Number to make: X2 20 0 2400 20 3200
1. 80 800
2. c. 2400
3. 3200
ANSWER: b
34. When the allowable increase or allowable decrease for the objective function coefficient of one or more variables is zero it indicates (in the absence of degeneracy) that
1. the problem is
2. alternate optimal solutions
3. there is only one optimal
4. no optimal solution can be
ANSWER: b
35. To convert ≤ constraints into = constraints the Simplex method adds what type of variable to the constraint?
1. slack
2. dummy
3. redundant
4. spreading
ANSWER: a
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Social Psychology and Human Nature Comprehensive Edition 3rd Edition Test bank
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CHAPTER 6—Emotion and Affect
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In the opening of this chapter, two men’s reactions to spam e-mail were described. The fact that neither of the men were able to shrug off their annoyance to the spam illustrates the fact that ____.
a.
emotion is largely consciously controlled
b.
emotion is largely outside conscious awareness
c.
emotion is a positive coping skill
d.
emotion is a negative coping skill
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Introduction TYPE: Conceptual
2. Emotions are both positive and negative. Once people experience both types of emotion, they generally try to orchestrate their lives to maximize the experience of positive emotion and minimize the experience of negative emotion. This pattern illustrates that emotions provide ____.
a.
a feedback system
b.
enrichment to life
c.
the intent for criminal behavior
d.
a motive for creative behavior
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Introduction TYPE: Conceptual
3. According to the text, emotions are ____, whereas moods are ____.
a.
linked to particular events; not linked to particular events
b.
not linked to particular events; linked to particular events
c.
automatic responses; conscious evaluations
d.
conscious evaluations; automatic responses
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Conceptual
4. In social psychology, a feeling state that is not linked to any particular event is known as a(n) ____.
a.
mood
b.
emotion
c.
affect
d.
response
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Factual
5. According to the textbook, an affect is ____.
a.
a feeling state that is not linked to a particular event
b.
a largely automatic response that something is good or bad
c.
a conscious evaluative reaction to some event
d.
a judgment containing cognitive, emotional, and behavioral components
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Factual
6. Tammy is very upset because she received a poor grade on a big English assignment. It would be most accurate to say that Tammy is experiencing a(n) ____.
a.
emotion
b.
affect
c.
mood
d.
attitude
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Applied
7. Madge woke up this morning feeling grouchy and annoyed. When asked why she is feeling this way, she can’t seem to come up with any particular reason. It would be most accurate to say that she is experiencing a(n) ____.
a.
affect
b.
emotion
c.
mood
d.
attitude
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Applied
8. Alice was attacked by a pig when she was a child, and developed a strong phobia of pigs. Whenever she sees a pig—whether on a farm, in a zoo, or even in a movie—she has a strong and immediate automatic reaction. This reaction is best classified as a(n) ____.
a.
emotion
b.
affect
c.
mood
d.
attitude
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Applied
9. Most researchers describe affect as ____.
a.
occurring along a single dimension, ranging from negative to positive
b.
occurring along a single dimension, ranging from weak to strong
c.
occurring along two separate dimensions – negative and positive
d.
occurring along two separate dimensions – weak and strong
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Conceptual
10. When social psychologists talk about quick and automatic reactions that are simply positive or negative (as opposed to being full-blown, complex feelings), they are talking about ____.
a.
moods
b.
emotions
c.
affects
d.
drives
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Factual
11. People typically tend to form affects ____.
a.
within a few microseconds
b.
within a few seconds or minutes
c.
after a few days or weeks of being exposed to someone or something
d.
across a span of several years
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Factual
12. According to the text, an affect is different than an emotion in that an affect is ____ while an emotion is ____.
a.
a feeling state that is not linked to a particular event; a conscious evaluative reaction to some event
b.
an automatic response that something is good or bad; a feeling state that is not linked to a particular event
c.
an automatic response that something is good or bad; a conscious evaluative reaction to some event
d.
a conscious evaluative reaction to some event; an automatic response that something is good or bad
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Conceptual
13. Affective reactions differ from emotions in a number of ways. For example, affective reactions tend to ____.
a.
occur more automatically
b.
involve a stronger behavioral component
c.
be more likely to relate to particular events
d.
be more complex
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: What Is Emotion? TYPE: Conceptual
14. Consider the following quote: “… we feel sorry because we cry, angry because we strike, afraid because we tremble…”. With which of the following theories is this MOST consistent?
a.
The Cannon-Bard theory
b.
The James-Lange theory
c.
The Schachter-Singer theory
d.
The excitation transfer theory
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Conceptual
15. A physiological reaction that entails a quickened heartbeat and more labored breathing would most likely be linked to ____.
a.
control
b.
arousal
c.
drive
d.
motivation
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
16. Within social psychological research on emotion, the term “arousal” is used to refer to ____.
a.
the physiological reaction linked to most emotions
b.
any positive emotion
c.
any physiological response that prepares the person for sexual activity
d.
attraction
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
17. The so-called “facial feedback hypothesis” refers to the idea that
a.
facial expressions seem to have evolved in order for humans to better communicate feelings to one another.
b.
we get information about what other people are feeling via their facial expressions.
c.
others’ emotional facial expressions can actually evoke or heighten our own emotional experiences.
d.
feedback from our own facial muscles can actually evoke or heighten our own emotional experiences.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Conceptual
18. Salespeople who force themselves to smile at customers all day may actually end up feeling relatively happy. This effect can be best explained by ____.
a.
the facial feedback hypothesis
b.
excitation transfer theory
c.
the Yerkes-Dodson law
d.
catharsis theory
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Applied
19. Which of the following theories of emotion inspired the facial feedback hypothesis?
a.
The Cannon-Bard theory
b.
The James-Lange theory
c.
The Schachter-Singer theory
d.
The excitation transfer theory
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
20. The James-Lange theory of emotion and the facial feedback hypothesis are similar in that they both suggest that, in emotional situations, ____.
a.
our physiological responses and reactions precede and help drive our conscious emotional experiences
b.
our conscious emotional experiences precede and help drive our physiological responses and reactions
c.
we label our emotions—decide what emotion it is we are feeling—by looking to the outside world
d.
we label our emotions—decide what emotion it is we are feeling—by consciously assessing the situation
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Conceptual
21. Having Botox injections to one’s face will ____ one’s ability to understand other’s emotions.
a.
have no impact on
b.
improve
c.
decrease
d.
initially improve, but later decrease
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
NOTE: New
22. Which of the following areas of the brain is central to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?
a.
The cerebellum
b.
The medulla
c.
The thalamus
d.
The frontal lobes
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
23. According to the ____ theory of emotion, when people are presented with stimuli that trigger emotions, the thalamus in the brain sends two messages at the same time: one message that produces a conscious emotional experience and one message that produces a physiological response.
a.
James-Lange
b.
Cannon-Bard
c.
Schachter and Singer
d.
excitation transfer
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Conceptual
24. The area of the brain known as the thalamus is central to the ____ theory of emotion.
a.
James-Lange
b.
Cannon-Bard
c.
Schachter and Singer
d.
excitation transfer
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
25. Which of the following theories of emotion suggests that people may sometimes mislabel, or relabel, their arousal as one emotion versus another?
a.
The James-Lange theory
b.
The Cannon-Bard theory
c.
The Schachter-Singer theory
d.
The Yerkes-Dodson law
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Factual
26. Which of the following theories of emotion suggests that excitation transfer may sometimes happen?
a.
The James-Lange theory
b.
The Cannon-Bard theory
c.
The Schachter-Singer theory
d.
The Yerkes-Dodson law
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Conceptual
27. Art has just been on a long run at the beach with his dog. When he arrives home he is still breathing hard and his heart is still racing; he is physiologically highly aroused. When a neighbor bumps into him in the hallway, Art completely freaks out and verbally attacks the neighbor. He demands: “Did you just push me? Do you have a problem, man?” It looks like Art may have misattributed his arousal (from his run to his neighbor). That is, Art’s behavior illustrates ____.
a.
the Yerkes-Dodson law
b.
sham
c.
catharsis
d.
excitation transfer
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Emotional Arousal TYPE: Applied
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SOC 300 Assignment 2 Lending Institutions, Health Care, and Human Capital
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Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Use the Internet to research one (1) developing nation of your choice. Your research should include an examination of lending institutions, health care, and human capital, as well as the material covered by the Webtext in Weeks 6 through 9.
Write a three to four (3-4) page research paper in which you:
1.Explore whether or not funding from international lending institutions like the World Bank and the IMF are helping or hindering the social, economic, or political development of the country that you have selected. Support your response with examples. 2.Discuss, with examples, at least four (4) substantive ways in which a healthy population strengthens the economy of the country that you have selected. 3.Ascertain the degree to which the leadership of your chosen country has used foreign aid to improve its health care system. Support your response with concrete examples. 4.Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
•Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. •Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
•Determine how human capital is used and what effect gender disparity has on these decisions. •Determine what role health plays in developing economies. •Examine the role that the International Monetary Fund and World Bank play in transfers and the conditions they set to effect this funding. •Use technology and information resources to research issues in sociology of developing countries. •Write clearly and concisely about sociology of developing countries using proper writing mechanics. Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills. Click here to access the rubric for this assignment.
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SNHU PSY 638 Module Eight Short Paper Guidelines and Rubric
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Prompt: Assess the role of aggression during childhood and evaluate whether a child who displays aggressive tendencies automatically transitions into an aggressive adolescent and adult. Do environmental factors, such as school environment, cause a child to develop into the role of victim or bully? Do children who present as aggressive develop into aggressive adults? Why or why not? Present the differences in child/adolescent aggression and adult aggression and how they are classified differently within the DSM-5 classification. Conclude your paper by considering what factors could influence the level of aggression. Incorporate the Module Eight readings into your argument
Specifically, your paper should address the following:
· An assessment of the role of aggression in childhood development
· An evaluation of environmental factors on aggression within each age range
· A description of child, adolescent, and adult aggression within the DSM-5 classification
· A determination of which factors influence aggression across each age range
Guidelines for Submission: Your paper must be submitted as a 3–5 page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least three sources cited in APA format.
Critical Elements
Exemplary (100%)
Proficient (90%)
Needs Improvement (70%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Assessment of
Meets “Proficient” criteria and
Accurately evaluates the role of
Evaluates the role of aggression
Does not evaluate the role of
22
the Role of
ideas are substantiated with
aggression in childhood
in childhood development
aggression in childhood
Aggression
specific and relevant details
development psychology and its
psychology and its impact on
impact on adolescence and
adolescence and adulthood, but
adulthood
contains inaccuracies
Evaluation of
Meets “Proficient” criteria and
Clearly articulates the
Articulates the environmental
Does not articulate the
22
Environmental
ideas are supported with
environmental influences of
influences of aggression, and
environmental influences of
Factors
examples from real-world cases
aggression, and provides
provides substantial exampling of
aggression
substantial exampling of positive
positive and negative
and negative environmental
environmental influences, but
influences
contains inaccuracies
Description of
Meets “Proficient” criteria and
Clearly distinguishes childhood,
Distinguishes childhood,
Does not distinguish childhood,
22
Child, Adolescent,
ideas are supported with current
adolescence, and adulthood
adolescence, and adulthood
adolescence, or adulthood
and Adult
and relevant scholarly research
aggression and provides relevant
aggression, but contains
aggression
Aggression
examples of how to recognize
inaccuracies and/or lacks clarity
symptoms of aggression within
and/or relevant examples
each age range
Determination:
Meets “Proficient” criteria and
Clearly and accurately describes
Describes the influences of
Does not describe the influences
22
Influence
ideas are supported with
the influences of aggression in
aggression in various age groups
of aggression in various age
Aggression
examples from real-world cases
various age groups and links
and links opinion to valid findings
groups
opinion to valid findings from
from scholarly research, but
scholarly research
contains inaccuracies and
inadequately links to scholarly
research
Articulation of
Submission is free of errors
Submission has no major errors
Submission has major errors
Submission has critical errors
12
Response
related to citations, grammar,
related to citations, grammar,
related to citations, grammar,
related to citations, grammar,
spelling, syntax, and organization
spelling, syntax, or organization
spelling, syntax, or organization
spelling, syntax, or organization
and is presented in a professional
that negatively impact readability
that prevent understanding of
and easy-to-read format
and articulation of main ideas
ideas
Earned Total
100%
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Text
SNHU PSY 638 Final Project Milestone Three Guidelines and Rubric
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Topic :
The topic is hunger and children not having money for school meals. So plan is to provide free lunch to all students
Prompt: Building upon your work for Milestones One and Two, you will submit a draft of the Intervention Strategy and Implementation Plan sections of your grant proposal.
Specifically, the following critical elements must be addressed in your milestone assignment:
· Intervention Strategy: Research and justify the selection of a theoretically supported and effective intervention strategy for addressing the target issue.
1. Efficacy: Analyze and critique at least two established intervention strategies for inconsistencies and effectiveness.
1. Critically examine intervention strategies for consistency with current developmental theories.
1. How effective were these strategies in addressing their respective issues? To what extent would these intervention strategies address the issue identified in your community?
1. Selection: Select an intervention strategy and justify your selection based on its effectiveness and the individual, familial,
environmental, cultural, and political factors. Your strategy should be appropriate for your age-specific population.
1. Ethics: Analyze the selected intervention strategy for possible ethical and legal challenges. Consider provider as well as client concerns.
1. Implementation Plan: Construct a plan for implementation of the selected intervention strategy in your community.
1. Narrative: Compose a narrative to describe the setting, personnel, target population, length of time for service, and capacity of the proposed program.
1. Training: Formulate a strategy for the training of personnel according to the selected intervention strategy.
2. Assessment: Recommend an assessment plan to evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention strategy.
3. Ethics: Assess the ethical and legal implications for implementing the intervention strategy in your community.
Guidelines for Submission: Your paper must be submitted as a 6–8 page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least five sources cited in APA format.
Rubric
Critical Elements
Proficient (100%)
Needs Improvement (75%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Intervention
Submission evidences an extensive
Submission evidences a basic
Submission evidences a selective or
13
Strategy:
review of the current literature to
review of the current literature to
minimal review of the current
Efficacy
demonstrate consideration of
demonstrate consideration of
literature to demonstrate
evidence- based intervention
evidence-based intervention
consideration of evidence-based
strategies for the identified
strategies for the identified
intervention strategies for the
problem/need (considers a
problem/need; submission may
identified problem/need, and the
minimum of two intervention
consider only a single intervention
submission considers only a single
strategies at a highly detailed level)
strategy
intervention strategy
Intervention
Submission evidences a clear
Submission evidences a clear
Submission evidences a selection of
13
Strategy:
selection of an intervention
selection of an intervention
an intervention strategy that lacks a
Selection
strategy based on theoretical and
strategy that may lack a clear basis
clear basis in theoretical and
research support considering the
in theoretical and research support
research support, and it fails to
age-specific population and
or it may not clearly consider the
clearly consider the age-specific
community
age-specific population and
population and community
community
Intervention
Submission provides an extensive
Submission provides a review of
Submission provides a selective or
13
Strategy: Ethics
review of the ethical and legal
the ethical and legal implications
minimal review of the ethical and
implications for using the selected
for using the selected intervention
legal implications for using the
intervention strategy that
strategy that may only consider
selected intervention strategy, and
considers provider as well as client
either provider or client concerns
it only considers either provider or
concerns
client concerns
Implementation
Submission presents a detailed
Submission presents a narrative
Submission presents a narrative
13
Plan: Narrative
narrative to sufficiently describe
that may lack detail to sufficiently
that lacks detail to sufficiently
the setting, personnel, target
describe one or more of the
describe two or more of the
population, length of time for
following key components: the
following key components: the
service, and capacity of the
setting, personnel, target
setting, personnel, target
proposed program
population, length of time for
population, length of time for
service, and capacity of the
service, and capacity of the
proposed program
proposed program
Implementation
Submission presents a detailed
Submission presents a plan that
Submission lacks a plan that
13
Plan: Training
plan that accounts for the training
accounts for key training needs of
accounts for the training needs of
needs of the essential personnel
the essential personnel who will
the essential personnel who will
who will supply the services
supply the services outlined in the
supply the services outlined in the
outlined in the intervention
intervention strategy; this plan
intervention strategy, or the plan as
strategy
may lack the level of detail
presented is minimal for meeting
necessary to demonstrate full
training needs for the selected
consideration of training needs
intervention
Implementation
Submission provides a detailed
Submission provides a general
Submission provides a concept too
13
Plan:
plan for assessing the effectiveness
concept for assessing the
general for assessing the
Assessment
of the program/intervention
effectiveness of the
effectiveness of the
strategy (an essential component
program/intervention strategy, yet
program/intervention strategy
of grant submission that allows for
it may lack clear direction or
programs to be considered
statistical concepts to meet the
“evidence based”)
goal of the data collection
Implementation
Submission evidences a strong
Submission evidences an
Submission provides minimal
13
Plan: Ethics
assessment of the ethical and legal
assessment of the ethical and legal
consideration of the ethical and
considerations for implementing
considerations for implementing
legal implications; this submission
the intervention strategy
the intervention strategy; this may
lacks attention to two or more
lack attention to one or more
essential elements necessary for a
elements necessary for a sound
sound ethical approach
ethical approach
Articulation of
Submission has no major errors
Submission has some errors
Submission has critical errors
9
Response
related to citations, grammar,
related to citations, grammar,
related to citations, grammar,
spelling, syntax, or organization
spelling, syntax, or organization
spelling, syntax, or organization that
that negatively impact readability
prevent understanding of ideas
and articulation of main ideas
Earned Total
100%
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SNHU PSY 638 Final Project Guidelines and Rubric
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Topic :
The topic is hunger and children not having money for school meals. So plan is to provide free lunch to all students
Overview
The final project for this course is the creation of a grant proposal.
The assessment for this course will be the construction of a grant proposal that targets a current area of developmental, behavioral, or diagnostic need for children or adolescents in your community. The final project represents an authentic demonstration of competency, because it requires you to apply concepts from across the child and adolescent curriculum to compose an original grant proposal for a theoretically supported, age-specific, and effective intervention program. Terms commonly used in grant proposals include problem identification, prevalence, assessment of resources, impact of the problem, and implementation plan. The meaning of these grant terms is revealed in the critical elements listed in the prompt, in which you will be asked to devise a grant proposal that one would submit in the field of psychology. Grant proposals could be submitted for funding for research, training, institutional upgrades, nonprofit center grants, funding opportunities, grants for children’s programs, or grants for specific outreach programs such as engaging underrepresented cultures. The purpose of this task is to assess your understanding of concepts from across the child and adolescent curriculum.
Some real-world examples of grant proposal ideas have included:
· School/Educational Setting
Orchard Middle School has over 50 at-risk students with a reading performance that directly affects their overall self-esteem and negative behavior issues. The school submitted a grant proposal to support development of a program to help all students with poor reading skills learn to read at grade level and increase their reading speed, comprehension, and reading attention span and overall sense of worth, esteem, and achievement. Studies have shown those who do better in school, fare better with stable mental health.
· Outpatient Mental Health
The Open Arms Family Center requested a grant in the amount of $250,000 to contribute to the start-up funds for a family homeless shelter and mental health services. As an innovative, all-inclusive shelter program, the center aimed to provide for 10 families with children under the age of five who are experiencing homelessness. The center is committed to its mission of decreasing the overall number of homeless families in the Metro Boston area as well as working to break the cycle of homelessness.
· Community Outreach
The purpose of Healthy Tomorrows is to stimulate innovative community-based programs that employ prevention strategies to promote access to health care for children and their families nationwide. HTPCP funding supports direct-service projects, not research projects. Healthy Tomorrows is designed to support family-centered initiatives that implement innovative approaches for focusing resources to promote community; define preventive child health and developmental objectives for vulnerable children and their families, especially those with limited access to quality health services; foster cooperation among community organizations, agencies, and families; involve pediatricians and other pediatric, child, and adolescent mental health professionals; build community and statewide partnerships among professionals in health, education, social services, government, and business to
achieve self-sustaining programs to ensure healthy children and families. Healthy Tomorrows requested a grant proposal for $10,000 to conduct a needs analysis for a meal delivery program to serve its less mobile community members.
The below resources provide more details and insight into the grant-writing process:
· Successful Grant Writing: Strategies for Health and Human Service Professionals
· Grant Writing 101 (The American Psychological Association’s resource page for grant writing)
The project is divided into three milestones, which will be submitted at various points throughout the course to scaffold learning and ensure quality final submissions. These milestones will be submitted in Modules Three, Five, and Seven. The final submission will occur in Module Nine.
In this assignment, you will demonstrate your mastery of the following course outcomes:
· Assess contemporary theories of development for their strengths and weaknesses in addressing current developmental, behavioral, and diagnostic issues for children and adolescents
· Critique the major criteria used to classify children and adolescents with specific disorders established by the American Psychiatric Association
· Evaluate the influence of individual, familial, environmental, cultural, and political factors for their current impact on the diagnostic process for children and adolescents
· Evaluate child and adolescent development resources and support services in terms of accessibility, organization, funding, and overall effectiveness
· Assess the ethical implications of research and program development in the field of child and adolescent psychology
· Analyze the effectiveness of theoretically-supported intervention strategies to address current developmental, behavioral, and diagnostic needs of children and adolescents
Prompt
The grant proposal will contain the critical elements listed below.
1. Problem Identification: Research and identify resources for a specific developmental, behavioral, or diagnostic need for children or adolescents in your community (3–4 pages):
1. Prevalence: Determine a necessary program or service by examining current needs for children or adolescents in your community, using the standards established by the American Psychiatric Association.
1. What is the issue you have chosen to address? Who is affected? What data do you have that points to the prevalence of this issue?
2. What is the necessary service or program? How will it address the needs you have examined?
2. Assessment of Resources: Evaluate available and needed resources in your community.
1. Evaluate the resources available for providing a program or service such as the one you have identified.
2. Determine necessary resources that are not available and explain their importance in providing the identified program or service.
3. Impact of Problem: Describe the impact of the problem on individuals, families, and the community. Construct an impact statement based on
the prevalence of the identified issue and the lack of community resources.
1. Articulate how the lack of the identified program or service has an impact on the community.
2. How is the lack of available resources exacerbating the issue?
1. Literature Review: Conduct a review of available literature around developmental theory in regard to your identified issue (3–4 pages):
1. Problem/Need: Using American Psychiatric Association criteria and current professional research publications, how is the identified developmental, behavioral, or diagnostic problem identified/diagnosed in children and adolescents?
2. Theory Survey and Comparison: Survey current developmental theories.
1. Identify the factors that contribute to the prevalence of the problem according to these theories.
1. How do these different theories compare? What are their contrasting opinions in regard to prevalence and diagnosis of your identified problem?
· Intervention Strategy: Research and justify the selection of a theoretically supported and effective intervention strategy for addressing the target issue (2–3 pages):
1. Efficacy: Analyze and critique at least two established intervention strategies for inconsistencies and effectiveness.
1. Critically examine intervention strategies for consistency with current developmental theories.
1. How effective were these strategies in addressing their respective issues? To what extent would these intervention strategies address the issue identified in your community?
1. Selection: Select an intervention strategy and justify your selection based on its effectiveness and the individual, familial,
environmental, cultural, and political factors. Your strategy should be appropriate for your age-specific population.
1. Ethics: Analyze the selected intervention strategy for possible ethical and legal challenges. Consider provider as well as client concerns.
1. Implementation Plan: Construct a plan for implementation of the selected intervention strategy in your community (4–5 pages):
1. Narrative: Compose a narrative to describe the setting, personnel, target population, length of time for service, and capacity of the proposed program.
2. Training: Formulate a strategy for the training of personnel according to the selected intervention strategy.
3. Assessment: Recommend an assessment plan to evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention strategy.
4. Ethics: Assess the ethical and legal implications for implementing the intervention strategy in your community.
1. Closing Statement: Summarize your grant proposal/recommendation with careful attention to the audience you must convince.
Milestones
Milestone One: Problem Identification Draft
In Module Three, you will create a draft of the Problem Identification section of your final grant proposal. In this assignment, you will think about the professional environment you will be seeking upon graduation and a potential problem within that professional environment that could be solved through your recommended program, research, or initiative. This milestone is graded with the Milestone One Rubric.
Milestone Two: Literature Review Draft
In Module Five, you will submit a draft of the Literature Review section of your final grant proposal. Your draft will contain a narrative in which you will use professional journals, texts, and resources to provide a comprehensive examination of the identified problem from the perspective of current developmental theories. Providing examples relevant or similar to your organizational environment is imperative for those reviewing the grant to truly gain an experiential perspective of the grant. This milestone is graded with the Milestone Two Rubric.
Milestone Three: Intervention Strategy and Implementation Plan Draft
In Module Seven, you will submit a draft of the Intervention Strategy and Implementation Plan section for your grant proposal. This milestone is graded with the Milestone Three Rubric.
Final Submission: Grant Proposal
In Module Nine, you will submit your final grant proposal. The final submission will include responses to all critical elements listed above. The final submission of the grant proposal should assemble the milestones into a single document. It is expected that each milestone area will be revised in response to the feedback provided during the milestone submissions across the course. Grant agencies will return strong grant applications with suggested or required changes prior to approval, so this practice mimics the actual process. Submit these sections in one complete, polished artifact containing all of the critical elements of the final product. The final submission will be graded using the Final Project Rubric.
Deliverables
Milestone
Deliverable
Module Due
Grading
1
Problem Identification Draft
Three
Graded separately; Milestone One Rubric
2
Literature Review Draft
Five
Graded separately; Milestone Two Rubric
3
Intervention Strategy and Implementation
Seven
Graded separately; Milestone Three Rubric
Plan Draft
Final Submission: Grant Proposal
Nine
Graded separately; Final Project Rubric
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Seeleys Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition VanPutte Test Bank
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Multiple Choice Questions
1. The extracellular material found in tissues is called A.fibroblast. B. cytoplasm. C. plasma. D. lymph. E. matrix.
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.03 Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01A. Describe the general makeup of a tissue. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
2. What is a collection of similar cells and surrounding substances? A.extracellular matrix B. organ C. organ system D. tissue E. intracellular matrix
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.01 Define the term histology. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01A. Describe the general makeup of a tissue. Learning Outcome: 04.06A. Describe the structural and functional roles of neurons and glia in the nervous tissue. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
3. What is the microscopic study of tissues? A.embryology B. anatomy C. histology D. pathology E. physiology
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.01 Define the term histology. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01A. Describe the general makeup of a tissue. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
4. What type of tissue forms linings or coverings? A.connective tissue B. nervous tissue C. muscular tissue D. epithelial tissue
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.03 Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01B. List the four primary tissue types. Learning Outcome: 04.03B. Describe the major functions of epithelial tissue. Section: 04.01 Section: 04.03 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
5. What type of tissue contains cells called neurons? A.epithelial tissue B. connective tissue C. muscular tissue D. nervous tissue
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.03 Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01B. List the four primary tissue types. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
6. What type of tissue is contractile? A.epithelial tissue B. connective tissue C. nervous tissue D. muscular tissue
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.03 Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01B. List the four primary tissue types. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
7. What type of tissue possesses an abundant extracellular matrix? A.epithelial tissue B. nervous tissue C. connective tissue D. muscular tissue
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.03 Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01B. List the four primary tissue types. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
8. The four primary tissue types are A.epithelial, cartilage, muscular, and brain. B. epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. C. glands, bone, lungs, and kidney. D. connective, epithelial, skin, and blood. E. bone, skin, blood, and muscle.
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D01.02 List the four major tissue types. HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01B. List the four primary tissue types. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
9. What is the examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death or to study the changes caused by a disease? A.autopsy B. biopsy C. histology D. embryology E. All of these answers are correct.
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module D Histology Learning Outcome: 04.01C. Explain how histology relates to biopsies and autopsies. Section: 04.01 Topic: Histology Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types Type: Study Guide
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Seeing Sociology An Introduction 3rd Edition Test Bank
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CHAPTER 4
SOCIAL STRUCTURES
Multiple Choice
1. Which one of the following statements is false about social structures?
a.
Social structures are highly visible systems that coordinate human activities.
b.
Sociologists study social structures that involve as few as two people or that are global in scale.
c.
Social structures encompass four components: statuses, roles, groups, and institutions.
d.
Social structures shape relationships with and opportunities to connect to others.
ANS: A REF: 115 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
2. When people enter a doctor’s office, they step into what sociologists call a(n)
a.
primary group.
c.
ideal type.
b.
voluntary organization.
d.
social structure.
ANS: D REF: 116 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1 MSC: SG
3. The status of physician can be a(n) ____________ if everyone, no matter the setting, seeks health-related advice from that person.
a.
ascribed status
c.
master status
b.
achieved status
d.
status set
ANS: C REF: 117 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
4. Sociologists use the word social status to mean a
a.
role.
c.
prestigious position.
b.
rank.
d.
position in a social structure.
ANS: D REF: 117 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
5. __________ is a largely invisible structure that coordinates human activities in broadly predictable ways.
a.
A role set
c.
A social structure
b.
Impression management
d.
Social behavior
ANS: C REF: 17 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
6. Joel Goddard is a laid-off Ford worker, a male, a father, and a husband. This sentence describes Goddard’s
a.
achieved statuses.
c.
status set.
b.
ascribed statuses.
d.
social structure.
ANS: C REF: 117 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
MSC: SG
7. Ascribed statuses result from
a.
chance.
c.
ability.
b.
effort.
d.
choice.
ANS: A REF: 119 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
8. Achieved statuses result from
a.
chance.
c.
fate.
b.
luck.
d.
effort.
ANS: D REF: 117 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1 MSC: SG
9. Doctor-patient, professor-student, a family, and a large corporation are examples of
a.
social status.
c.
organic solidarity.
b.
social structures.
d.
mechanical solidarity.
ANS: B REF: 117 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
10. Sometimes one status in a status set is so important to a person’s social identity, it overshadows all other statuses a person occupies. That “so important” status is known as __________ status.
a.
an achieved
c.
a master
b.
an ascribed
d.
a premier
ANS: C REF: 118 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
11. Registered nurse, nurse aid, and respiratory therapist are
a.
ascribed statuses.
c.
master statuses.
b.
social statuses.
d.
primary groups.
ANS: B REF: 118 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
12. An ascribed status, __________, influences the choice to become a speech-language pathologist.
a.
height
c.
educational level
b.
gender
d.
social class
ANS: B REF: 118 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
13. The distinction between role and status is subtle: people __________ statuses and _____________ roles.
a.
occupy; enact
c.
choose; take on
b.
enact; occupy
d.
take on; choose
ANS: A REF: 119 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1 MSC: SG
14. _________________ is behavior expected of a status in relation to another social status.
a.
An attribution
c.
An obligation
b.
A role
d.
A right
ANS: B REF: 119 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
15. John was born with Down Syndrome, an ascribed status that can be considered
a.
a role performance.
c.
a role expectation.
b.
an ideal type.
d.
a master status.
ANS: D REF: 119 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
16. The social status of school principal is associated with a ____________ that includes relationships with students, parents, teachers, and school staff.
a.
status set
c.
role set
b.
role performance
d.
primary group
ANS: C REF: 119 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
17. The United States, relative to other countries, spends the most on healthcare (as a percentage of GDP). This practice speaks to the _____________ shaping physician-patient relationships.
a.
role conflict
c.
cultural context
b.
division of labor
d.
statuses and roles
ANS: C REF: 120 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
18. Jerome and Rhonda hold the status of military doctors. As physicians, they have an obligation to preserve life. At the same time, they are employed to care for patients who are often deliberately placed in health-threatening situations. The predicament represents an example of role
a.
strain.
c.
obligation.
b.
conflict.
d.
rights.
ANS: A REF: 120 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
MSC: SG
19. Role ______________ is a predicament in which contradictory expectations are associated with a single role.
a.
conflict
c.
enactment
b.
reversal
d.
strain
ANS: D REF: 120 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
20. Role _____________ is a predicament in which expectations associated with two or more roles a person enacts contradict one another.
a.
conflict
c.
enactment
b.
reversal
d.
strain
ANS: A REF: 120 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
21. As a patient, Shelby is expected to follow her doctor’s treatment plan. However, a prescribed drug makes her feel very drowsy, preventing her from carrying out her role as a mother. Shelby feels she is not alert enough to properly care for her daughter. Shelby is experiencing
a.
role strain.
c.
a role set.
b.
status inconsistency.
d.
role conflict.
ANS: D REF: 120 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
22. Doctors in the U.S. order more tests, prescribe more drugs and recommend more surgery than doctors elsewhere. This practice is affected by the fact that the U.S. system rewards doctors monetarily for
a.
time spent with the patient.
c.
health outcomes.
b.
increasing life expectancy.
d.
the number of services provided.
ANS: D REF: 120 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1 MSC: SG
23. Which one of the following countries has the lowest life expectancy?
a.
Japan
c.
France
b.
United States
d.
Norway
ANS: B REF: 121 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
24. Which one of the following countries has the highest infant mortality rate?
a.
Japan
c.
France
b.
United States
d.
Norway
ANS: B REF: 121 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
25. Which one of the following is considered a secondary group?
a.
family
c.
Wal-Mart employees
b.
military unit
d.
friends
ANS: C REF: 121 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.1
26. Secondary groups are distinguished from primary groups by
a.
face-to-face contact.
c.
a specific purpose for forming.
b.
strong emotional ties.
d.
a strong sense of allegiance.
ANS: C REF: 122 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
27. Which one of the following qualities apply to an institution?
a.
unstable
c.
human-created
b.
unpredictable
d.
reflexive
ANS: C REF: 122 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1
28. Which characteristic applies to institutions?
a.
Institutions have a history.
b.
Institutions do not change over time.
c.
Institution seeks to distribute rewards evenly.
d.
Institutions are ideology free.
ANS: A REF: 123 OBJ: comprehension
TOP: Mod 4.1 MSC: SG
29. __________ wrote The Division of Labor in Society.
a.
Karl Marx
c.
Émile Durkheim
b.
Max Weber
d.
C Wright Mills
ANS: C REF: 125 OBJ: knowledge TOP: Mod 4.2
30. The iPod, designed in the United States and produced with the help of programmers in India and laborers in China and in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, was used to represent which of the following sociological concepts?
a.
division of labor
c.
outsourcing
b.
mechanization
d.
weak ties
ANS: A REF: 125 OBJ: application TOP: Mod 4.2
MSC: SG
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Research Methods in Psychology Investigating Human Behavior 2nd Edition Test Bank
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1. A construct is best described as a
1. Directly observable entity
2. Concrete entity
*c. Theoretical entity
1. Hypothesized entity
2. Meredith can measure happiness by counting participants’ smiles, by having peers fill out reports about participants, or by asking participants to complete self-reports. These options are _______ of the _______of happiness.
1. conceptual definitions; construct
*b. operational definitions; construct
1. conceptual definitions; variable
2. operational definitions; variable
3. Kimi operationalizes aggression as participants’ scores on a self-report scale. Candice operationalizes aggression as increases in blood pressure. Candice’s operationalization has
1. Fewer variables
2. More variables
3. Less ecological validity
*d. Greater ecological validity
4. Josh is studying how options affect satisfaction. He presents participants with either ten different cookies or two different cookies. Participants choose a cookie and then rate how satisfied they are with their selection on a scale from one to ten. In this example, the independent variable is
*a. The number of cookies
1. Options
2. Satisfaction scores
3. The taste of the cookie
5. Josh is studying how options affect satisfaction. He presents participants with either ten different cookies or two different cookies. Participants choose a cookie and then rate how satisfied they are with their selection on a scale from one to ten. In this example, the dependent variable is
1. The number of cookies
2. Options
*c. Satisfaction scores
1. The taste of the cookies
6. Ava discovers that the effect of personality type on stress depends on whether individuals meditate. In other words, having a Type A personality predicts high stress for those individuals who do not meditate. At the same time, Type A personality is not related to stress for those individuals who engage in regular meditation. In this example, meditation is
1. An independent variable
2. An dependent variable
*c. An intervening variable
1. A confound
7. When using different measures to measure the same construct, researchers want these different measures to produce
*a. Convergent results
1. Divergent results
2. Inverse results
3. Intervening results
8. This is the quantification of an object or event according to a specific rule.
*a. Measurement
1. Analysis
2. Theory development
3. Objectivity
9. As part of her survey, Lauren asks participants to indicate their gender (male or female). She collects this data on which type of measurement scale?
*a. Nominal
1. Ordinal
2. Interval
3. Ratio
10. Time on a stop watch is an example of which type of measurement scale?
1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
*d. Ratio
11. Jackson has people rate their parents’ physical attractiveness on a scale of 1 to 7. This measurement scale is best described as
1. Nominal
*b. Ordinal
1. Interval
2. Ratio
12. Bethany measures participants’ body temperature (using Fahrenheit) before and after exercise. She is using which scale of measurement?
1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
*c. Interval
1. Ratio
13. The attributes of nominal variables must be
1. Numerical
2. Dichotomous
3. Additive
*d. Exhaustive
14. Age is an example of the ____ level of measurement.
1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
*d. Ratio
15. This is a school of psychology that uses tests as objective measures of the mind and mental processes.
1. Nonparametrics
2. Parametrics
*c. Psychometrics
1. Psychophysics
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RES 850 Module 8 Assignment Original 10 Strategic Points Revision
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In the prospectus, proposal and dissertation there are ten key or strategic points that need to be clear, simple, correct, and aligned to ensure the research is doable, valuable, and credible. These points, which provide a guide or vision for the research. The ten strategic points emerge from researching literature on a topic, which is based on or aligned with, the defined need in the literature as well as the researcher’s personal passion, future career purpose, and degree area. Previously, you drafted the ten strategic points for a potential dissertation research study based on an identified gap in the literature. In this assignment, you will practice the doctoral dispositions of valuing, accepting, and integrating feedback and reflecting on those inputs as you revise your draft of the ten strategic points created in the preceding assignment.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
· Important note: Successful completion of this assignment does not indicate that this topic and the related 10 Strategic Points have been approved for use as your dissertation research study topic.
· Locate the draft of the 10 Strategic Points that you created in the preceding assignment and the feedback from your instructor and use them to complete this assignment.
· This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
· Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
· You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Directions:
Reflect on the feedback provided by your instructor on the draft of the 10 Strategic Points that you previously completed. Integrate that feedback as well as your own new ideas into a revised draft the 10 Strategic Points for the potential dissertation research study.
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RES 850 Module 8 Assignment Literature Review Resources
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Details:
Successful completion of a doctoral dissertation requires significant amounts of independent reading on the research topic. This allows the doctoral learner/researcher to become familiar with the scope of the topic and to identify gaps or tensions within the existing literature on the topic. These gaps and tensions become the source of the dissertation research. In this assignment, you will read and annotate potential sources in your dissertation field of interest. Those demonstrating the most merit to the best of your understanding of the topic at this time should be added to your RefWorks list for potential inclusion in the literature review section of your dissertation.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
1. Locate the assignment submission for “Literature Review Resources” from your previous course. You will be adding to this document to begin building a running literature review.
2. It is recommended that you engage in this activity throughout the duration of this course.
3. Instructors will be scoring your submission based on the number of unique sources identified in the list submitted.
4. Download the resource Literature Review Resources Tool and use it to complete the assignment.
5. Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
6. Refer to the resource, “Preparing Annotated Bibliographies,” located in the Student Success Center, for additional guidance on completing this assignment in the appropriate style.
Directions:
Read at least 10 empirical articles in your general dissertation field that you have not read previously.
In the “Literature Review Resources” document that you submitted in the previous course, provide the following for each source that you are adding to the document:
1. The APA-formatted citation.
2. A brief annotation of the key points of the source.
3. An indication of whether the source has been added to (Y) or excluded from (N) your RefWorks list.
Highlight the additions to the document so your instructor can readily identify them.
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RES 850 Module 6 Assignment Original Research 10 Strategic Points Draft
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Details:
In the prospectus, proposal and dissertation there are ten key or strategic points that need to be clear, simple, correct, and aligned to ensure the research is doable, valuable, and credible. These points, which provide a guide or vision for the research. The ten strategic points emerge from researching literature on a topic, which is based on or aligned with, the defined need in the literature as well as the researcher’s personal passion, future career purpose, and degree area. You have practiced identifying the ten points in published studies, the next required skill is to define the ten points for an original as yet conducted research study. In this assignment, you will consider a potential gap in the literature that is emerging from your ongoing reading in your field of interest including
including no less than five specific research studies, and you will draft the 10 Strategic Points for a potential dissertation research study based on that identified gap.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
· Important note: Successful completion of this assignment does not indicate that this topic and the related 10 Strategic Points have been approved for use as your dissertation research study topic.
· Locate and download “10 Strategic Points Template with Instructions” located in the DC (https://dc.gcu.edu/dissertation/dissertation-templates/10_strategic_points_template/strategicpointstemplatewithinstructions2014docx) and use it to complete this assignment.
· This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
· Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
· You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Directions:
Consider a potential gap in the literature that is emerging from your ongoing reading in your field of interest including no less than five specific research studies. Using the information from those research studies, state the potential gap that you identified and describe how it emerged from the studies you read.
Based on that identified gap, draft the 10 Strategic Points for a potential dissertation research study.
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RES 850 Module 5 Assignment Using MAXQDA
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Details:
For this assignment, assume the role of a researcher in the qualitative analysis phase of the study. The data are gathered imported into MAXQDA for analysis. At this point, there are parent codes and sub-codes. However, the software requires human intervention to move past codes to categories and subsequently themes. Clearly, a category of “interview guide topics” cannot be used in the presentation of research results. In this assignment, you will access MAXQDA and practice creating categories and themes.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
· Refer to the document, “Using MAXQDA Assignment Resource,” located in the Course Materials for this topic.
· This assignment requires the use of MAXQDA software available in the DC. A link to the software is in the Course Materials for this topic.
· Refer to “Getting Started Video Tutorial” found in the Course Materials for this topic.
· Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
· This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
· This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.
· You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Directions:
Complete this assignment according to the directions in the document, “Using MAXQDA Assignment Resource.”
RES-850-RS-UsingMaxQDA.docx
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RES 850 Module 4 Assignment 10 Strategic Points Qualitative Study Extraction
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Details:
In the prospectus, proposal, and dissertation there are 10 strategic points that need to be clear, simple, correct, and aligned to ensure the research is doable, valuable, and credible. These points, which provide a guide or vision for the research, are present in almost any research study. The ability to identify these points is one of the first skills required in the creation of a viable doctoral dissertation. In this assignment, you will identify and evaluate 10 strategic points in a published qualitative research study.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
· EdD learners ONLY: Review the Watkins dissertation.
· DBA Learners ONLY: Revise the Groveunder dissertation.
· Locate and download “Modified 10 Points Template.”
· This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
· APA style is required for this assignment.
· You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Directions:
Using the “Modified 10 Points Template,” identify each of the 10 strategic points in the qualitative dissertation for your discipline (EdD or DBA).
Complete the “Evaluation” section of the template by addressing the following questions (250-500 words) with regard to the 10 strategic points in the study:
1. Discuss the key points in the literature review and how the author used this section to identify the gap or problem addressed in the study.
2. Describe the phenomenon under study and how it is a key component in this qualitative research study.
3. Describe the problem and how it informed the research questions under study.
4. Describe the qualitative design used and why it is appropriate for the identified problem and research questions. Support your response with a peer-reviewed citation from a research source.3
5. Assess the appropriateness of the instruments used to collect data and answer the research questions as well as to address the stated problem.
RES-850-RS-Modified10PointsTemplate.docx RES-850-RS-GroveunderDBAQualDissertation.pdf RES-850-RS-WatkinsQualDissertation.pdf
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RES 850 Module 3 Assignment 10 Strategic Points Quantitative Study Extraction #2
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Details:
In the prospectus, proposal, and dissertation there are 10 strategic points that need to be clear, simple, correct, and aligned to ensure the research is doable, valuable, and credible. These points, which provide a guide or vision for the research, are present in almost any research study. The ability to identify these points is one of the first skills required in the creation of a viable doctoral dissertation. In this assignment, you will identify and evaluate 10 strategic points in a published quantitative research study.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
· Review the Luckett dissertation.
· Locate and download “Modified 10 Points Template.”
· This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
· APA style is required for this assignment.
· You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Directions:
Using the “Modified 10 Points Template,” identify each of the 10 strategic points in this quantitative dissertation.
Complete the “Evaluation” section of the template by addressing the following questions (250-500 words) with regard to the 10 strategic points in the study:
1. Discuss the key points in the literature review and how the author used this section to identify the gap or problem addressed in the study.
2. Describe the variables under study and how they are a key component in this quantitative research study. You are not expected to understand the differences between variables at this point, but should be able to identify how they inform the problem, purpose, research questions and data collection instruments.
3. Describe the problem and how it informed the research questions under study.
4. Describe the quantitative design used and why it is appropriate for the identified problem and research questions. Support your response with a peer-reviewed citation from a research source.
5. Assess the appropriateness of the instruments used to collect data and answer the research questions as well as to address the stated problem.
6. Discuss how the problem statement informed the development of the purpose statement in this study.
RES-850-RS-LuckettQuantDissertation.pdf RES-850-RS-Modified10PointsTemplate.docx
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