#3. How to assign IP in vlan 1 and disable vlan

[stephenlibbyy]

Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus.

As most know, Cumulus Linux was originally intended for data center switching and routing but over the years, our customer base has requested that we expand into the enterprise campus feature set too. Slowly, we’ve done just that.

With this expansion though, there are a few items that IT managers tend to take for granted in an all Cisco environment that may need some extra attention when using Cumulus Linux as a campus switch. This is especially the case when it comes to IEEE 802.1x, desk phones, etc.

Most of the phones we inter-operate with have been of the Cisco variety and quite often, those phones are connected to Cisco switches. There are a few tweaks from the default Cumulus settings that need to be called out in this environment and we’ll now go over what those are and how you can tweak them.

Cisco IP Phones TLV change

Cisco IP phones may revert to a different VLAN after initial negotiation. One of our enterprise customers found that according to a Cisco tech note on LLDP-MED and CDP, CDP should be disabled on non-Cisco switches connecting to Cisco phones.

To eliminate this behavior, make the following adjustment to the lldp daemon:

`sudo vi /etc/default/lldpd`

Change this default:

# Enable CDP by default DAEMON_ARGS=”-c -M 4″

To this setting:

# Enable CDP by default DAEMON_ARGS=”-M 4″

then `systemctl restart lldpd.service`

IP Phones random disconnects / Voice quality issues

The problem is straightforward, IP phones will disconnect and re-authenticate randomly. Another symptom is that voice quality may suffer. The problem doesn’t seem to be phone model specific, more a function of having several phones connected to a switch. Most implementations won’t see this problem as it is related specifically to using IP Phones and the Cumulus Linux Redistribute Neighbor function together.

Redistribute Neighbor is a feature that enables devices to span subnets by taking an ARP entry and advertising it’s /32 IPv4 address upstream. More information about this functionality is available in the Cumulus Linux documentation and this fine blog post written by Doug Youd a couple of years ago.

To eliminate this problem, take the following action:

`vi /etc/rdnbrd.conf`

Change these 2 values:

# TX an ARP request to known hosts every keepalive seconds keepalive = 1

# If a host does not send an ARP reply for holdtime consider the host down holdtime = 3

To something like this:

# TX an ARP request to known hosts every keepalive seconds keepalive = 60

# If a host does not send an ARP reply for holdtime consider the host down holdtime = 240

Then issue `systemctl restart rdnbrd.service`

The theory behind the keepalive and hold time change is that the phone doesn’t have the processing capability to respond to the amount of control traffic that Redistribute Neighbor is sending its way. Redistribute Neighbor sends ARP messages to the device to ensure that it’s still “there”, You don’t want to run into stale entries as you’re advertising that device into the network for reachability.

There is a downside to this timer change which is that you won’t detect devices that “go away” in a timely manner. For instance, if you move that IP phone from one switch to another, you’re /32 route entry won’t flush until the hold time has expired, even if the connecting port goes down.

Configuring Dynamic VLAN with Voice VLAN

By default, the dynamic VLAN feature for dot1x configures ports as an access port when the dynamic VLAN is received in the authorization. In an environment configured with voice VLAN, we need to assign the PVID dynamically, instead of configuring the port as access. Currently, only configuring the host VLAN dynamically is supported so the voice VLAN on the port must still be configured manually.

To change the dynamic VLAN behavior to configure the PVID dynamically, instead of the access VLAN, add the following lines to /etc/hostapd.conf: bridge_pvid_enable=1

After adding the line, the hostapd service must be restarted: sudo systemctl restart hostapd.service

Configuring EAP Requests from the switch

In some cases, an attached device may initiate the EAP process prior to the link or switch being ready. To handle this, it’s possible to configure the switch to send an EAP request to re-initiate the EAPOL process from the attached client.

To configure this option, edit /etc/hostapd.conf and add the following: eap_send_identity=1

After adding the line, the hostapd service must be restarted: sudo systemctl restart hostapd.service

In other news

At this time, the solutions outlined above are only tested and supported with VLAN aware bridge implementations. The “voice-VLAN” command documented in Cumulus Linux documentation isn’t needed for the functionality specified above.

I’m sure as we continue to deploy in various campus environments we’ll run across other tidbits to share. Until then, hopefully, this post helps save someone some troubleshooting time.

The post Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus. appeared first on Cumulus Networks engineering blog.

Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus. published first on https://wdmsh.tumblr.com/

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E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes. Answer: A While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol? A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager C. logging buffered D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options Answer: A Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch? A. VLANs 1-1001 B. VLANs 1-4094 C. VLANs 2-1001 D. VLANs 2-4094 Answer: C Which option is?valid for EtherChannel load balancing? A: source MAC address and source IP address B: destination MAC address and destination IP address C: source MAC address and destination IP address D: source MAC address and destination MAC address Answer: D While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue? A. macros B. errdisable autorecovery C. IP Event Dampening D. command aliases E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection Answer: B When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true? A: The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port. B: The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface. C: The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port. D: The IP address is assigned via DHCP only. Answer: B A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment? A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow. B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites. C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces. D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations. Answer: C Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted? A: They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN. B: They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN. C: They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN. D: They remain up, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN. Answer: B Which statement describes?one major issue that VTP can cause in an enterprise network when a new switch is introduced in the network in VTP mode server? A: It can cause network access ports to go into err-disabled state. B: It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is higher. C: It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is lower. D: It can cause routing loops. Answer: B An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using LACP. If the EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to active, which two modes on switch 2?establish an operational EtherChannel? (Choose two.) A: active B: auto C: desirable D: on E: passive Answer: A, E What is the function of NSF? A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors Answer: D After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change? A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP. B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches. C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain. D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches. 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All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this? A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with "null" and then replace it with the new domain name. B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients. C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network. D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred. Answer: D In order to prevent your life from regret and remorse, you should seize every opportunity which can change lives passibly. Did you do it? CertTree CCNP SWITCH 300-115 dumps-CertTree.com can help you to achieve your success. We can help you pass the Cisco 300-115 exam smoothly. In order not to let success pass you by, do it quickly. 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QUESTION NO:12

Which two options are contained in a VTP subset advertisement? (Choose two.)

A. followers field

B. MD5 digest

C. VLAN information

D. sequence number

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Subset Advertisements

When you add, delete, or change a VLAN in a Catalyst, the server Catalyst where the changes are

made increments the configuration revision and issues a summary advertisement. One or several

subset advertisements follow the summary advertisement. A subset advertisement contains a list

of VLAN information.

If there are several VLANs, more than one subset advertisement can be required in order to

advertise all the VLANs.

Subset Advertisement Packet Format

This formatted example shows that each VLAN information field contains information for a different

VLAN. It is ordered so that lowered-valued ISL VLAN IDs occur first:

Most of the fields in this packet are easy to understand. These are two clarifications:

Code

QUESTION NO:32

Which two tunneling techniques support IPv6 multicasting? (Choose two.)

A. 6to4

B. 6over4

C. ISATAP

D. 6PE

E. GRE

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

When IPv6 multicast is supported (over a 6to4 tunnel), an IPv6 multicast routing protocol must be

used

Restrictions for Implementing IPv6 Multicast

IPv6 multicast for Cisco IOS software uses MLD version 2. This version of MLD is fully backward-

compatible with MLD version 1 (described in RFC 2710). Hosts that support only MLD version 1

will interoperate with a router running MLD version 2. Mixed LANs with both MLD version 1 and

MLD version 2 hosts are likewise supported.

IPv6 multicast is supported only over IPv4 tunnels in Cisco IOS Release 12.3(2)T, Cisco IOS

Release 12.2

(18)S, and Cisco IOS Release 12.0(26)S.

When the bidirectional (bidir) range is used in a network, all routers in that network must be able to

understand the bidirectional range in the bootstrap message (BSM).

IPv6 multicast routing is disabled by default when the ipv6 unicast-routing command is configured.

On Cisco Catalyst 6500 and Cisco 7600 series routers, the ipv6 multicast-routing also must be

enabled in order to use IPv6 unicast routing

Reference http://ift.tt/2px9hjP

about_cisco_ipj_archive_article09186a00800c830a.html

http://ift.tt/2qTx6a8

http://ift.tt/2pxcL5L

QUESTION NO:31

How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast

addresses on a point-to-point link?

A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship.

B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship.

C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: “EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a

common subnet.”

D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be

installed in the routing table.

Answer: A Explanation:

http://ift.tt/2pwWcae

QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:21

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet from RTD with destination RTG, is reaching RTB. What is the path this packet will take

from RTB to reach RTG?

A. RTB – RTA – RTG

B. RTB – RTD – RTC – RTA – RTG

C. RTB – RTF – RTE – RTA – RTG

D. RTB will not be able to reach RTG since the OSPF configuration is wrong.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:26

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is AS 65333 in parentheses?

A. It is an external AS.

B. It is a confederation AS.

C. It is the AS of a route reflector.

D. It is our own AS.

E. A route map has been applied to this route.

F. The BGP next hop is unreachable.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:10

Which command is used to enable EtherChannel hashing for Layer 3 IP and Layer 4 port-based

CEF?

A. mpls ip cef

B. port-channel ip cef

C. mpls ip port-channel cef

D. port-channel load balance

E. mpls ip load-balance

F. ip cef EtherChannel channel-id XOR L4

G. ip cef connection exchange

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:24

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (209.165.202.130).

What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?

A. Disable auto-summary on R2.

B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2.

C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers.

D. Disable auto-summary on R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:

By default, BGP does not accept subnets redistributed from IGP. To advertise and carry subnet

routes in BGP, use an explicit network command or the no auto-summary command. If you disable

auto-summarization and have not entered a network command, you will not advertise network

routes for networks with subnet routes unless they contain a summary route.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2r3HM3d

QUESTION NO:2

A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of

10 concurrent VOIP calls.

Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was

established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded.

Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS

configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?

A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue. B.

Remove the policer applied on the priority queue. C.

Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue. D.

Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:29

What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?

A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface.

B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface.

C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface.

D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Duplicate address detection (DAD) is used to verify that an IPv6 home address is unique on the

LAN before assigning the address to a physical interface (for example, QDIO). z/OS

Communications Server responds to other nodes doing DAD for IP addresses assigned to the

interface.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2pJKw4Y

/ipv6d0021002145.htm

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[stephenlibbyy]

Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus.

As most know, Cumulus Linux was originally intended for data center switching and routing but over the years, our customer base has requested that we expand into the enterprise campus feature set too. Slowly, we’ve done just that.

With this expansion though, there are a few items that IT managers tend to take for granted in an all Cisco environment that may need some extra attention when using Cumulus Linux as a campus switch. This is especially the case when it comes to IEEE 802.1x, desk phones, etc.

Most of the phones we inter-operate with have been of the Cisco variety and quite often, those phones are connected to Cisco switches. There are a few tweaks from the default Cumulus settings that need to be called out in this environment and we’ll now go over what those are and how you can tweek them.

Cisco IP Phones TLV change

Cisco IP phones may revert to a different VLAN after initial negotiation. One of our enterprise customers found that according to a Cisco tech note on LLDP-MED and CDP, CDP should be disabled on non-Cisco switches connecting to Cisco phones.

To eliminate this behavior, make the following adjustment to the lldp daemon:

`sudo vi /etc/default/lldpd`

Change this default:

# Enable CDP by default DAEMON_ARGS=”-c -M 4″

To this setting:

# Enable CDP by default DAEMON_ARGS=”-M 4″

then `systemctl restart lldpd.service`

IP Phones random disconnects / Voice quality issues

The problem is straightforward, IP phones will disconnect and re-authenticate randomly. Another symptom is that voice quality may suffer. The problem doesn’t seem to be phone model specific, more a function of having several phones connected to a switch. Most implementations won’t see this problem as it is related specifically to using IP Phones and the Cumulus Linux Redistribute Neighbor function together.

Redistribute Neighbor is a feature that enables devices to span subnets by taking an ARP entry and advertising it’s /32 IPv4 address upstream. More information about this functionality is available in the Cumulus Linux documentation and this fine blog post written by Doug Youd a couple of years ago.

To eliminate this problem, take the following action:

`vi /etc/rdnbrd.conf`

Change these 2 values:

# TX an ARP request to known hosts every keepalive seconds keepalive = 1

# If a host does not send an ARP reply for holdtime consider the host down holdtime = 3

To something like this:

# TX an ARP request to known hosts every keepalive seconds keepalive = 60

# If a host does not send an ARP reply for holdtime consider the host down holdtime = 240

Then issue `systemctl restart rdnbrd.service`

The theory behind the keepalive and hold time change is that the phone doesn’t have the processing capability to respond to the amount of control traffic that Redistribute Neighbor is sending its way. Redistribute Neighbor sends ARP messages to the device to ensure that it’s still “there”, You don’t want to run into stale entries as you’re advertising that device into the network for reachability.

There is a downside to this timer change which is that you won’t detect devices that “go away” in a timely manner. For instance, if you move that IP phone from one switch to another, you’re /32 route entry won’t flush until the hold time has expired, even if the connecting port goes down.

Configuring Dynamic VLAN with Voice VLAN

By default, the dynamic VLAN feature for dot1x configures ports as an access port when the dynamic VLAN is received in the authorization. In an environment configured with voice VLAN, we need to assign the PVID dynamically, instead of configuring the port as access. Currently, only configuring the host VLAN dynamically is supported so the voice VLAN on the port must still be configured manually.

To change the dynamic VLAN behavior to configure the PVID dynamically, instead of the access VLAN, add the following lines to /etc/hostapd.conf: bridge_pvid_enable=1

After adding the line, the hostapd service must be restarted: sudo systemctl restart hostapd.service

Configuring EAP Requests from the switch

In some cases, an attached device may initiate the EAP process prior to the link or switch being ready. To handle this, it’s possible to configure the switch to send an EAP request to re-initiate the EAPOL process from the attached client.

To configure this option, edit /etc/hostapd.conf and add the following: eap_send_identity=1

After adding the line, the hostapd service must be restarted: sudo systemctl restart hostapd.service

In other news

At this time, the solutions outlined above are only tested and supported with VLAN aware bridge implementations. The “voice-VLAN” command documented in Cumulus Linux documentation isn’t needed for the functionality specified above.

I’m sure as we continue to deploy in various campus environments we’ll run across other tidbits to share. Until then, hopefully, this post helps save someone some troubleshooting time.

The post Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus. appeared first on Cumulus Networks engineering blog.

Cumulus Linux in the enterprise campus. published first on https://wdmsh.tumblr.com/

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QUESTION NO:2

A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of

10 concurrent VOIP calls.

Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was

established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded.

Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS

configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?

A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue. B.

Remove the policer applied on the priority queue. C.

Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue. D.

Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:6

Why would a rogue host that is running a DHCP server on a campus LAN network present a

security risk?

A. It may allocate IP addresses from an unknown subnet to the users.

B. All multicast traffic can be sniffed by using the DHCP multicast capabilities.

C. The CPU utilization of the first hop router can be overloaded by exploiting DHCP relay open

ports.

D. A potential man-in-the-middle attack can be used against the clients.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:16

In 802.1s, how is the VLAN to instance mapping represented in the BPDU?

A. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 16-byte field in the MST BPDU.

B. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 12-byte field in the MST BPDU.

C. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 16-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.

D. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 12-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.

Answer: C

Explanation:

MST Configuration and MST Region

Each switch running MST in the network has a single MST configuration that consists of these

three attributes:

1. An alphanumeric configuration name (32 bytes)

2. A configuration revision number (two bytes)

3. A 4096-element table that associates each of the potential 4096 VLANs supported on the

chassis to a given instance.

In order to be part of a common MST region, a group of switches must share the same

configuration attributes.

It is up to the network administrator to properly propagate the configuration throughout the region.

Currently, this step is only possible by the means of the command line interface (CLI) or through

Simple Network

Management Protocol (SNMP). Other methods can be envisioned, as the IEEE specification does

not explicitly mention how to accomplish that step.

Note: If for any reason two switches differ on one or more configuration attribute, the switches are

part of different regions. For more information refer to the Region Boundary section of this

document.

Region Boundary

In order to ensure consistent VLAN-to-instance mapping, it is necessary for the protocol to be able

to exactly identify the boundaries of the regions. For that purpose, the characteristics of the region

are included in the BPDUs. The exact VLANs-to-instance mapping is not propagated in the BPDU,

because the switches only need to know whether they are in the same region as a neighbor.

Therefore, only a digest of the VLANs-toinstance mapping table is sent, along with the revision

number and the name. Once a switch receives a BPDU, the switch extracts the digest (a

numerical value derived from the VLAN-to-instance mapping table through a mathematical

function) and compares this digest with its own computed digest. If the digests differ, the port on

which the BPDU was received is at the boundary of a region.

In generic terms, a port is at the boundary of a region if the designated bridge on its segment is in

a different region or if it receives legacy 802.1d BPDUs. In this diagram, the port on B1 is at the

boundary of region A, whereas the ports on B2 and B3 are internal to region B:

MST Instances

According to the IEEE 802.1s specification, an MST bridge must be able to handle at least these

two instances:

One Internal Spanning Tree (IST)

One or more Multiple Spanning Tree Instance(s) (MSTIs)

The terminology continues to evolve, as 802.1s is actually in a pre-standard phase. It is likely

these names will change in the final release of 802.1s. The Cisco implementation supports 16

instances: one IST (instance 0) and 15 MSTIs.

show vtp status

Cisco switches “show vtp status” Field Descriptions has a MD5 digest field that is a 16-byte

checksum of the

VTP configuration as shown below

Router# show vtp status

VTP Version: 3 (capable)

Configuration Revision: 1

Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005

Number of existing VLANs: 37

VTP Operating Mode: Server

VTP Domain Name: [smartports]

VTP Pruning Mode: Disabled

VTP V2 Mode: Enabled

VTP Traps Generation: Disabled

MD5 digest : 0x26 0xEE 0x0D 0x84 0x73 0x0E 0x1B 0x69

Configuration last modified by 172.20.52.19 at 7-25-08 14:33:43

Local updater ID is 172.20.52.19 on interface Gi5/2 (first layer3 interface fou)

VTP version running: 2

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qcKaXu

http://ift.tt/2rbjgN5

QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:7

Which statement is true about TCN propagation?

A. The originator of the TCN immediately floods this information through the network.

B. The TCN propagation is a two step process.

C. A TCN is generated and sent to the root bridge.

D. The root bridge must flood this information throughout the network.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation

New Topology Change Mechanisms

When an 802.1D bridge detects a topology change, it uses a reliable mechanism to first notify the

root bridge.

This is shown in this diagram:

Once the root bridge is aware of a change in the topology of the network, it sets the TC flag on the

BPDUs it sends out, which are then relayed to all the bridges in the network. When a bridge

receives a BPDU with the TC flag bit set, it reduces its bridging-table aging time to forward delay

seconds. This ensures a relatively quick flush of stale information. Refer to Understanding

Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes for more information on this process. This topology

change mechanism is deeply remodeled in RSTP. Both the detection of a topology change and its

propagation through the network evolve.

Topology Change Detection

In RSTP, only non-edge ports that move to the forwarding state cause a topology change. This

means that a loss of connectivity is not considered as a topology change any more, contrary to

802.1D (that is, a port that moves to blocking no longer generates a TC). When a RSTP bridge

detects a topology change, these occur:

It starts the TC While timer with a value equal to twice the hello-time for all its non-edge

designated ports and its root port, if necessary.

It flushes the MAC addresses associated with all these ports.

Note: As long as the TC While timer runs on a port, the BPDUs sent out of that port have the TC

bit set.

BPDUs are also sent on the root port while the timer is active.

Topology Change Propagation

When a bridge receives a BPDU with the TC bit set from a neighbor, these occur:

It clears the MAC addresses learned on all its ports, except the one that receives the topology

change.

It starts the TC While timer and sends BPDUs with TC set on all its designated ports and root port

(RSTP no longer uses the specific TCN BPDU, unless a legacy bridge needs to be notified).

This way, the TCN floods very quickly across the whole network. The TC propagation is now a one

step process. In fact, the initiator of the topology change floods this information throughout the

network, as opposed to 802.1D where only the root did. This mechanism is much faster than the

802.1D equivalent. There is no need to wait for the root bridge to be notified and then maintain the

topology change state for the whole network for seconds.

In just a few seconds, or a small multiple of hello-times, most of the entries in the CAM tables of

the entire network (VLAN) flush. This approach results in potentially more temporary flooding, but

on the other hand it clears potential stale information that prevents rapid connectivity restitution.

Reference

http://ift.tt/1IPs3cU

QUESTION NO:17

Which three combinations are valid LACP configurations that will set up a channel? (Choose

three.)

A. On/On

B. On/Auto

C. Passive/Active

D. Desirable/Auto

E. Active/Active

F. Desirable/Desirable

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:5

Refer to the exhibit.

A small enterprise connects its office to two ISPs, using separate T1 links. A static route is used

for the default route, pointing to both interfaces with a different administrative distance, so that one

of the default routes is preferred.

Recently the primary link has been upgraded to a new 10 Mb/s Ethernet link.

After a few weeks, they experienced a failure. The link did not pass traffic, but the primary static

route remained active. They lost their Internet connectivity, even though the backup link was

operating.

Which two possible solutions can be implemented to avoid this situation in the future? (Choose

two.)

A. Implement HSRP link tracking on the branch router R1.

B. Use a track object with an IP SLA probe for the static route on R1.

C. Track the link state of the Ethernet link using a track object on R1.

D. Use a routing protocol between R1 and the upstream ISP.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Interface Tracking

Interface tracking allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to

monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group.

If the specified interface\’s line protocol goes down, the HSRP priority of this router is reduced,

allowing another HSRP router with higher priority can become active (if it has preemption

enabled).

To configure HSRP interface tracking, use the standby [group] track interface [priority] command.

When multiple tracked interfaces are down, the priority is reduced by a cumulative amount. If you

explicitly set the decrement value, then the value is decreased by that amount if that interface is

down, and decrements are cumulative. If you do not set an explicit decrement value, then the

value is decreased by 10 for each interface that goes down, and decrements are cumulative.

The following example uses the following configuration, with the default decrement value of 10.

Note: When an HSRP group number is not specified, the default group number is group 0.

interface ethernet0

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

standby ip 10.1.1.3

standby priority 110

standby track serial0

standby track serial1

The HSRP behavior with this configuration is:

0 interfaces down = no decrease (priority is 110)

1 interface down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes100)

2 interfaces down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes 90)

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qTs91f

ntracking

QUESTION NO:11

When you are troubleshooting duplex mismatches, which two errors are typically seen on the full-

duplex end? (Choose two.)

A. runts

B. FCS errors

C. interface resets

D. late collisions

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:3

A new backup connection is being deployed on a remote site router. The stability of the connection

has been a concern. In order to provide more information to EIGRP regarding this interface, you

wish to incorporate the “reliability” cost metric in the EIGRP calculation with the command metric

weights 1 0 1 0 1.

What impact will this modification on the remote site router have for other existing EIGRP

neighborships from the same EIGRP domain?

A. Existing neighbors will immediately begin using the new metric.

B. Existing neighbors will use the new metric after clearing the EIGRP neighbors.

C. Existing neighbors will resync, maintaining the neighbor relationship.

D. All existing neighbor relationships will go down.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:45

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the incoming interface of the above (*, G) entry indicate?

A. the interface closest to the source, according to the unicast routing table

B. the interface where an IGMP join has been received

C. the interface with the highest IP address

D. the last interface to hear a PIM (*, G) join

E. the interface closest to the RP, according to the unicast routing table

Answer: E

Explanation:

Source Trees

A source tree is the simplest form of distribution tree. The source host of the multicast traffic is

located at the root of the tree, and the receivers are located at the ends of the branches. Multicast

traffic travels from the source host down the tree toward the receivers. The forwarding decision on

which interface a multicast packet should be transmitted out is based on the multicast forwarding

table. This table consists of a series of multicast state entries that are cached in the router. State

entries for a source tree use the notation (S, G) pronounced S comma G. The letters represents

the IP address of the source, and G represents the group address.

Shared Trees

Shared trees differ from source trees in that the root of the tree is a common point somewhere in

the network.

This common point is referred to as the rendezvous point (RP). The RP is the point at which

receivers join to learn of active sources. Multicast sources must transmit their traffic to the RP.

When receivers join a multicast group on a shared tree, the root of the tree is always the RP, and

multicast traffic is transmitted from the RP down toward the receivers. Therefore, the RP acts as a

go-between for the sources and receivers. An RP can be the root for all multicast groups in the

network, or different ranges of multicast groups can be associated with different RPs.

Multicast forwarding entries for a shared tree use the notation (*, G), which is pronounced star

comma G. This is because all sources for a particular group share the same tree. (The multicast

groups go to the same RP.)

Therefore, the * or wildcard represents all sources.

Additional Information from Microsoft

Multicast traffic from source 162.10.4.1 (for example) uses the RPT, meaning the source sends it

to the RP rather than to the multicast group (the router would denote this by having a (*, G) entry

rather than a (S, G) entry). Before sending this traffic, Router 1 checks its unicast routing table to

see if packets from the RP are arriving on the correct interface. In this case they are, because they

arrive on interface I1, and the packets are forwarded.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2rpQHPd

QUESTION NO:22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is selected as best path?

A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.

path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.

path 2, because it is external

D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:18

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is correct about the prefix 160.0.0.0/8?

A. The prefix has encountered a routing loop.

B. The prefix is an aggregate with an as-set.

C. The prefix has been aggregated twice, once in AS 100 and once in AS 200.

D. None of these statements is true.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:49

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IGMPv2 message is displayed in the output of the packet capture?

A. General Query

B. Membership Report

C. Membership Query

D. Membership Delay

Answer: B

Explanation:

Reference

http://ift.tt/2rJtqJ9

QUESTION NO:23

What action will a BGP route reflector take when it receives a prefix marked with the community

attribute NO ADVERTISE from a client peer?

A. It will advertise the prefix to all other client peers and non-client peers.

B. It will not advertise the prefix to EBGP peers.

C. It will only advertise the prefix to all other IBGP peers.

D. It will not advertise the prefix to any peers.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:53

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is correct?

A. This configuration is not valid.

B. Control Plane Policing is configured; however you cannot determine on which interface it is

configured.

C. NTP is not configured on the router.

D. Telnet traffic will be dropped.

Answer: C

Explanation: Display the current connection table for the router. For example, for IOS routers,

type “show control-plane host open-ports” Press “Enter.” The router will display a table with one

line for each currently open connection. The fourth column from the left is labeled “Service;” the

entries under that column correspond to the protocols currently in use. The current TCP traffic

corresponds exactly to the table entries that have “TCP” under the fourth column.

QUESTION NO:11

When you are troubleshooting duplex mismatches, which two errors are typically seen on the full-

duplex end? (Choose two.)

A. runts

B. FCS errors

C. interface resets

D. late collisions

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:46

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface(s) will show ip rpf 1.1.1.2 indicate as RPF interface(s)?

A. Ethernet 1/0

B. Ethernet 0/0

C. Both Ethernet 0/0 and Ethernet 1/0

D. RPF will fail

Answer: A

Explanation:

When troubleshooting multicast routing, the primary concern is the source address. Multicast has

a concept of Reverse Path Forwarding check (RPF check). When a multicast packet arrives on an

interface, the RPF process checks to ensure that this incoming interface is the outgoing interface

used by unicast routing to reach the source of the multicast packet. This RPF check process

prevents loops. Multicast routing does not forward a packet unless the source of the packet

passes a reverse path forwarding (RPF) check. Once a packet passes this RPF check, multicast

routing forwards the packet based only upon the destination address.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2s4Qle4

QUESTION NO:48

Which IGMPv2 message contains a non-zero “Max Response Time”?

A. Membership Query

B. Membership Report

C. Membership Delay

D. Backward Compatible IGMPv1 Report Message

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO:27

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain named contoso.com.

The domain contains four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the

following table.

All domain controllers are DNS servers.

You plan to deploy a new domain controller named DC5 in the contoso.com domain.

You need to identify which domain controller must be online to ensure that DC5 can be promoted

successfully to a domain controller.

Which domain controller should you identify?

A. DC1

B. DC2

C. DC3

D. DC4

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO:8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server

named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.

On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.You join

Corel to the adatum.com domain.

You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Corel.

What should you do on Corel?

A. . Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.

B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.

C. Install Windows Management Framework.

D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Information regarding IPsec policy changes, etc. can be found in the Event Viewer. Thus you need to

enable the NetFirewallRule command. This will allow you to view the event logs.

QUESTION NO:3

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the virtual

switches listed in the following table.

You create a virtual machine named VM1.VM1 has two network adapters. One network adapter connects

to vSwitch1. The other network adapter connects to vSwitch2.You configure NIC teaming on VM1.

You need to ensure that if a physical NIC fails on Server1, VM1 remains connected to the network.

What should you do on Server1?

A. Run the Set-VmNetworkAdaptercmdlet.

B. Add a new network adapter to VM1.

C. Create a new virtual switch on Server 1.

D. Modify the properties of vSwitch1 and vSwitch2.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO:23

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a

WAN link.

In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.

Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only.

You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable.

Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b

B. ff00:3rff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4

C. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

D. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Unique local addresses

Unique local addresses are IPv6 addresses that are private to an organization in the same way that private

addresses–such as 10.x.x.x, 192.168.x.x, or 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255–can be used on an IPv4

network.

Unique local addresses, therefore, are not routable on the IPv6 Internet in the same way that an address

like 10.20.100.55 is not routable on the IPv4 Internet.

A unique local address is always structured as follows:

The first 8 bits are always 11111101 in binary format. This means that a unique local address always

begins with FD and has a prefix identifier of FD00::/8.

References:

Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 6: p.266

QUESTION NO:13

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the

Hyper-V server role installed.

Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.

Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that VM1 can use more CPU time than the other virtual machines when the CPUs on

Server1 are under a heavy load.

What should you configure?

A. NUMA topology

B. Resource control

C. resource metering

D. virtual Machine Chimney

E. The VLAN ID

F. Processor Compatibility

G. The startup order

H. Automatic Start Action

I. Integration Services

J. Port mirroring

K. Single-root I/O virtualization

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

B. Resource controls provide you with several ways to control the way that Hyper-V allocates resources to

virtual machine. Resource control in used in the event where you need to adjust the computing resources

of a virtual machine, you can reconfigure the resources to meet the changing needs. You can also specify

resource controls to automate how resources are allocated to virtual machines.

References:

http://ift.tt/2qW2C3G http://ift.tt/YcoVyj

library/hh831410.aspx http://ift.tt/12gy00c Exam Ref 70-410,

Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create

and Configure virtual machine settings, p.144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server

2012 R2: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p.335

QUESTION NO:28

You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain

named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, including domain controllers, have Windows

Server 2012 installed.

ABC.com has a server, named ABC-SR07, which has four network adapters. ABC.com has two

local area networks (LANs). Two of ABC-SR07

QUESTION NO:27

You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain

named ABC.com. All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed.

A server named, ABC-SR13, has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 installed.

You are instructed to convert ABC-SR13

QUESTION NO:11

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the

Hyper-V server role installed.

Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.

Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.

You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.

What should you configure?

A. NUMA topology

B. Resource control

C. resource metering

D. virtual Machine Chimney

E. The VLAN ID

F. Processor Compatibility

G. The startup order

H. Automatic Start Action

I. Integration Services

J. Port mirroring

K. Single-root I/O virtualization

Correct Answer: I

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system

shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This

snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.

References:

http://ift.tt/12FrbpV Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and

Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure

virtual machine settings, p.144

QUESTION NO:39

You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single

domain named ABC.com. All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012

installed.

You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing what

happens when you run the Remove-NetLbfoTeam Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

Which of the following describes the results of running this cmdlet?

A. It removes one or more network adapters from a specified NIC team.

B. It removes a team interface from a NIC team.

C. It removes a specified NIC team from the host.

D. It removes a network adapter member from a switch team.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:37

You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain

named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, including domain controllers, have Windows

Server 2012 installed.

When you recently added new workstations to the ABC.com manually, you found that that the

computer accounts were created in the default container. You want to make sure that the default

container for newly created computers is redirected to a specified, target organizational unit (OU).

Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider making use of the replace.exe command-line tool.

B. You should consider making use of the redircmp.exe command-line tool.

C. You should consider making use of the redirusr.exe command-line tool.

D. You should consider making use of the rexec.exe command-line tool.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO:4

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has an EBGP session to ISP 1 and an EBGP session to ISP 2. R1 receives the same prefixes

through both links.

Which configuration should be applied so that the link between R1 and ISP 2 will be preferred for

outgoing traffic (R1 to ISP 2)?

A. Increase local preference on R1 for received routes

B. Decrease local preference on R1 for received routes

C. Increase MED on ISP 2 for received routes

D. Decrease MED on ISP 2 for received routes

Answer: A

Explanation: Explanation

Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has preference to exit the AS in order

to reach a certain network. A path with higher local preference is preferred more. The default value

of preference is 100.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2pt1Ytl

html?

referring_site=smartnavRD

QUESTION NO:18

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is correct about the prefix 160.0.0.0/8?

A. The prefix has encountered a routing loop.

B. The prefix is an aggregate with an as-set.

C. The prefix has been aggregated twice, once in AS 100 and once in AS 200.

D. None of these statements is true.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:13

Which two statements are true about traffic shaping? (Choose two.)

A. Out-of-profile packets are queued.

B. It causes TCP retransmits.

C. Marking/remarking is not supported.

D. It does not respond to BECN and ForeSight Messages.

E. It uses a single/two-bucket mechanism for metering.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:14

Which three options are features of VTP version 3? (Choose three.)

A. VTPv3 supports 8K VLANs.

B. VTPv3 supports private VLAN mapping.

C. VTPv3 allows for domain discovery.

D. VTPv3 uses a primary server concept to avoid configuration revision issues.

E. VTPv3 is not compatible with VTPv1 or VTPv2.

F. VTPv3 has a hidden password option.

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:

Key Benefits of VTP Version 3

Much work has gone into improving the usability of VTP version 3 in three major areas:

The new version of VTP offers better administrative control over which device is allowed to update

other devices\’ view of the VLAN topology. The chance of unintended and disruptive changes is

significantly reduced, and availability is increased. The reduced risk of unintended changes will

ease the change process and help speed deployment.

Functionality for the VLAN environment has been significantly expanded. Two enhancements are

most beneficial for today\’s networks:

QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:5

Refer to the exhibit.

A small enterprise connects its office to two ISPs, using separate T1 links. A static route is used

for the default route, pointing to both interfaces with a different administrative distance, so that one

of the default routes is preferred.

Recently the primary link has been upgraded to a new 10 Mb/s Ethernet link.

After a few weeks, they experienced a failure. The link did not pass traffic, but the primary static

route remained active. They lost their Internet connectivity, even though the backup link was

operating.

Which two possible solutions can be implemented to avoid this situation in the future? (Choose

two.)

A. Implement HSRP link tracking on the branch router R1.

B. Use a track object with an IP SLA probe for the static route on R1.

C. Track the link state of the Ethernet link using a track object on R1.

D. Use a routing protocol between R1 and the upstream ISP.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Interface Tracking

Interface tracking allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to

monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group.

If the specified interface\’s line protocol goes down, the HSRP priority of this router is reduced,

allowing another HSRP router with higher priority can become active (if it has preemption

enabled).

To configure HSRP interface tracking, use the standby [group] track interface [priority] command.

When multiple tracked interfaces are down, the priority is reduced by a cumulative amount. If you

explicitly set the decrement value, then the value is decreased by that amount if that interface is

down, and decrements are cumulative. If you do not set an explicit decrement value, then the

value is decreased by 10 for each interface that goes down, and decrements are cumulative.

The following example uses the following configuration, with the default decrement value of 10.

Note: When an HSRP group number is not specified, the default group number is group 0.

interface ethernet0

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

standby ip 10.1.1.3

standby priority 110

standby track serial0

standby track serial1

The HSRP behavior with this configuration is:

0 interfaces down = no decrease (priority is 110)

1 interface down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes100)

2 interfaces down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes 90)

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qTs91f

ntracking

QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:7

Which statement is true about TCN propagation?

A. The originator of the TCN immediately floods this information through the network.

B. The TCN propagation is a two step process.

C. A TCN is generated and sent to the root bridge.

D. The root bridge must flood this information throughout the network.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation

New Topology Change Mechanisms

When an 802.1D bridge detects a topology change, it uses a reliable mechanism to first notify the

root bridge.

This is shown in this diagram:

Once the root bridge is aware of a change in the topology of the network, it sets the TC flag on the

BPDUs it sends out, which are then relayed to all the bridges in the network. When a bridge

receives a BPDU with the TC flag bit set, it reduces its bridging-table aging time to forward delay

seconds. This ensures a relatively quick flush of stale information. Refer to Understanding

Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes for more information on this process. This topology

change mechanism is deeply remodeled in RSTP. Both the detection of a topology change and its

propagation through the network evolve.

Topology Change Detection

In RSTP, only non-edge ports that move to the forwarding state cause a topology change. This

means that a loss of connectivity is not considered as a topology change any more, contrary to

802.1D (that is, a port that moves to blocking no longer generates a TC). When a RSTP bridge

detects a topology change, these occur:

It starts the TC While timer with a value equal to twice the hello-time for all its non-edge

designated ports and its root port, if necessary.

It flushes the MAC addresses associated with all these ports.

Note: As long as the TC While timer runs on a port, the BPDUs sent out of that port have the TC

bit set.

BPDUs are also sent on the root port while the timer is active.

Topology Change Propagation

When a bridge receives a BPDU with the TC bit set from a neighbor, these occur:

It clears the MAC addresses learned on all its ports, except the one that receives the topology

change.

It starts the TC While timer and sends BPDUs with TC set on all its designated ports and root port

(RSTP no longer uses the specific TCN BPDU, unless a legacy bridge needs to be notified).

This way, the TCN floods very quickly across the whole network. The TC propagation is now a one

step process. In fact, the initiator of the topology change floods this information throughout the

network, as opposed to 802.1D where only the root did. This mechanism is much faster than the

802.1D equivalent. There is no need to wait for the root bridge to be notified and then maintain the

topology change state for the whole network for seconds.

In just a few seconds, or a small multiple of hello-times, most of the entries in the CAM tables of

the entire network (VLAN) flush. This approach results in potentially more temporary flooding, but

on the other hand it clears potential stale information that prevents rapid connectivity restitution.

Reference

http://ift.tt/1IPs3cU

QUESTION NO:6

Why would a rogue host that is running a DHCP server on a campus LAN network present a

security risk?

A. It may allocate IP addresses from an unknown subnet to the users.

B. All multicast traffic can be sniffed by using the DHCP multicast capabilities.

C. The CPU utilization of the first hop router can be overloaded by exploiting DHCP relay open

ports.

D. A potential man-in-the-middle attack can be used against the clients.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is selected as best path?

A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.

path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.

path 2, because it is external

D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO:26

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is AS 65333 in parentheses?

A. It is an external AS.

B. It is a confederation AS.

C. It is the AS of a route reflector.

D. It is our own AS.

E. A route map has been applied to this route.

F. The BGP next hop is unreachable.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:24

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (209.165.202.130).

What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?

A. Disable auto-summary on R2.

B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2.

C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers.

D. Disable auto-summary on R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:

By default, BGP does not accept subnets redistributed from IGP. To advertise and carry subnet

routes in BGP, use an explicit network command or the no auto-summary command. If you disable

auto-summarization and have not entered a network command, you will not advertise network

routes for networks with subnet routes unless they contain a summary route.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2r3HM3d

QUESTION NO:9

Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network

segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)

A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.

A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge

comes up.

C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root

bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.

D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility

mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w

segments of the network.

E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and

will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the

administrator.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A

migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,

the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay

expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port

changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.

802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it

transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on

any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.

Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding

state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in

use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,

moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to

notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will

transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This

is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable

portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP

states.

Reference

http://ift.tt/1IPs3cU

QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:31

How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast

addresses on a point-to-point link?

A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship.

B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship.

C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: “EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a

common subnet.”

D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be

installed in the routing table.

Answer: A Explanation:

http://ift.tt/2pwWcae

QUESTION NO:10

Which command is used to enable EtherChannel hashing for Layer 3 IP and Layer 4 port-based

CEF?

A. mpls ip cef

B. port-channel ip cef

C. mpls ip port-channel cef

D. port-channel load balance

E. mpls ip load-balance

F. ip cef EtherChannel channel-id XOR L4

G. ip cef connection exchange

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:37

Which command can be used on a PE router to connect to a CE router (11.1.1.4) in VRF red?

A. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf-source red

B. telnet 11.1.1.4 source /vrf red

C. telnet 11.1.1.4 /source vrf red

D. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf red

E. telnet 11.1.1.4 vrf red

Answer: D

Explanation:

Telnetting can be done through the VRF using the Management Ethernet interface. In the

following example, the router telnets to 172.17.1.1 through the Management Ethernet interface

VRF:

Router# telnet 172.17.1.1 /vrf Mgmt-intf

Reference

http://ift.tt/2pusc3Q

net.html

QUESTION NO:15

Which three options are considered in the spanning-tree decision process? (Choose three.)

A. lowest root bridge ID

B. lowest path cost to root bridge

C. lowest sender bridge ID

D. highest port ID

E. highest root bridge ID

F. highest path cost to root bridge

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

Configuration bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) are sent between switches for each port.

Switches use s four step process to save a copy of the best BPDU seen on every port. When a

port receives a better BPDU, it stops sending them. If the BPDUs stop arriving for 20 seconds

(default), it begins sending them again.

Step 1 Lowest Root Bridge ID (BID)

Step 2 Lowest Path Cost to Root Bridge

Step 3 Lowest Sender BID

Step 4 Lowest Port ID

Reference

Cisco General Networking Theory Quick Reference Sheets

QUESTION NO:13

Which two statements are true about traffic shaping? (Choose two.)

A. Out-of-profile packets are queued.

B. It causes TCP retransmits.

C. Marking/remarking is not supported.

D. It does not respond to BECN and ForeSight Messages.

E. It uses a single/two-bucket mechanism for metering.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO:13

Which two statements are true about traffic shaping? (Choose two.)

A. Out-of-profile packets are queued.

B. It causes TCP retransmits.

C. Marking/remarking is not supported.

D. It does not respond to BECN and ForeSight Messages.

E. It uses a single/two-bucket mechanism for metering.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:28

Which two orders in the BGP Best Path Selection process are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Higher local preference, then lowest MED, then eBGP over iBGP paths

B. Higher local preference, then highest weight, then lowest router ID

C. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then shortest AS path

D. Lowest origin type, then higher local preference, then lowest router ID

E. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then highest MED

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:18

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is correct about the prefix 160.0.0.0/8?

A. The prefix has encountered a routing loop.

B. The prefix is an aggregate with an as-set.

C. The prefix has been aggregated twice, once in AS 100 and once in AS 200.

D. None of these statements is true.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:26

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is AS 65333 in parentheses?

A. It is an external AS.

B. It is a confederation AS.

C. It is the AS of a route reflector.

D. It is our own AS.

E. A route map has been applied to this route.

F. The BGP next hop is unreachable.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:29

What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?

A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface.

B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface.

C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface.

D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Duplicate address detection (DAD) is used to verify that an IPv6 home address is unique on the

LAN before assigning the address to a physical interface (for example, QDIO). z/OS

Communications Server responds to other nodes doing DAD for IP addresses assigned to the

interface.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2pJKw4Y

/ipv6d0021002145.htm

QUESTION NO:30

What is the flooding scope of an OSPFv3 LSA, if the value of the S2 bit is set to 1 and the S1 bit is

set to 0?

A. link local

B. area wide

C. AS wide

D. reserved

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Type 1 router LSA is now link local and the Type 2 Network LSA is AS Wide

S2 and S1 indicate the LSA\’s flooding scope. Table 9-1 shows the possible values of these two

bits and the associated flooding scopes.

Table 9-1 S bits in the OSPFv3 LSA Link State Type field and their associated flooding scopes

LSA Function Code, the last 13 bits of the LS Type field, corresponds to the OSPFv2 Type field.

Table 9-2 shows the common LSA types used by OSPFv3 and the values of their corresponding

LS Types. If you decode the hex values, you will see that the default U bit of all of them is 0. The S

bits of all LSAs except two indicate area scope. Of the remaining two, AS External LSAs have an

AS flooding scope and Link LSAs have a linklocal flooding scope. Most of the OSPFv3 LSAs have

functional counterparts in OSPFv2; these OSPFv2 LSAs and their types are also shown in Table

9-2.

Table 9-2 OSPFv3 LSA types and their OSPFv2 counterparts

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qP4P4y

QUESTION NO:15

Which three options are considered in the spanning-tree decision process? (Choose three.)

A. lowest root bridge ID

B. lowest path cost to root bridge

C. lowest sender bridge ID

D. highest port ID

E. highest root bridge ID

F. highest path cost to root bridge

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

Configuration bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) are sent between switches for each port.

Switches use s four step process to save a copy of the best BPDU seen on every port. When a

port receives a better BPDU, it stops sending them. If the BPDUs stop arriving for 20 seconds

(default), it begins sending them again.

Step 1 Lowest Root Bridge ID (BID)

Step 2 Lowest Path Cost to Root Bridge

Step 3 Lowest Sender BID

Step 4 Lowest Port ID

Reference

Cisco General Networking Theory Quick Reference Sheets

QUESTION NO:33

Which two OSPF LSA types are new in OSPF version 3? (Choose two.)

A. Link

B. NSSA external

C. Network link

D. Intra-area prefix

E. AS domain

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

New LSA Types

OSPFv3 carries over the seven basic LSA types we\’re familiar with from OSPFv2. However, the

type 1 and 2 LSAs have been re-purposed, as will be discussed in a bit. OSPFv3 also introduces

two new LSA types: Link and Intra-area Prefix.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2q7mUdy

QUESTION NO:31

How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast

addresses on a point-to-point link?

A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship.

B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship.

C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: “EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a

common subnet.”

D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be

installed in the routing table.

Answer: A Explanation:

http://ift.tt/2pwWcae

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QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:5

Refer to the exhibit.

A small enterprise connects its office to two ISPs, using separate T1 links. A static route is used

for the default route, pointing to both interfaces with a different administrative distance, so that one

of the default routes is preferred.

Recently the primary link has been upgraded to a new 10 Mb/s Ethernet link.

After a few weeks, they experienced a failure. The link did not pass traffic, but the primary static

route remained active. They lost their Internet connectivity, even though the backup link was

operating.

Which two possible solutions can be implemented to avoid this situation in the future? (Choose

two.)

A. Implement HSRP link tracking on the branch router R1.

B. Use a track object with an IP SLA probe for the static route on R1.

C. Track the link state of the Ethernet link using a track object on R1.

D. Use a routing protocol between R1 and the upstream ISP.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Interface Tracking

Interface tracking allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to

monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group.

If the specified interface\’s line protocol goes down, the HSRP priority of this router is reduced,

allowing another HSRP router with higher priority can become active (if it has preemption

enabled).

To configure HSRP interface tracking, use the standby [group] track interface [priority] command.

When multiple tracked interfaces are down, the priority is reduced by a cumulative amount. If you

explicitly set the decrement value, then the value is decreased by that amount if that interface is

down, and decrements are cumulative. If you do not set an explicit decrement value, then the

value is decreased by 10 for each interface that goes down, and decrements are cumulative.

The following example uses the following configuration, with the default decrement value of 10.

Note: When an HSRP group number is not specified, the default group number is group 0.

interface ethernet0

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

standby ip 10.1.1.3

standby priority 110

standby track serial0

standby track serial1

The HSRP behavior with this configuration is:

0 interfaces down = no decrease (priority is 110)

1 interface down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes100)

2 interfaces down = decrease by 10 (priority becomes 90)

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qTs91f

ntracking

QUESTION NO:24

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (209.165.202.130).

What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?

A. Disable auto-summary on R2.

B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2.

C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers.

D. Disable auto-summary on R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:

By default, BGP does not accept subnets redistributed from IGP. To advertise and carry subnet

routes in BGP, use an explicit network command or the no auto-summary command. If you disable

auto-summarization and have not entered a network command, you will not advertise network

routes for networks with subnet routes unless they contain a summary route.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2r3HM3d

QUESTION NO:10

Which command is used to enable EtherChannel hashing for Layer 3 IP and Layer 4 port-based

CEF?

A. mpls ip cef

B. port-channel ip cef

C. mpls ip port-channel cef

D. port-channel load balance

E. mpls ip load-balance

F. ip cef EtherChannel channel-id XOR L4

G. ip cef connection exchange

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:14

Which three options are features of VTP version 3? (Choose three.)

A. VTPv3 supports 8K VLANs.

B. VTPv3 supports private VLAN mapping.

C. VTPv3 allows for domain discovery.

D. VTPv3 uses a primary server concept to avoid configuration revision issues.

E. VTPv3 is not compatible with VTPv1 or VTPv2.

F. VTPv3 has a hidden password option.

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:

Key Benefits of VTP Version 3

Much work has gone into improving the usability of VTP version 3 in three major areas:

The new version of VTP offers better administrative control over which device is allowed to update

other devices\’ view of the VLAN topology. The chance of unintended and disruptive changes is

significantly reduced, and availability is increased. The reduced risk of unintended changes will

ease the change process and help speed deployment.

Functionality for the VLAN environment has been significantly expanded. Two enhancements are

most beneficial for today\’s networks:

QUESTION NO:12

Which two options are contained in a VTP subset advertisement? (Choose two.)

A. followers field

B. MD5 digest

C. VLAN information

D. sequence number

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Subset Advertisements

When you add, delete, or change a VLAN in a Catalyst, the server Catalyst where the changes are

made increments the configuration revision and issues a summary advertisement. One or several

subset advertisements follow the summary advertisement. A subset advertisement contains a list

of VLAN information.

If there are several VLANs, more than one subset advertisement can be required in order to

advertise all the VLANs.

Subset Advertisement Packet Format

This formatted example shows that each VLAN information field contains information for a different

VLAN. It is ordered so that lowered-valued ISL VLAN IDs occur first:

Most of the fields in this packet are easy to understand. These are two clarifications:

Code

QUESTION NO:20

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential issue with this configuration?

A. There is no potential issue; OSPF will work fine in any condition.

B. Sub-optimal routing may occur since there is no area 1 adjacency between the ABRs.

C. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because all routers must be in area 0 only.

D. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because /30 requires 0.0.0.3 wild card.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is selected as best path?

A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.

path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.

path 2, because it is external

D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:30

What is the flooding scope of an OSPFv3 LSA, if the value of the S2 bit is set to 1 and the S1 bit is

set to 0?

A. link local

B. area wide

C. AS wide

D. reserved

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Type 1 router LSA is now link local and the Type 2 Network LSA is AS Wide

S2 and S1 indicate the LSA\’s flooding scope. Table 9-1 shows the possible values of these two

bits and the associated flooding scopes.

Table 9-1 S bits in the OSPFv3 LSA Link State Type field and their associated flooding scopes

LSA Function Code, the last 13 bits of the LS Type field, corresponds to the OSPFv2 Type field.

Table 9-2 shows the common LSA types used by OSPFv3 and the values of their corresponding

LS Types. If you decode the hex values, you will see that the default U bit of all of them is 0. The S

bits of all LSAs except two indicate area scope. Of the remaining two, AS External LSAs have an

AS flooding scope and Link LSAs have a linklocal flooding scope. Most of the OSPFv3 LSAs have

functional counterparts in OSPFv2; these OSPFv2 LSAs and their types are also shown in Table

9-2.

Table 9-2 OSPFv3 LSA types and their OSPFv2 counterparts

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qP4P4y

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QUESTION NO:8

Which statement is true about loop guard?

A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.

B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.

C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.

D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation

Understanding How Loop Guard Works

Unidirectional link failures may cause a root port or alternate port to become designated as root if

BPDUs are absent. Some software failures may introduce temporary loops in the network. Loop

guard checks if a root port or an alternate root port receives BPDUs. If the port is receiving

BPDUs, loop guard puts the port into an inconsistent state until it starts receiving BPDUs again.

Loop guard isolates the failure and lets spanning tree converge to a stable topology without the

failed link or bridge.

You can enable loop guard per port with the set spantree guard loop command.

Note When you are in MST mode, you can set all the ports on a switch with the set spantree

global-defaults loop-guard command.

When you enable loop guard, it is automatically applied to all of the active instances or VLANs to

which that port belongs. When you disable loop guard, it is disabled for the specified ports.

Disabling loop guard moves all loop-inconsistent ports to the listening state.

If you enable loop guard on a channel and the first link becomes unidirectional, loop guard blocks

the entire channel until the affected port is removed from the channel. Figure 8-6 shows loop

guard in a triangle switch configuration.

Figure 8-6 Triangle Switch Configuration with Loop Guard

Figure 8-6 illustrates the following configuration:

Switches A and B are distribution switches.

Switch C is an access switch.

Loop guard is enabled on ports 3/1 and 3/2 on Switches A, B, and C.

Use loop guard only in topologies where there are blocked ports. Topologies that have no blocked

ports, which are loop free, do not need to enable this feature. Enabling loop guard on a root switch

has no effect but provides protection when a root switch becomes a nonroot switch.

Follow these guidelines when using loop guard:

Do not enable loop guard on PortFast-enabled or dynamic VLAN ports.

Do not enable PortFast on loop guard-enabled ports.

Do not enable loop guard if root guard is enabled.

Do not enable loop guard on ports that are connected to a shared link.

Note: We recommend that you enable loop guard on root ports and alternate root ports on access

switches.

Loop guard interacts with other features as follows:

Loop guard does not affect the functionality of UplinkFast or BackboneFast.

Root guard forces a port to always be designated as the root port. Loop guard is effective only if

the port is a root port or an alternate port. Do not enable loop guard and root guard on a port at the

same time.

PortFast transitions a port into a forwarding state immediately when a link is established. Because

a PortFast-enabled port will not be a root port or alternate port, loop guard and PortFast cannot be

configured on the same port. Assigning dynamic VLAN membership for the port requires that the

port is PortFast enabled. Do not configure a loop guard-enabled port with dynamic VLAN

membership.

If your network has a type-inconsistent port or a PVID-inconsistent port, all BPDUs are dropped

until the misconfiguration is corrected. The port transitions out of the inconsistent state after the

message age expires. Loop guard ignores the message age expiration on type-inconsistent ports

and PVID-inconsistent ports. If the port is already blocked by loop guard, misconfigured BPDUs

that are received on the port make loop guard recover, but the port is moved into the type-

inconsistent state or PVID-inconsistent state.

In high-availability switch configurations, if a port is put into the blocked state by loop guard, it

remains blocked even after a switchover to the redundant supervisor engine. The newly activated

supervisor engine recovers the port only after receiving a BPDU on that port.

Loop guard uses the ports known to spanning tree. Loop guard can take advantage of logical ports

provided by the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP). However, to form a channel, all the physical

ports grouped in the channel must have compatible configurations. PAgP enforces uniform

configurations of root guard or loop guard on all the physical ports to form a channel.

These caveats apply to loop guard:

QUESTION NO:16

In 802.1s, how is the VLAN to instance mapping represented in the BPDU?

A. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 16-byte field in the MST BPDU.

B. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 12-byte field in the MST BPDU.

C. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 16-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.

D. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 12-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.

Answer: C

Explanation:

MST Configuration and MST Region

Each switch running MST in the network has a single MST configuration that consists of these

three attributes:

1. An alphanumeric configuration name (32 bytes)

2. A configuration revision number (two bytes)

3. A 4096-element table that associates each of the potential 4096 VLANs supported on the

chassis to a given instance.

In order to be part of a common MST region, a group of switches must share the same

configuration attributes.

It is up to the network administrator to properly propagate the configuration throughout the region.

Currently, this step is only possible by the means of the command line interface (CLI) or through

Simple Network

Management Protocol (SNMP). Other methods can be envisioned, as the IEEE specification does

not explicitly mention how to accomplish that step.

Note: If for any reason two switches differ on one or more configuration attribute, the switches are

part of different regions. For more information refer to the Region Boundary section of this

document.

Region Boundary

In order to ensure consistent VLAN-to-instance mapping, it is necessary for the protocol to be able

to exactly identify the boundaries of the regions. For that purpose, the characteristics of the region

are included in the BPDUs. The exact VLANs-to-instance mapping is not propagated in the BPDU,

because the switches only need to know whether they are in the same region as a neighbor.

Therefore, only a digest of the VLANs-toinstance mapping table is sent, along with the revision

number and the name. Once a switch receives a BPDU, the switch extracts the digest (a

numerical value derived from the VLAN-to-instance mapping table through a mathematical

function) and compares this digest with its own computed digest. If the digests differ, the port on

which the BPDU was received is at the boundary of a region.

In generic terms, a port is at the boundary of a region if the designated bridge on its segment is in

a different region or if it receives legacy 802.1d BPDUs. In this diagram, the port on B1 is at the

boundary of region A, whereas the ports on B2 and B3 are internal to region B:

MST Instances

According to the IEEE 802.1s specification, an MST bridge must be able to handle at least these

two instances:

One Internal Spanning Tree (IST)

One or more Multiple Spanning Tree Instance(s) (MSTIs)

The terminology continues to evolve, as 802.1s is actually in a pre-standard phase. It is likely

these names will change in the final release of 802.1s. The Cisco implementation supports 16

instances: one IST (instance 0) and 15 MSTIs.

show vtp status

Cisco switches “show vtp status” Field Descriptions has a MD5 digest field that is a 16-byte

checksum of the

VTP configuration as shown below

Router# show vtp status

VTP Version: 3 (capable)

Configuration Revision: 1

Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005

Number of existing VLANs: 37

VTP Operating Mode: Server

VTP Domain Name: [smartports]

VTP Pruning Mode: Disabled

VTP V2 Mode: Enabled

VTP Traps Generation: Disabled

MD5 digest : 0x26 0xEE 0x0D 0x84 0x73 0x0E 0x1B 0x69

Configuration last modified by 172.20.52.19 at 7-25-08 14:33:43

Local updater ID is 172.20.52.19 on interface Gi5/2 (first layer3 interface fou)

VTP version running: 2

Reference

http://ift.tt/2qcKaXu

http://ift.tt/2rbjgN5

QUESTION NO:45

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the incoming interface of the above (*, G) entry indicate?

A. the interface closest to the source, according to the unicast routing table

B. the interface where an IGMP join has been received

C. the interface with the highest IP address

D. the last interface to hear a PIM (*, G) join

E. the interface closest to the RP, according to the unicast routing table

Answer: E

Explanation:

Source Trees

A source tree is the simplest form of distribution tree. The source host of the multicast traffic is

located at the root of the tree, and the receivers are located at the ends of the branches. Multicast

traffic travels from the source host down the tree toward the receivers. The forwarding decision on

which interface a multicast packet should be transmitted out is based on the multicast forwarding

table. This table consists of a series of multicast state entries that are cached in the router. State

entries for a source tree use the notation (S, G) pronounced S comma G. The letters represents

the IP address of the source, and G represents the group address.

Shared Trees

Shared trees differ from source trees in that the root of the tree is a common point somewhere in

the network.

This common point is referred to as the rendezvous point (RP). The RP is the point at which

receivers join to learn of active sources. Multicast sources must transmit their traffic to the RP.

When receivers join a multicast group on a shared tree, the root of the tree is always the RP, and

multicast traffic is transmitted from the RP down toward the receivers. Therefore, the RP acts as a

go-between for the sources and receivers. An RP can be the root for all multicast groups in the

network, or different ranges of multicast groups can be associated with different RPs.

Multicast forwarding entries for a shared tree use the notation (*, G), which is pronounced star

comma G. This is because all sources for a particular group share the same tree. (The multicast

groups go to the same RP.)

Therefore, the * or wildcard represents all sources.

Additional Information from Microsoft

Multicast traffic from source 162.10.4.1 (for example) uses the RPT, meaning the source sends it

to the RP rather than to the multicast group (the router would denote this by having a (*, G) entry

rather than a (S, G) entry). Before sending this traffic, Router 1 checks its unicast routing table to

see if packets from the RP are arriving on the correct interface. In this case they are, because they

arrive on interface I1, and the packets are forwarded.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2rpQHPd

QUESTION NO:39

Which two statements are correct about Nonstop Forwarding? (Choose two.)

A. It allows the standby RP to take control of the device after a hardware or software fault on the

active RP.

B. It is a Layer 3 function that works with SSO to minimize the amount of time a network is

unavailable to users following a switchover.

C. It is supported by the implementation of EIGRP, OSPF, RIPv2, and BGP protocols.

D. It synchronizes startup configuration, startup variables, and running configuration.

E. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets following a switchover.

F. Layer 2 802.1w or 802.1s must be used, as 802.1d cannot process the Layer 2 changes.

G. Routing protocol tuning parameters must be the same as the NSF parameters, or failover will

be inconsistent.

Answer: B,E

Explanation: Explanation

Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) works with the Stateful Switchover (SSO) feature in Cisco IOS

software. NSF works with SSO to minimize the amount of time a network is unavailable to its

users following a switchover. The main objective of Cisco NSF is to continue forwarding IP

packets following a Route Processor (RP) switchover.

Reference

http://ift.tt/2q7Nr8w

QUESTION NO:34

In order to maintain security, with which hop count are IPv6 neighbor discovery packets sent?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 255

D. 256

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:21

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet from RTD with destination RTG, is reaching RTB. What is the path this packet will take

from RTB to reach RTG?

A. RTB – RTA – RTG

B. RTB – RTD – RTC – RTA – RTG

C. RTB – RTF – RTE – RTA – RTG

D. RTB will not be able to reach RTG since the OSPF configuration is wrong.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:20

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential issue with this configuration?

A. There is no potential issue; OSPF will work fine in any condition.

B. Sub-optimal routing may occur since there is no area 1 adjacency between the ABRs.

C. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because all routers must be in area 0 only.

D. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because /30 requires 0.0.0.3 wild card.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:9

Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network

segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)

A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.

A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge

comes up.

C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root

bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.

D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility

mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w

segments of the network.

E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and

will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the

administrator.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A

migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,

the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay

expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port

changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.

802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it

transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on

any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.

Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding

state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in

use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,

moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to

notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will

transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This

is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable

portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP

states.

Reference

http://ift.tt/1IPs3cU

QUESTION NO:37

Which command can be used on a PE router to connect to a CE router (11.1.1.4) in VRF red?

A. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf-source red

B. telnet 11.1.1.4 source /vrf red

C. telnet 11.1.1.4 /source vrf red

D. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf red

E. telnet 11.1.1.4 vrf red

Answer: D

Explanation:

Telnetting can be done through the VRF using the Management Ethernet interface. In the

following example, the router telnets to 172.17.1.1 through the Management Ethernet interface

VRF:

Router# telnet 172.17.1.1 /vrf Mgmt-intf

Reference

http://ift.tt/2pusc3Q

net.html

QUESTION NO:40

Which three fields are optional in an OSPFv3 external LSA? (Choose three.)

A. Forwarding Address

B. External Route

C. Reference Link-State ID

D. Option

E. Prefix Options

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

AS-External LSA

As with OSPFv2, the AS-External LSA advertises prefixes external to the OSPF routing domain;

one LSA is required for each external prefix advertised. However, the format of the OSPFv3 As-

External LSA (Figure 9-10) is different from its OSPFv2 counterpart.

Figure 9-10. OSPFv3 AS-External LSA

Reference

http://ift.tt/2puMeLr Professional Development Routing TCPIP Volu

me I/images/09fig10_alt.jpg

CertBus exam braindumps are pass guaranteed. We guarantee your pass for the 400-101 exam successfully with our Cisco materials. CertBus CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.0 exam PDF and VCE are the latest and most accurate. We have the best Cisco in our team to make sure CertBus CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.0 exam questions and answers are the most valid. CertBus exam CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.0 exam dumps will help you to be the Cisco specialist, clear your 400-101 exam and get the final success.

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Why select/choose CertBus?

Millions of interested professionals can touch the destination of success in exams by certbus.com. products which would be available, affordable, updated and of really best quality to overcome the difficulties of any course outlines. Questions and Answers material is updated in highly outclass manner on regular basis and material is released periodically and is available in testing centers with whom we are maintaining our relationship to get latest material.

Brand Certbus Testking Pass4sure Actualtests Others Price $45.99 $124.99 $125.99 $189 $69.99-99.99 Up-to-Date Dumps Free 365 Days Update Real Questions Printable PDF Test Engine One Time Purchase Instant Download Unlimited Install 100% Pass Guarantee 100% Money Back Secure Payment Privacy Protection

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