#types of software mcq class 5

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Types Of Software | Class - 5 Computer | EXERCISES | Question and Answers | CAIE / CBSE / ICSE

Types Of Software | Class – 5 Computer | EXERCISES | Question and Answers | CAIE / CBSE / ICSE

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[99lms]

TOP 10 LMS COMPANIES IN INDIA

Technology is growing at a faster pace. It has the potential to motivate learners as well as the trainers more than ever before. With the Learning Management System, it has improved the interactivity of learners and trainers. Nowadays educational institutions and corporates have started the use of online learning platforms. LMS provides a greater experience for learners of diverse industries. LMS helps in bringing institutions at your fingertips.

      There are many companies whose branches are situated at different locations. LMS will help in organizing the programs and tracking the performance of each employee situated at different branches. It will help in the efficient operation of the company. Nowadays Educational institutions are mainly dependent on LMS. By adopting LMS software, the quality of education can be improved and students are more motivated for learning.

Choosing the best learning management system for schools is always a tough decision-making process. There are many LMS providers in India offering vendor-supported, cloud-based and open-source LMS. In a Cloud-based system, there is no need to install specific hardware or software to use it. One can access the features of the software by logging into the website. Some of the benefits of a cloud-based system are zero maintenance, easier integration, and low cost. Open-source LMS are free and require a lot of setups, upgrades, maintenance costs. Sometimes, there occur security issues for Vendor supported LMS so the institutions should be very careful. But this vendor supported LMS can provide a user-friendly interface. Before selecting one, compare and evaluate each to find the best LMS software in India. Choosing the right LMS at the right time can make an impact on the learners.

       In this competitive environment, there are many companies in India that offer e-learning. Some of the best LMS providers are listed below.

LIST OF LMS PROVIDERS IN INDIA

1. 99LMS

Baabte System Technologies 99LMS is cloud-based software designed for educational institutions to digitize, automate and improve academic performance. It provides a centralized, organized and structured way of creating, publishing and delivering courses with all types of learning materials like documents, presentations, videos, assignments, tests, etc. Integration with Google Apps like Google Doc, Google Slides & YouTube, Live Class Room - Video Conferencing for teachers to conduct live classes, group chat for doubt clearance and screen sharing options for both teachers and students, automated evaluation for MCQ exams are some of the other features of 99LMS. This is one of the best LMS software in India.

2. G-Cube solutions

G-Cube solution is one of the best software in India with lots of attractive features. This learning management system is designed to fulfill the necessities of different organizations. They provide enhanced user experience which makes customers stick on to G-Cube solutions. It helps to automate tasks and to monitor the performance of learners.

3. IPIX LMS

It is a cloud-based Learning Management System designed for corporates. IPIX LMS supports 40+ languages and it allows the users to track the progress of the learners. It suits for both long term and short term uses as it helps in downloading courses and can access it offline.IPIX other features include gamification which can make learning more interesting. It is easy to create unlimited content, quizzes, tests, etc in IPIX LMS. It also helps to create highly interactive LMS for corporate of all sizes.

4. Deskera LMS

Deskera LMS, a cloud-based software provider is one of the leading LMS software in India. It helps to streamline teaching, learning, student performance, effectively manage faculty, manage courses, etc. Users can easily access it through PC, Android device, iPad, and iPhone as it got a great responsive design. It also can be customized and delivers effective digital learning programs. Deskara LMS is mainly designed for educational institutions.

5. Shezartech

Shezartech is one of the leading LMS providers in India. This LMS also provides the feature of gamification in learning to make learning more interesting and has got a responsive design and can be customized to any depth. It supports unlimited content and allows the users to create quizzes, tests, and also provides real-time tracking and reporting. Shezartech customizes both server-based and cloud-based LMS to assist the training of employees in an organization with a desired speed and uniformity. They also develop Mobile learning management systems (M-LMS) that allow the users to provide flexibility to learners and to access LMS from anywhere, from any device.

6. Zeus Learning

Zeus Learning is cost-effective for the business of all sizes. It supports course sharing with non-registered users and also allows setting a wide announcement to reach everyone at the same time. It helps to organize learning activities. Its flexible design helps to manage learning activities more effectively and is a user-friendly system.

7. NIIT

NIIT’s cloud-based learning management system (LMS) is a full-featured, fully hosted application that can be configured to meet a variety of business needs. It supports several learners worldwide. Detailed tracking, skills assessment and management, and reporting options, the ability to deploy proprietary courses, advanced customization, configuration, and integration capabilities without the need to invest, install or maintain any hardware or software etc are some of the features of this LMS.

8. EXCELSOFT

EXCELSOFT’s SARAS is a saas based learning management software designed for schools and corporate training. It promotes sustained engagement between students, teachers, and parents through robust technology platform SARAS K12 LMS for schools. It provides a comprehensive solution to automate teaching and learning processes and enable teachers for innovative teaching. Saras corporate LMS mobile is a light-weight learning solution that can be tailored to the user’s requirements. SARAS integrates easily with third-party enterprise software.

9. vStacks InfoTech

This company provides an interactive and engaging end to end LMS solutions for corporates of all sizes. eZnetLM is a cloud-based offering from vStacks InfoTech. It provides the perfect platform for end to end LMS solutions for corporate and classroom learning. They also deliver customized eLearning solutions for organizations. It also offers web-based learning and mobile learning. vStacks InfoTech provides customer support to all its clients in whichever form that suits the customer.

10. Paradiso Solutions

It provides LMS solutions for corporates, educational institutions, and other training institutions. This LMS for educational institutes allows users to add, remove, edit courses, giving a unique look to your course page. Paradiso Solutions also houses wiki, chat, forums, quizzes, surveys, assignments, etc. LMS for corporates helps to upgrade employee knowledge, add to their skills and help them grow to the next level role with personalized learning. It also helps in skill tracking with online reporting which helps in identifying high-potential, high-delivering employees. It can be accessed from mobile at any time.

      These are the top 10 LMS providers in India. It is always tough to decide when there are many options available. Before choosing any of the LMS compare and evaluate each LMS. Let’s choose the best for a brighter future.

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300+ TOP DBMS Objective Questions and Answers

Database Management System Multiple Choice Questions :-

1) ------- responsible for authorizing access to the database, for co-ordinating and monitoring its use, acquiring software, and hardware resources, controlling its use and  monitoring efficiency of operations. A. Authorization Manager B. Storage Manager C. File Manager D. Transcation Manager E. Buffer Manager 2) ------- is a property that describes various characteristics of an entity A. ER Diagram B. Column C. Relationship D. Attribute 3) -------- level describes what data is stored in the database and the relationships among the data A. Physical Level B. Logical Level C. Conceptual Level D. None of the above 4) ---------- denote derived attributes. A. Double ellipse B. Dashed ellipse C. Squared ellipse D. Ellipse with attribute name underlined 5) A --------- is an association between entities A. Relation B. One to One C. Generalization D. Specialization 6) -------------  stores metadata about the structure of the data base A. Physical data base B. Query Analyzer C. Data Dictionary D. Data Catalog 7) ------------is a collection of operations that perform s single logical function in  a database application A. Transaction B. Concurrent operation C. Atomocity D. Durability 8) The problem that is compounded when constraints involve several data items from different files are Called -------- A. Transaction Control Management Problem B. Security Problem C. Integrity Problem D. Durability Problem 9) Ensuring atomicity is the responsibility of the ------------component A. File Manager B. Buffer Manager C. DBA D. Transation Manager 10) -----manages the allocation of the space on the disk storage and the data base structure  used to represent information stored on disk A. Disk Manager B. File Manager C. Buffer Manager D. Memory Manager E. None of the above

DBMS MCQs 11) is the minimal super key A. Primary Key B. Candidate Key C. Surrogate Key D. Unique Key E. Alternate Key 12) -engine executes low level instructions generated by the DML compilier A. DDL Analyzer B. Query Interpreter C. Database Engine D. None of the above 13) ------------responsible to define the content, the structure, the constraints, and functions or transactions against the database A. Transcation Manager B. Query Analyzer C. DBA D. All the above E. None of the above 14) In  ER model -------------denote  derived attributes A. Double ellipse B. Diamond C. Reactangle D. None of the above 15) Foreign Key can be null A. TRUE B. FALSE 16) All   primary keys should be super keys. A. TRUE B. FALSE 17) In   Relational database  Data is stored as record types and the  relationship is represented by set types A. True B. False 18) In   Hierarchical database to get to a low-level table, you start at the root and work your way down the tree until you reach your target data. A. True B. False 19) Using relational model we design conceptual   database design A. True B. False 20) Conceptual data model is the source of   information   for logical design phase A. True B. False 21) Logical database design describes describes base relations, file organizations, and indexes that are used to achieve efficient access to   data. A. True B. False 22) Conceptual data modeling uses a high level data modeling concept of E-R Models A. True B. False 23) Tables are required to have at least one column A. True B. False 24) Logical data independence. Refers to the separation of the external views from the conceptual view A. True B. False 25) Duplication of data is the disadvantage of DBMS A. True B. False 26) Candidate key can have a null value A. True B. False 27) Each program maintains its own set of data. So users of one program may be unaware of potentially useful data held by other programs  this leads toDuplication of data A. True B. False 28) A traditional database stores just data – with no procedures A. True B. False 29) Simple Attribute  composed of multiple components, each with an independent existence. A. True B. False 30) Cardinality specifies how many instances of an entity relate to one instance of another entity. A. True B. False 31. The ascending order of a data hirerchy is: a. bit-byte-record-field-file-database b. byte-bit-field-record-file-database c. bit-byte-field-record-file-database d. bit-byte-file-record-field-database 32. Which of the following is true of a network structure? a. t is a physical representation of the data b. It allows a many-to-many relationship c. It is conceptually simple d. It will be dominant data base of the future 33. Which of the following is a problem of file management system? a. difficult to update b. lack of data independence c. data redundancy d. program dependence e. all of above 34. One data dictionery software package is called a. DB/DC dictionary b. TOTAL c. ACCESS d. Datapac e. Data Manager 35. The function of a database is … a. to check all input data b. to check all spelling c. to collect and organize input data d. to output data 36. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data? a. High level language b. SQL c. Query Language d. 4GL 37. The model for a record management system might be a. handwritten list b. a Rolodex card file c. a business form d. all of above 38. Primitive operations common to all record management system include a. print b. sort c. look-up d. all of above 39. In a large DBMS a. each user can “see” only a small part of the entire database b. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema c. each user can access every subschema 40. Information can be transferred between the DBMS and a a. spreadsheet program b. word processor program c. graphics program d. all of the above Ques 1: Which of the following fields in a student file can be used as a primary key? a. class b. Social Security Number c. GPA d. Major Question 2: Which of the following is not an advantage of the database approach a. Elimination of data redundancy b. Ability of associate deleted data c. increased security d. program/data independence e. all of the above Question 3: Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a database during a certain period of time? a. report writer b. query language c. data manipulation language d. transaction log e. none of the above Question 4: In the DBMS approach, application programs perform the a. storage function b. processing functions c. access control d. all of the above e. none of the above Question 5: A set of programs that handle a firm’s database responsibilities is called a. database management system (DBMS) b. database processing system (DBPS) c. data management system (DMS) d. all of above Question 6: Which is the make given to the database management system which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio and video? a. full media b. graphics media c. multimedia d. hypertext Question 7: A record management system a. can handle many files of information at a time b. can be used to extract information stored in a computer file c. always uses a list as its model d. both a and b Question 8: A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is a. insert b. modify c. lookup d. none of above Question 9: A transparent DBMS a. can not hide sensitive information from users b. keeps its logical structure hidden from users c. keeps its physical structure hidden from users d. both b and c Question 10: A file produced by a spreadsheet a. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text fromat b. can be used as is by the DBMS c. both a and b d. none of the above Answers: 1.b 2.e 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.c 7.b 8.b 9.c 10.a Ques 1: Which of the following is not true of the traditional approach to information processing a. there is common sharing of data among the various applications b. it is file oriented c. programs are dependent on the file d. it is inflexible e. all of the above are true Question 2: Which of the following hardware component is the most important to the operation of database management system? a. high resolution video display b. printer c. high speed, large capacity disk d. plotter e. mouse Question 3: Generalized database management system do not retrieve data to meet routine request a. true b. false Question 4: Batch processing is appropriate if a. large computer system is available b. only a small computer system is avilbale c. only a few transactions are involved d. all of the above e. none of the above Question 5: Large collection of files are called a. fields b. records c. database d. sectors Question 6: Which of the following is not a relational database? a. dBase IV b. 4th Dimension c. FoxPro d. Reflex Question 7: In order to use a record management system a. you need to understand the low level details of how information is stored b. you need to understand the model the record management system uses c. bother a and b d. none of the above Question 8: Sort/Report generators a. are faster than index/report generators b. require more disk space than indexed/report generators c. do not need to sort before generating report d. both a and b Question 9: If a piece of data is stored in two places in the database, then a. storage space is wasted b. changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency c. in can be more easily accessed d. both and b Question 10: An audit trail a. is used to make backup copies b. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file c. can be used to restore lost information d. none of the aobve Answers: 1.a 2.c 3. b 4.e 5.c 6.d 7.b 8.b 9.d 10.b Ques 1: The relational database environment has all of the following components except a. users b. separate files c. database d. query languages e. database Question 2: Database management systems are intended to a. eliminate data redundancy b. establish relationship among records in different files c. manage file access d. maintain data integrity e. all of the above Question 3: One approach to standardization storing of data? a. MIS b. structured programming c. CODASYL specification d. none of the above Question 4: The language used application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the a. DML b. DDL c. query language d. any of the above e. none of the above Question 5: The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called a. data bank b. data base c. data file d. data record Question 6: Choose the RDBMS which supports full fledged client server application development a. dBase V b. Oracle 7.1 c. FoxPro 2.1 d. Ingress Question 7: Report generators are used to a. store data input by a user b. retrieve information from files c. answer queries d. both b and c Question 8: A form defined a. where data is placed on the screen b. the width of each field c. both a and b d. none of the above Question 9: A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a a. hierarchical schema b. network schema c. relational schema d. all of the above Question 10: The management information system (MIS) structure with one main computer system is called a a. hierarchical MIS structure b. distributed MIS structure c. centralized MIS structure d. decentralized MIS structure Answers: 1.b 2.e 3.c 4.a 5.b 6. b 7.d 8.a 9.a 10.c DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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Types of Software MCQ's | Important Question with answers | Class - 5 Computer | CBSE/ CAIE |

Types of Software MCQ’s | Important Question with answers | Class – 5 Computer | CBSE/ CAIE |

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300+ TOP MANUAL TESTING Objective Questions and Answers

Manual Testing Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:- A. Breadth Test and Depth Test B. Retesting C. Confirmation Testing D. Sanity Testing Ans:  ‘A’ 2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false Ans:  ‘B’ 3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. i. Planning ii. Review Meeting iii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow Up A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi Ans:  ’C’ 4. Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete each task called as Project Scheduling A. True B. False Ans:  A 5. White Box Techniques are also called as :- A. Structural Testing B. Design Based Testing C. Error Guessing Technique D. Experience Based Technique Ans:  ‘A’ 6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class.? A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case. Ans:  ‘B’ 7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level Ans:  ‘A’ 8. Exhaustive Testing is A. Is impractical but possible B. Is practically possible C. Is impractical and impossible D. Is always possible Ans:  ‘A’ 9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase A. Creating test suites from the test cases B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C. Comparing actual results D. Designing the Tests Ans:  ‘D’ 10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique? A. Statement Testing and coverage B. Decision Testing and coverage C. Condition Coverage D. Boundary value analysis Ans:  ‘D’

MANUAL TESTING MCQs 11. A Project risk includes which of the following A. Organizational Factors B. Poor Software characteristics C. Error Prone software delivered. D. Software that does not perform its intended functions Ans:  ‘A’ 12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to : i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false Ans:  ‘B’ 13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester? i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect Ans:  ‘B’ 14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :- A. Explaining the objectives B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles. C. Follow up D. Individual Meeting preparations Ans:  ‘B’ 15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review. A. Moderator. B. Scribe C. Author D. Manager Ans:  ‘B’ 16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :- i. Manager ii. Moderator iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager A. i,ii,iii,iv are true B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false. Ans:  ‘B’ 17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group B. Pre Meeting Preparations C. Formal Follow Up Process D. Includes Metrics Ans:  ‘A’ 18. What can static analysis NOT find? A. the use of a variable before it has been defined B. unreachable (“dead”) code C. memory leaks D. array bound violations Ans:  ‘C’ 19. Incidents would not be raised against: A. requirements B. documentation C. test cases D. improvements suggested by users Ans:  ‘D’ 20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders. A. Security Testing B. Recovery Testing C. Performance Testing D. Functionality Testing Ans:  ‘A’ 21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria? A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. B. Logging the outcome of test execution. C. Assessing if more tests are needed. D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders. Ans:  ‘B’ 22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads. A. Load Testing B. Integration Testing C. System Testing D. Usability Testing Ans:  ‘A’ 23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :- A. System Level Testing B. Integration Level Testing C. Unit Level Testing D. Component Testing Ans:  ‘B’ 24. Static analysis is best described as: A. The analysis of batch programs. B. The reviewing of test plans. C. The analysis of program code. D. The use of black box testing. Ans:  ‘C’ 25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class A. BOOK B. Book C. Boo01k D. book Ans:  ‘C’ 26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting Ans:  ‘A’ 27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :- A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting Ans:  ‘B’ 28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management? A. operating systems B. test documentation C. live data D. user requirement document Ans:  ‘C’ 29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Planning and control C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting Ans:  ‘C’ 30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class. A. 12,16,22 B. 24,27,17 C. 22,23,24 D. 14,15,19 Ans:  ‘C’ 31. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases A. Test Matrix B. Checklist C. Test bed D. Traceability Matrix Ans:  D 32. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as A. Regression Testing B. ReTesting C. Ad hoc Testing D. Sanity Testing Ans:  B 33. Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the stability of a process. A. True B. False Ans:  A 34. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process A. Validation B. Verification C. Quality Assurance D. Quality Control Ans: B 35. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process. A. Validation B. Verification C. Quality Assurance D. Quality Control Ans:  A 36. Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed. A. True B. False Ans:  A 37. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy A. TIM (Testing Improving Model) B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model) C. TQM(Total Quality Management) Ans:  B 38. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand A. Usability Testing B. Security Testing C. Unit testing D. Block Box Testing Ans:  A 39. The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as A. Delivery Document B. Baseline Document C. Checklist Ans:  B 40. What are the Testing Levels? A. Unit Testing B. Integration Testing C. System Testing and Acceptance Testing. D. All the above Ans:  D 41. Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost A. True B. False Ans:  A 42. A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this? A. Pareto Analysis B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram Ans:  B 43. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process. A. Validation B. Verification C. Quality Assurance D. Quality Control Ans:  C 44. Variance from product specifications is called? A. Report B. Requirement C. Defect Ans:  C 45. Verification is A. Process based B. Product based Ans:  A 46. White box testing is not called as___________ A. Glass box testing B. Closed box testing C. OPen box testing D. Clear box testing Ans:  B 47. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as A. Pareto Analysis B. Cause and Effect Diagram C. SWOT Analysis D. Pie Charts Ans:  A 48. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made? A. Full Regression Testing B. Unit Regression C. Regional Regression D. Retesting Ans:  B 49. Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) A. True B. False Ans:  A 50. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as, A. Unit Testing B. Blackbox testing C. White box Testing D. Regression testing Ans:  C MANUAL TESTING Objective type Questions with Answers 51. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used. A. True B. False Ans:  A 52.This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as A. White Box Testing B. Grey Box Testing C. Black Box Testing D. Open Box Testing Ans:  C 53. Phase Definition. It will come under A. CMM Level 1 B. CMM Level 2 C. None Ans:  B 54. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as A. adHoc Testing B. Unit Testing C. Regression testing D. Functional testing. Ans:  A 55. Acceptance testing is known as A. Beta Testing B. Greybox testing C. Test Automation D. White box testing Ans:  A 56. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as? A. Full Regression Testing B. Unit Regression C. Regional Regression D. Retesting Ans:  A 57. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method? A. Black Box testing B. White Box testing Ans:  A 58. It measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process, It applies for particular product & Deals with the product. A. Validation B. Verification C. Quality Assurance D. Quality Control Ans:  D 59. What are the Types of Integration Testing? A. Big Bang Testing B. Bottom Up Testing C. Top Down Testing D. All the above Ans:  D 60. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software. A. True B. False Ans:  A 61. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as A. Process metric B. Product Metric C. Test metrics Ans:  B 62. Which is non-functional software testing? A. Unit Testing B. Block box testing C. Performance Testing D. Regression testing Ans:  C 63. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as? A. Delivery Process B. Testing Process C. Software Process Ans:  C 64. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as A. Regression Testing B. Retesting C. Ad hoc Testing D. Sanity Testing Ans:  A 65. Which is Black-Box Testing method? A. equivalence partitioning B. code coverage C. fault injection Ans:  A 66. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software. A. True B. False Ans:  A 67. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups(stratA.. A. True B. False Ans:  A 68. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing. Is the above statement correct? A. Yes B. No Ans:  B 69. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it. Is the above statement correct? A. Yes B. No Ans:  A 70. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as A. Severity B. Priority C. Fix ability D. Traceability Ans:  B 71. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results. A. True B. False Ans:  A 72. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made? A. Full Regression Testing B. Unit Regression C. Regional Regression D. Retesting. Ans:  C 73. An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under A. Process Metric B. Product Metric C. Test Metric Ans:  C 74. Alpha testing will be done at, A. User's site B. Developers' site Ans:  B 75. SPICE Means A. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination B. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination. C. Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination. D. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination Ans:  A 76. Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution, Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under A. SDLC B. STLC C. SQLC D. BLC Ans:  B 77. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes. A. TIM (Testing Improving Model) B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model) C. TQM(Total Quality Management) Ans:  A 78. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called? A. Confirmation Management B. Confederation Mangement C. Configuration Management D. Compartability Management Ans:  C 79. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths A. True B. False Ans:  A 80. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as A. Block box Testing B. White box Testing C. Grey Box Testing D. Closed Box Testing Ans:  B 81. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system? A. Usability Testing B. User Acceptance Testing C. Alpha Testing D. Beta Testing. Ans:  A 82. Defects generally fall into the following categories? A. WRONG B. MISSING C. EXTRA D. All the above Ans:  D 83. What is correct Software Process Cycle? A. Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D) B. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A) C. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C) Ans:  B 84. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after the system Testing called as A. Functional Testing B. Stress/Load Testing C. Recovery Testing D. Integration Testing Ans:  B 85. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required A. True B. False Ans:  A 86. Beta testing will be done by A. Developer B. User C. Tester Ans:  B 87. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation A. True B. False Ans:  A 88. Integration, It will come under A. CMM Level 1 B. CMM Level 3 C. CMM Level 2 D. None Ans:  B 89. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools. A. True B. False Ans:  A 90. Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting development activities itself A. Water falls model B. Spiral Model C. V-model D. Linear model Ans:  C 91. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as A. Process metric B. Product Metric C. Test metrics Ans:  A 92. Check Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because it differentiates between two extremes. A. True B. False Ans:  A 93. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation testing. A. False B. True Ans:  B 94. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a project. A. False B. True Ans:  B 95. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as A. Severity B. Priority C. Fix ability D. Traceability Ans:  A 96. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources. A. True B. False Ans:  A 97. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new changes A. Recursive testing B. Whitebox testing C. Unit testing D. Regression testing Ans:  D 98. Management and Measurement, It will come under A. CMM Level 1 B. CMM Level 3 C. CMM Level 4 D. CMM Level 2 Ans:  C 99. AdHoc testing is a part of A. Unit Testing B. Regression Tesing C. Exploratory Testing D. Performance Testing Ans:  C 100. Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality. A. True B. False Ans:  A MANUAL TESTING Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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300+ TOP iPHONE APPS Objective Questions and Answers

iPHONE APPS Multiple Choice Questions :-

1) Which of the following apps is a game? A. Remote B. Jenga C. Logmein D. Talkbox Ans: B 2) When you using eggtimer, whilst GPS will work out your altitude on iPod touch A. True B. False Ans: B 3) The iPhone is a line of Internet and multimedia-enabled smartphones designed and marketed by Intel Corporation. A. True B. False Ans: B 4) Which App store has been mentioned in the lesson? A. Samsung Apps B. Nokis Ovi Store C. Blackberry App World D. Google Android Market Ans: B,C,D 5) Which Internet browser is installed on the iPhone/iPad? A. Internet Explorer B. Opera C. Safari D. Firefox E. Google Chrome Ans: C 6) Standard to the iPhone/iPad is a device that allows the user to flip the screen from landscape to portrait mode simply by rotating the phone. By what name is this function better known? A. Nanometer B. Rotating sensor C. Proximity sensor D. Accelerometer Ans: D 7) The iPhone/iPad doesn't require a stylus to use its touch screen, instead it has been specifically designed for use with a finger(s) to touch and drag the screen. What is this technology called? A. TapTouch B. Multi-Touch C. iTouch D. 3DTouch Ans: B 8) In which operating system iPhone/iPad development is done? A. Widows B. Linux C. Mac OS Ans: C 9) What is iPhone's screen resolution? A. 240x320 B. 320x480 C. 480x960 D. 800x600 Ans: B 10) The iPhone/iPad browser supports rendering Flash applets? A. Yes B. No Ans: B

iPHONE APPS MCQs 11) Which company did Apple team up with to provide their iPhone/iPad Map software offering? A. Microsoft B. Google C. Yahoo D. MapQuest Ans: B 12) iPhone applications can be ___________ on a MacBook Pro: A. Developed and debugged B. Debugged C. Developed D. Developed or debugged Ans: A iPHONE APPS Objective type Questions with Answers 13) Besides being based on C, the Objective-C language was derived from a language called __? A. Cocoa B. SmallTalk-80 C. C D. Xcode Ans: B 14) Apple has provided a powerful ___ (SDK) that allows for rapid iPhone/iPad application development. A. Software Development Kit B. Standard Development Kit C. Standard Debugging Kit D. Software Debugging Kit Ans: A 15) The iPhone OS is a version of: A. MS-DOS B. Linux C. Mac OS X D. Windows Mobile 5 Ans: C 16) Which one is NOT a development tool for iPhone/iPad applications? A. The iPhone Simulator B. Xcode C. Interface Builder D. SmallTalk-80 Ans: D 17) OOP stands for? A. Object Owned Programming B. Object Ordered Programming C. Object Oriented Programming Ans: C 18) Which is the latest version of the iPhone OS that is just released? A. Version 2.5 B. Version 5.0 C. Version 3.1 D. Version 6.0 Ans: D 19) Object Oriented Programming (OOP) is a style of programming in which your code is broken up into units, known as A. Objects B. Classes C. Objects or classes D. Objects and classes Ans: D 20) Keeping track of objects you own and releasing them when you're done using them A. Is a dumb idea and a big waste of my time B. Is not a part of a good programming practice C. Is necessary on the iPhone since it does not support garbage collection D. None of the above Ans: C 21) At the start of program execution all subclasses are initialized before the parent class A. True B. False Ans: B 22) The @private directive restricts access to instance variables to methods in the class; subclasses cannot access the variables directly A. True B. False Ans: A 23) If you start a class definition that conforms to a specified protocol, you need to release all the methods you will implement for that protocol in the @interface section. A. True B. False Ans: B 24) int, float, and char are reserved words and examples of Objective-C basic objects. A. True B. False Ans: B iPHONE APPS Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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300+ TOP SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Objective Questions and Answers

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. The most important feature of spiral model is (A) requirement analysis. (B) risk management. (C) quality management. (D) configuration management. Ans: B 2. The worst type of coupling is (A) Data coupling. (B) control coupling. (C) stamp coupling. (D) content coupling. Ans: D 3. IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for (A) Software requirement specification. (B) Software design. (C) Testing. (D) Both (A) and (B) Ans: A 4. One of the fault base testing techniques is (A) unit testing. (B) beta testing. (C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing. Ans: D 5. Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called (A) Preventative maintenance. (B) Adaptive maintenance. (C) Corrective maintenance. (D) Perfective maintenance. Ans: D 6. All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the case of (A) Bottom up testing (B) Top-down testing (C) Sandwich testing (D) Big-Bang testing Ans: D 7. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be (A) correct. (B) unambiguous. (C) consistent. (D) verifiable. Ans: B 8. A fault simulation testing technique is ______. (A) Mutation testing (B) Stress testing (C) Black box testing (D) White box testing Ans: A 9. Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the cohesion is (A) Sequential (B) Communicational (C) Procedural (D) Logical Ans: B 10. If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with (A) Object Oriented Analysis. (B) Object Oriented Design (C) Object Oriented Analysis & Design (D) None of the above Ans: A

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING MCQs 11. SRS is also known as specification of (A) White box testing (B) Stress testing (C) Integrated testing (D) Black box testing Ans: D 12. The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is (A) Evolutionary Development Model (B) Waterfall Model (C) Prototyping (D) Iterative Enhancement Model Ans: A 13. SRD stands for (A) Software requirements definition (B) Structured requirements definition (C) Software requirements diagram (D) Structured requirements diagram Ans: B 14. A COCOMO model is (A) Common Cost Estimation Model. (B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model. (C) Complete Cost Estimation Model. (D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model. Ans: B 15. Which of the following statements is true (A) Abstract data types are the same as classes (B) Abstract data types do not allow inheritance (C) Classes cannot inherit from the same base class (D) Object have state and behaviour Ans: B 16. The desired level of coupling is (A) No coupling (B) Control coupling (C) Common coupling (D) Data coupling Ans: D 17. In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed (A) In the first loop (B) in the first and second loop (C) In every loop (D) before using spiral model Ans: C 18. For a well understood data processing application it is best to use (A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model (C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model Ans: A 19. Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a (A) cause-effect graph (B) dependence matrix (C) Structure chart (D) SRS Ans: B 20. The symbol represents (A) mandatory 1 cardinality (B) mandatory many cardinality (C) optional 0 or 1 cardinality (D) optional zero-many cardinality Ans: D 21. Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product (A) increases. (B) decreases. (C) remains constant. (D) cannot say anything. Ans: A 22. Output comparators are used in (A) static testing of single module (B) dynamic testing of single module (C) static testing of single and multiple module (D) dynamic testing of single and multiple module Ans: D 23. The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is (A) object. (B) class. (C) inheritance. (D) aggregation. Ans: C 24. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is (A) reliability (B) efficiency (C) portability (D) all of the above Ans: B 25. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is (A) verifiable (B) traceable (C) modifiable (D) complete Ans: A SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Objective type Questions with Answers 26. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called (A) adaptive maintenance (B) corrective maintenance (C) perfective maintenance (D) preventive maintenance Ans: A 27. All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of above Ans: A 28. Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of (A) Acceptance testing (B) Integration testing (C) System Testing (D) Unit testing Ans: A 29. An object encapsulates (A) Data (B) Behaviour (C) State (D) Both Data and behaviour Ans: D 30. In function point analysis, number of general system characteristics used to rate the system are (A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 20 (D) 12 Ans: B 31. Aggregation represents (A) is_a relationship (B) part_of relationship (C) composed_of relationship (D) none of above Ans: C 32. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as (A) RE = P/L (B) RE = P + L (C) RE = P*L (D) RE = 2* P *L Ans: C 33. Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are: (A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 28 Ans: B 34. ER model shows the (A) Static view. (B) Functional view. (C) Dynamic view. (D) All the above. Ans: A 35. The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called: (A) CASE Tools (B) CAME tools (C) CAQE tools (D) CARE tools Ans: A 36. Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called (A) Preventive Maintenance (B) Adaptive Maintenance (C) Corrective Maintenance (D) Perfective Maintenance Ans: A 37. Requirements can be refined using (A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model (C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model Ans: B 38. The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product size alone is (A) Basic COCOMO model (B) Intermediate COCOMO model (C) Detailed COCOMO model (D) All the three COCOMO models Ans: A 39. Structured charts are a product of (A) requirements gathering (B) requirements analysis (C) design (D) coding Ans: C 40. The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is (A) bug (B) error (C) risk (D) failure Ans: C 41. The main purpose of integration testing is to find (A) design errors (B) analysis errors (C) procedure errors (D) interface errors Ans: D 42. Pseudocode can replace (A) flowcharts (B) structure charts (C) decision tables (D) cause-effect graphs Ans: A 43. If a program in its functioning has not met user requirements is some way, then it is (A) an error. (B) a failure. (C) a fault. (D) a defect. Ans: D 44. The testing that focuses on the variables is called (A) black box testing (B) white box testing (C) data variable testing (D) data flow testing Ans: A 45. CASE Tool is (A) Computer Aided Software Engineering (B) Component Aided Software Engineering (C) Constructive Aided Software Engineering (D) Computer Analysis Software Engineering Ans: A 46. Software consists of (A) Set of instructions + operating procedures (B) Programs + documentation + operating procedures (C) Programs + hardware manuals (D) Set of programs Ans: B 47. Which is the most important feature of spiral model? (A) Quality management (B) Risk management (C) Performance management (D) Efficiency management Ans: B 48. Which phase is not available in software life cycle? (A) Coding (B) Testing (C) Maintenance (D) Abstraction Ans: D 49. Which is not a step of requirement engineering? (A) Requirements elicitation (B) Requirements analysis (C) Requirements design (D) Requirements documentation Ans: C 50. FAST stands for (A) Functional Application Specification Technique (B) Fast Application Specification Technique (C) Facilitated Application Specification Technique (D) None of the above Ans: C SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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300+ TOP DATABASE TESTING Objective Questions and Answers

DATABASE TESTING Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. RDBMS should focus on: A. Logic only B. Mission Critical Business functionality C. Both A. and B. D. None of the above. Ans: B 2. Database Regression testing can be done: A. Sometimes B. Not required C. Regular basis D. None of the above. Ans: C 3. A process of making a small change to a database schema, which improves its design without changing its semantics is known as A. Refactoring B. Regression testing C. Unit testing D. None of the above Ans: A 4. Regression testing allows an extensive testing of: A. Conceptual level. B. Logical level and physical level C. Conceptual, logical and physical level D. None of the above Ans: C 5. Which of the following is true: A. TDD = TFA + Refactoring B. TDD = TFA - Refactoring C. TDD = TFA D. None of the above Ans: A 6. The copy of a database is called: A. Instance B. Alias C. Sandbox D. None of the above Ans: C 7. A load testing CASE TOOL is: A. SQL Unit B. Rational Suite Test Studio C. Turbo Data D. None of the above Ans: B 8. What type of join is needed when you wish to return rows that do have matching values? A. Equi Join B. Natural Join C. Outer Join D. All of the Above Ans: D 9. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T WHERE CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID = ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID A. Equi Join B. Natural Join C. Outer Join D. Cartesian Join Ans: A 10. How many tables may be included with a join? A. One B. Two C. Three D. All of the Above Ans: D

DATABASE TESTING MCQs 11. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T ; A. Equi Join B. Natural Join C. Outer Join D. Cartesian Join Ans: D 12. Triggers are stored blocks of code that have to be called in order to operate. A. TRUE B. FALSE Ans: B 13. The entity integrity rule states that: A. no primary key attribute may be null. B. no primary key can be composite. C. no primary key may be unique. D. no primary key may be equal to a value in a foreign key Ans: A 14. A foreign key is which of the following? A. Any attribute B. The same thing as a primary key C. An attribute that serves as the primary key of another relation D. An attribute that serves no purpose Ans: C 15. Which of the following is NOT a type of SQL constraint? A. Primary Key B. Foreign Key C. Alternate Key D. Unique Ans: C 16. In which case would you use a FULL OUTER JOIN? A. Both tables have NULL values. B. You want all unmatched data from one table. C. You want all matched data from both tables. D. You want all unmatched data from both tables. E. One of the tables has more data than the other. Ans: D DATABASE TESTING Objective type Questions with Answers 17. "Evaluate this SQL statement: SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME FROM EMP e, DEPARTMENT d WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID; In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?" A. Selection, projection, join B. Difference, projection, join C. Selection, intersection, join D. Intersection, projection, join E. Difference, projection, product Ans: A 18. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system? A Database application and the database B Data and the database C The user and the database application D Database application and SQL Ans: A 19. A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ . A Microsoft SQL Server B MS Access C IBM DB2 D Oracle Corp Ans: B 20. The advantage of using a spreadsheet is ____________ . A. Calculations can be done automatically B. Changing data automatically updates calculations C. More flexibility D. All of the Above Ans: D 21. There are three types of data found in a spreadsheet: A. Numbers, formulas, labels B. Data, words, numbers C. Words, numbers, labels D. Equations, data, numbers Ans: A 22. How we save database file in MS Access 2007 for Ms Access 2000? A Save As MS Access 2000 Database B Save Only C Save Object As Ans: A 23. When creating a new database in Microsoft Access, at what point is the user REQUIRED (i.e., the latest possible time) to name the database file within the Access software program? A After some data has been entered into the tables for that database. B Before the user exits the program, after having completed the desired work. C Before the user creates any tables, immediately after giving the command to create a new database. D After the tables and the relationship layout have been created, but before data is entered into the tables. E After the tables have been created, but before the relationship layout is created Ans: C 24. When creating a database in Microsoft Access _________________. A Referential integrity is only enforced for those relationships for which the database designer or user places a check mark in a box for "enforce referential integrity" during or after creation of the relationships in the relationship layout. B In Access it is impossible to create a table without designating a primary key. C Foreign keys must be specified for each table. D To delete a relationship, simply deleting one of the tables involved in the relationship will do the trick. E All data entry problems will result in error messages Ans: A 25. The view in which the field data types and field properties for a database table can be seen in Microsoft Access is called the __________. A Datasheet View B Design View C SQL View D Dashboard view E Field View Ans: B 26. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following? A. Add B. Create C. Insert D. Make Ans: C 27. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is: A. REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER … B. DROP FROM CUSTOMER … C. DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE … D. UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER … Ans: C 28. What does White box database testing Involves? A. testing of database triggers and logical views B. performs module testing of database functions, triggers, views, SQL queries C. validates database tables, data models, database schema etc D. checks rules of Referential integrity. E. All of the above Ans: E 29. Database Checkpoints are Supported in All Environments. A. TRUE B. FALSE Ans: A 30. Database checkpoint are displayed in the Expert View as a checkpoint. A. Dbtable.checkpoint B. Datatable.check C. Dbtable.check D. Dtable.check Ans: C 31. In the Database checkpoint properties dialogbox, the -------------- displays the data that was captured from the checkpoint A. lotusdb area B. table area C. spreadsheet area D. grid area Ans: D 32. In the Database checkpoint properties dialogbox, you can select to check the ___________. A. entire results set B. specific rows C. specific columns D. specific cells E. All of the above Ans: E 33. Database checkpoint enables you to test database. A. TRUE B. FALSE Ans: A 34. You cannot modify the SQL query Definition and the expected data in the database checkpoint. A. TRUE B. FALSE Ans: B 35. In Database checkpoint properties dialog box, the default setting is to treat cell values as ----------- and to check the exact text while ignoring spaces. A. Numeric B. String C. Variant D. Array Ans: B 36. You can modify the value of the cell or you can parameterize it to use a value from an external source, such as ____________. A. Data table B. Environment Variable C. Both A and B D. None of the above Ans: C 37. What do you need selenium ,with Java to connect to the Database. A. JDK B. JDBC C. JVM D. All of the Above Ans: B DATABASE TESTING Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article