#UGC NET Paper 2 Commerce | Explore Tumblr posts and blogs

toppersexam · 5 years ago

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UGC NET Commerce Books, Question Paper, Free Study Material, MCQ

UGC NET Commerce Books, Question Paper, Free Study Material, MCQ The National Eligibility Test, also known as UGC NET or NTA-UGC-NET, is the test for determining the eligibility for the post of Assistant Professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship award in Indian universities and colleges. UGC NET is considered as one of the toughest exams in India, with success ratio of merely 6%. UGC NET Commerce Question Paper and MCQs Buy the question bank or online quiz of UGC NET Commerce Exam Going through the UGC NET Commerce Exam Question Bank is a must for aspirants to both understand the exam structure as well as be well prepared to attempt the exam. The first step towards both preparation as well as revision is to practice from UGC NET Commerce Exam with the help of Question Bank or Online quiz. We will provide you the questions with detailed answer. UGC NET Commerce Question Paper and MCQs : Available Now UGC NET Commerce Free Study Material : Click Here UGC NET Commerce Books : Click Here UGC NET Commerce Syllabus Unit 1 – Business Environment and International Business Concepts and elements of business environment: Economic environment- Economic systems, Economic policies(Monetary and fiscal policies); Political environment Role of government in business; Legal environment- Consumer Protection Act, FEMA; Socio-cultural factors and their influence on business; Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), Scope and importance of international business; Globalization and its drivers; Modes of entry into international business, Theories of international trade; Government intervention in international trade; Tariff and non-tariff barriers; India’s foreign trade policy, Foreign direct investment (FDI) and Foreign portfolio investment (FPI); Types of FDI, Costs and benefits of FDI to home and host countries; Trends in FDI; India’s FDI policy, Balance of payments (BOP): Importance and components of BOP, Regional Economic Integration: Levels of Regional Economic Integration; Trade creation and diversion effects; Regional Trade Agreements: European Union (EU), ASEAN, SAARC, NAFTA International Economic institutions: IMF, World Bank, UNCTAD, World Trade Organisation (WTO): Functions and objectives of WTO; Agriculture Agreement; GATS; TRIPS; TRIMS Unit 2 – Accounting and Auditing Basic accounting principles; concepts and postulates, Partnership Accounts: Admission, Retirement, Death, Dissolution and Insolvency of partnership firms, Corporate Accounting: Issue, forfeiture and reissue of shares; Liquidation of companies; Acquisition, merger, amalgamation and reconstruction of companies, Holding company accounts, Cost and Management Accounting: Marginal costing and Break-even analysis; Standard costing; Budgetary control; Process costing; Activity Based Costing (ABC); Costing for decision-making; Life cycle costing, Target costing, Kaizen costing and JIT, Financial Statements Analysis: Ratio analysis; Funds flow Analysis; Cash flow analysis, Human Resources Accounting; Inflation Accounting; Environmental Accounting, Indian Accounting Standards and IFRS, Auditing: Independent financial audit; Vouching; Verification ad valuation of assets and liabilities; Audit of financial statements and audit report; Cost audit, Recent Trends in Auditing: Management audit; Energy audit; Environment audit; Systems audit; Safety audit Unit 3 – Business Economics Meaning and scope of business economics, Objectives of business firms, Demand analysis: Law of demand; Elasticity of demand and its measurement; Relationship between AR and MR, Consumer behavior: Utility analysis; Indifference curve analysis, Law of Variable Proportions: Law of Returns to Scale, Theory of cost: Short-run and long-run cost curves, Price determination under different market forms: Perfect competition; Monopolistic competition; Oligopoly- Price leadership model; Monopoly; Price discrimination, Pricing strategies: Price skimming; Price penetration; Peak load pricing Unit 4 – Business Finance Scope and sources of finance; Lease financing, Cost of capital and time value of money, Capital structure, Capital budgeting decisions: Conventional and scientific techniques of capital budgeting analysis, Working capital management; Dividend decision: Theories and policies, Risk and return analysis; Asset securitization, International monetary system, Foreign exchange market; Exchange rate risk and hedging techniques, International financial markets and instruments: Euro currency; GDRs; ADRs, International arbitrage; Multinational capital budgeting Unit 5 – Business Statistics and Research Methods Measures of central tendency, Measures of dispersion, Measures of skewness, Correlation and regression of two variables, Probability: Approaches to probability; Bayes’ theorem, Probability distributions: Binomial, poisson and normal distributions, Research: Concept and types; Research designs, Data: Collection and classification of data, Sampling and estimation: Concepts; Methods of sampling – probability and nonprobability methods; Sampling distribution; Central limit theorem; Standard error; Statistical estimation, Hypothesis testing: z-test; t-test; ANOVA; Chi–square test; Mann-Whitney test (Utest); Kruskal Wallis test (H-test); Rank correlation test, Report writing Unit 6 – Business Management and Human Resource Management Principles and functions of management, Organization structure: Formal and informal organizations; Span of control, Responsibility and authority: Delegation of authority and decentralization Motivation and leadership: Concept and theories, Corporate governance and business ethics, Human resource management: Concept, role and functions of HRM; Human resource planning; Recruitment and selection; Training and development; Succession planning, Compensation management: Job evaluation; Incentives and fringe benefits, Performance appraisal including 360 degree performance appraisal, Collective bargaining and workers’ participation in management, Personality: Perception; Attitudes; Emotions; Group dynamics; Power and politics; Conflict and negotiation; Stress management, Organizational Culture: Organizational development and organizational change Unit 7 – Banking and Financial Institutions Overview of Indian financial system, Types of banks: Commercial banks; Regional Rural Banks (RRBs); Foreign banks; Cooperative banks, Reserve Bank of India: Functions; Role and monetary policy management, Banking sector reforms in India: Basel norms; Risk management; NPA management, Financial markets: Money market; Capital market; Government securities market, Financial Institutions: Development Finance Institutions (DFIs); Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs); Mutual Funds; Pension Funds, Financial Regulators in India, Financial sector reforms including financial inclusion, Digitisation of banking and other financial services: Internet banking; mobile banking; Digital payments systems, Insurance: Types of insurance- Life and Non-life insurance; Risk classification and management; Factors limiting the insurability of risk; Re-insurance; Regulatory framework of insurance- IRDA and its role. Unit 8 – Marketing Management Marketing: Concept and approaches; Marketing channels; Marketing mix; Strategic marketing planning; Market segmentation, targeting and positioning, Product decisions: Concept; Product line; Product mix decisions; Product life cycle; New product development, Pricing decisions: Factors affecting price determination; Pricing policies and strategies, Promotion decisions: Role of promotion in marketing; Promotion methods – Advertising; Personal selling; Publicity; Sales promotion tools and techniques; Promotion mix, Distribution decisions: Channels of distribution; Channel management, Consumer Behaviour; Consumer buying process; factors influencing consumer buying decisions, Service marketing, Trends in marketing: Social marketing; Online marketing; Green marketing; Direct marketing; Rural marketing; CRM, Logistics management. Unit 9: Legal Aspects of Business Indian Contract Act, 1872: Elements of a valid contract; Capacity of parties; Free consent; Discharge of a contract; Breach of contract and remedies against breach; Quasi contracts, Special contracts: Contracts of indemnity and guarantee; contracts of bailment and pledge; Contracts of agency, Sale of Goods Act, 1930: Sale and agreement to sell; Doctrine of Caveat Emptor; Rights of unpaid seller and rights of buyer, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881: Types of negotiable instruments; Negotiation and assignment; Dishonour and discharge of negotiable instruments, The Companies Act, 2013: Nature and kinds of companies; Company formation; Management, meetings and winding up of a joint stock company, Limited Liability Partnership: Structure and procedure of formation of LLP in India, The Competition Act, 2002: Objectives and main provisions, The Information Technology Act, 2000: Objectives and main provisions; Cyber crimes and penalties, The RTI Act, 2005: Objectives and main provisions, Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) : Patents, trademarks and copyrights; Emerging issues in intellectual property, Goods and Services Tax (GST): Objectives and main provisions; Benefits of GST; Implementation mechanism; Working of dual GST. Unit 10: Income-tax and Corporate Tax Planning Income-tax: Basic concepts; Residential status and tax incidence; Exempted incomes; Agricultural income; Computation of taxable income under various heads; Deductions from Gross total income; Assessment of Individuals; Clubbing of incomes, International Taxation: Double taxation and its avoidance mechanism; Transfer pricing, Corporate Tax Planning: Concepts and significance of corporate tax planning; Tax avoidance versus tax evasion; Techniques of corporate tax planning; Tax considerations in specific business situations: Make or buy decisions; Own or lease an asset; Retain; Renewal or replacement of asset; Shut down or continue operations, Deduction and collection of tax at source; Advance payment of tax; E-filing of income-tax returns. NTA UGC NET Commerce Exam Pattern 2020 1. Paper I : It consists of 50 questions from UGC NET teaching & research aptitude exam (general paper), which you have to attempt in 1 hour. 2. Paper II : The UGC Commerce exam (paper 2) will have 100 questions and the total duration will be two hours. Each question carries 2 marks, so the exam will be worth 200 marks. Read below to know the pattern of NET Commerce examination (part II). Exam HighlightsDetails Test Duration120 minutes Total Questions100 Marks per question2 Total Marks200 Negative MarkingN/A Free Mock Test UGC NET Commerce : Click Here Online Test Series UGC NET Commerce : Click Here #UGCNETCommerce #UGCNETCommerce2020 #UGCNETCommerceExam #FreeTestSeries #QuestionsBank #UGCNETCommerceSyllabus #OnlineTestSeries #OnlineMockTest #ImportantQuestionPaper #ImportantQuestion

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letstcsacademy-blog · 6 years ago

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How is CBSE related to CTET?

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts the CTET exam.

What is the role of CTET in recruitment of a teacher?

CTET clearance is compulsory for candidates who wish to teach in Central schools of India. However, clearing the exam doesn’t guarantee a teaching job. There are many other factors on which appointment is dependent.

How many times CTET conducted in a year?

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What is the mode of conduct for CTET examination?

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What is the applicability of CTET ?

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Schools owned and managed by the State Government/local bodies and aided schools shall consider the TET conducted by the State Government. However, a State Government can also consider the CTET if it decides not to conduct the State TET.

What is the validity period of CTET certificate?

The Validity Period of CTET qualifying certificate for appointment will be 7 years from the date of declaration of its result for all categories.

Is there any restriction on the number of attempts of CTET exam?

There is no restriction on the number of attempts a person can take for acquiring a CTET Certificate. A person who has qualified CTET may also appear again for improving his/her score.

How to apply for the CTET exam?

A student can apply online for CTET through its official website link: ctet.nic.in and complete the online registration.

What is the duration given for online registration of CTET form?

The online registration opens usually 4 months before the examination date and lasts up to 1 month.

What is the examination fee for CTET?

CATEGORY Only Paper – I or II Both Paper – I & II

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SC/ST/Differently Abled Person Rs.300/- Rs.500/-

What are the qualifying marks and award of CTET certificate?

The candidates appearing in CTET will be issued Marks Statement. The Candidates securing 60% and above marks will be issued Eligibility Certificate.School Managements (Government, Local bodies, Government aided and unaided) may consider giving concessions to person belonging to SC/ST, OBC, differently abled persons, etc., in accordance with their extant reservation policy. Qualifying the CTET would not confer a right on any person for recruitment/employment as it is only one of the eligibility criteria for appointment.

What are the career opportunities after clearing CTET?

CTET cleared students can apply individually to various government schools for teacher’s job.

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ugcnetpaper · 2 years ago

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Frequently Asked Questions – UGC NET

Introduction:

Are you planning to appear for the UGC NET exam? Are you seeking answers to common queries and concerns regarding the UGC NET examination? Look no further! In this comprehensive blog, we have compiled a list of frequently asked questions (FAQs) related to UGC NET to address all your doubts and provide you with the necessary information.

The UGC NET (University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test) is a highly esteemed examination conducted in India to determine the eligibility of candidates for the role of Assistant Professor and for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF). It serves as a gateway for individuals aspiring to pursue a career in academia and research. With its vast scope and diverse subjects, UGC NET can seem overwhelming, especially for first-time test-takers.

To ease your journey toward success in the UGC NET, we have compiled a comprehensive list of FAQs that cover various aspects of the exam. Whether you are curious about the eligibility criteria, exam pattern, syllabus, or preparation strategies, this blog has got you covered. We have answered these frequently asked questions in detail to ensure you have a solid understanding of the UGC NET examination.

By going through this blog, you will gain valuable insights into the intricacies of UGC NET and be well-equipped to navigate the exam confidently. So, let's dive into the frequently asked questions and unlock the essential information you need to excel in the UGC NET examination!

Q1:- What is UGC NET?

A1:- UGC NET is a national-level eligibility test conducted in India to determine the eligibility of candidates for the role of Assistant Professor and for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF). Candidates can qualify for this exam by taking the help of some of the best UGC NET Books.

Q2:- How to apply for UGC NET?

A2:-To apply for UGC NET, candidates need to visit the official website of the National Testing Agency (NTA) and fill out the online application form. They should provide personal details, educational qualifications, choose the desired exam centre, upload necessary documents, and pay the application fee.

Q3:- What is the qualification needed for UGC NET?

A3:- Candidates must have a postgraduate degree or its equivalent from a recognized university, with a minimum of 55% aggregate marks (50% for reserved categories). A relaxation of 5% is given to Ph.D. holders, OBC-NCL, SC, ST, PwD, and transgender candidates.

Q4:- What are the subjects for which the entrance exam is conducted?

A4:- The UGC NET exam is conducted for various subjects across disciplines. Some of the popular subjects for which the UGC NET entrance exam is conducted include:

PAPER 1 includes:

General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I)

PAPER 2 includes:

Economics / Rural Economics /Cooperation / Demography / Development Planning/ Development Studies / Econometrics/Applied

Economics/Development Eco./Business Economics

Political Science

Philosophy

Psychology

Sociology

History

Anthropology

Commerce

Education

Social Work

Defence and Strategic Studies

Home Science

Public Administration

Population Studies

Music

Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing/ Marketing Mgt./Industrial Relations and Personnel Mgt./ Personnel Mgt./Financial Mgt./Co-operative Management)

Maithili

Bengali

Hindi

Kannada

Malayalam

Oriya

Punjabi

Sanskrit

Tamil

Telugu

Urdu

Arabic

English

Linguistics

Chinese

Dogri

Nepali

Manipuri

Assamese

Gujarati

Marathi

French (French Version)

Spanish

Russian

Persian

Rajasthani

German

Japanese

Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education.

Physical Education

Arab Culture and Islamic Studies

Indian Culture

Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management

Law

Library and Information Science

Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies

Comparative Study of Religions

Mass Communication and Journalism

Performing Art - Dance/Drama/Theatre

Museology & Conservation

Archaeology

Criminology

Tribal and Regional Language/Literature

Folk Literature

Comparative Literature

Sanskrit traditional subjects (including) Jyotisha/Siddhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darshan/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasastha/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).

Women Studies

Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art) Geography

Social Medicine & Community Health

Forensic Science

Pali

Kashmiri

Konkani

Computer Science and Applications

Electronic Science

Environmental Sciences

Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence/Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, South East Asian Studies, African Studies, South Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.

Prakrit

Human Rights and Duties

Tourism Administration and Management.

Bodo

Santali

Yoga

Sindhi

Hindu Studies

Indian Knowledge System

Q5:- How many papers are there in the UGC NET exam?

The UGC NET examination consists of two papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2. Here's a breakdown of the papers:

Paper 1: This is a general paper designed to assess the teaching and research aptitude of the candidates. It consists of 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) worth 2 marks each. Candidates need to attempt all 50 questions. This paper is common for all subjects.

Paper 2: This paper is subject-specific and tests the knowledge and expertise of the candidates in their chosen subject. It consists of 100 MCQs worth 2 marks each. Candidates need to attempt all 100 questions.

Q6:- What is the validity of the UGC NET electronic certificate?

A6:- The validity of the UGC NET electronic certificate is forever.

Q7: Can UGC NET be cracked in the first attempt?

A7:-Yes, it is possible to crack UGC NET in the first attempt with dedicated preparation, a thorough study of the syllabus, and consistent practice of previous year question papers.

Q8:- Is UGC NET conducted in online or offline mode?

A8:- UGC NET has only been conducted in online mode as a computer-based test (CBT) since NTA began conducting the exam.

Q9:- Can I appear for UGC NET in multiple subjects?

A9:- Candidates can appear for the UGC NET exam in multiple subjects, but not simultaneously. If a candidate has completed their Master's degree in multiple subjects, they can apply for the UGC NET exam in those subjects. However, they must apply in different cycles, namely the June and December cycles of the UGC NET exam.

Q10:- Is there any negative marking in UGC NET?

A10:- UGC NET exam does not have a negative marking scheme. The candidates are awarded for correct answers but no mark deductions are made for incorrect answers.

Conclusion: In conclusion, this FAQ guide has provided valuable insights and answers to common queries about the UGC NET exam. Armed with this knowledge, you can approach your preparation with confidence. Remember to understand the exam pattern, and syllabus, and focus on both UGC NET Paper 1 and Paper 2. Utilise resources like previous year's question papers, study materials, and online mock tests to enhance your readiness. Stay consistent, maintain a disciplined study routine, and seek guidance whenever needed. With determination and hard work, you can excel in the UGC NET exam, open doors to academic opportunities, and embark on a rewarding career in teaching and research. Best of luck!

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easynotes4u · 1 year ago

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Start Preparing for NTA UGC NET Paper 1, Paper 2 Commerce & Management | Books | Notes & Study Material

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chandanmaantech · 2 years ago

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Bharathiar University Distance Admission 2023

Bharathiar Institution is a public institution located in Coimbatore, the state capital of Tamil Nadu in southern India. The great Tamil poet Subramanya Bharathiar is honored by the name of the Bharathiar University Distance Education. In accordance with the University Act of 1981, the UGC was formally founded in February 1982, although it wasn't given official recognition until 1985.

The organization's silver anniversary celebration was held on February 24, 2007, and M. Karunanidhi, the current chief minister of Tamil Nadu, and APJ Abdul Kalam, the former president of India, participated. With the slogan "educate to raise," the university distinguishes itself from competing universities.

Students who have finished their schooling through the 11+1/10+2/10+3 or 10+ Diploma Program are eligible for admission to UG and diploma programs.

Candidates for admission to the postgraduate program must have earned their 11+1+3/ 10+3+3/ 10+2+3 degrees from an accredited institution or university that is recognized by the Indian Education Authorities.

Bharathiar University Distance Education Admission 2023 spot admission, re-admittance, dual enrollment, lateral entry, and round-year admission.

Bharathiar University Distance Education Courses

Bharathiar University Distance Education courses in graduate, postgraduate, and certificate programs in the humanities, sciences, and business. Below is a list of courses along with information on who each is appropriate for.

BBA: The three-year bachelor of business administration (BBA) program at Bharathiar University Distance Courses has concentrations in front desk and customer service management, retail management, healthcare management, and shipping administration.

BCom: The Bachelor of Commerce, usually known as B.com, is a three-year curriculum that emphasizes computer applications heavily.

MBA: The two-year Bharathiar University Distance MBA program offers specializations in business administration fields like marketing, operations management, corporate communication, accounting, and finance, among others.

M.Com. is the name of a two-year degree with a concentration on computer applications.

Bharathiar University Distance Education Admission

Prospective students merely need to complete a few easy procedures for the Bharathiar University distance admission process.

Here are the primary procedures for both conventional and online admissions.

a presentation

1. Intended for Online Admission:

Students can apply directly to the course of their choice by visiting the university website if the school allows online applications. The INR 150 application cost must be paid in the first stage using one of the many available online payment methods (Net Banking, UPI, Credit/Debit Card, etc.).

This option is provided for offline admission in the case that an applicant, for instance, does not have access to internet services. Rarely, the application form may be delivered to the student by mail or picked up on campus.

For the application form to be picked up directly from the college, students must pay an application fee of INR 150; for it to be mailed to them, they must pay an extra INR 200. Both transactions call for demand draughts (DD).

2. Send your finished application.

Students must submit their online applications using the aforementioned website. the straightforward guidelines listed below must then be followed:

Candidates have a choice of programs and courses during this procedure. Verify their transcripts to verify if they possess the required academic qualifications.

Supplying the Candidate with the Vital Background Information

Check to see if the mobile number and email address are still in use.

Form for Concession Request Correspondence: Social Data and Address Information

3. Online enrollment

If a student wants to apply for admission offline, they must get an application form, fill it out, attach copies of the necessary papers, and mail the finished form and their DD.

Admission Assurance

Following payment of the course cost and upload of the necessary admissions documentation, the institution sends a candidate an SMS to confirm their provisional admission.

After downloading their ID card online, students can activate their access to the university.

Bharathiar University Distance Education Eligibility

Students must have successfully passed their 10+2 exams from a recognized board in any stream to be eligible for undergrad. First-come, first-served selections will be made according to the merit list.

The TANCET scores are used to determine who gets accepted into the two-year MCA and MBA programs. Furthermore, the university offers entrance exams for its MCA program. Candidates must have a bachelor's degree in the relevant field and a grade point average of at least 50% in order to be considered.

For admission to the MSW program, candidates must have an undergraduate degree in the relevant discipline from an institution of higher education and a minimum GPA of 55%.

Candidates for the MCom program must hold a bachelor's degree in the pertinent field from an accredited university or college and have a minimum cumulative GPA of 55%.

A UG degree from an approved university in the relevant field and a minimum cumulative GPA of 55% are requirements for admission to MA programs.

Bharathiar University Distance Education Fee Structure

Bharathiar University Distance Education fee is quite reasonable and accessible. And it offers a selection of courses for less than 50,000 INR, which is reasonable pricing. There will be more applicants and students who can pay for the classes. Due to the possibility of yearly installment payments, the overall cost of tuition is kept from being excessively burdensome on students' financial resources.

Conclusion

Bharathiar University Distance Education is one of the most well-known and esteemed universities in the world for students interested in distance learning. The college receives a lot of applicants from various states.

By using the above-mentioned search terms, you can get the answers to all of your questions regarding the institution on the blog. On my website, I think you'll discover some useful information.

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sam12dd · 3 years ago

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How Focusing on History Can Help You Ace UGC Net paper-2

The history paper of the UGC net exam has always been one of the most important as well as one of the toughest papers students are asked to write every year. If you are one of those students who have been struggling with this section, there might be a simple reason why your scores in this paper aren’t going up-you’re not focusing on it enough. In this article, we are going to explain how you can do better on UGC net paper-2 by focusing more on this subject and less on others. So, let’s get started!

Understanding the past helps you make sense of the present:

History is the study of how humanity has evolved over the centuries, and it can provide us with a sense of direction for the future. History can also help you understand how people reacted in certain situations, giving you valuable insight into the way people will act today. In the UGC NET Paper-2 exam, which is conducted by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), students are required to know and analyse history to answer questions based on their understanding. This means that if you know India's past, then you are more likely to ace this examination. It is therefore advisable for aspirants to focus on history as an area of interest during their academic career.

A strong foundation in history can help In UGC NET:

A strong foundation in history can help you ace your UGC NET exam. History is the study of past events, and it's not just about memorizing dates. History teaches us how to understand our present by learning from the past. Studying history will give you insight into why things are happening the way they are today and show you how to make sense of current events. It will also help you put current events into context.

why Remembering History is more difficult?

History, being the story of how we got here, was always meant to be a difficult subject. It's hard to remember things that happened in the past when they were never given the same gravity as what is happening now and isn't it so much more important that you know where you are right now? Memory loss and other lapses in learning are natural parts of ageing - so why should anyone expect people in their later years to remember history as easily as younger ones? Historical memory does seem like a thing of the past and for most people, ignorance about world history is just accepted as one of those things that seems unimportant. However, if you're sitting for UGC NET Paper 2 in 2021, knowledge about history will suddenly seem like a very important thing.

4.A Historical perspective can improve your writing skills

History not only helps us better understand ourselves, but it also improves writing skills that can be applied to the UGC NET exam. A historian's ability to think about past events analytically and critically requires a knowledge of various historical contexts to avoid presentism, or looking at the past with the worldviews and preconceptions of the present. In this way, studying history helps our analytical skills which are a necessary component for UGC NET paper-2 success.

Why is History a High priority in the UGC NET exam Paper 2?

History is a subject that covers past events, so if you're preparing for the UGC NET exam Paper 2, it's important to include your history knowledge in your preparation. The UGC NET exam Paper-2 has a question type called Integrated Questions. These are questions where you need to answer two or more questions based on the same topic. These questions can be about geography, economic development, and history.

Conclusion:

Even though History is a Typical subject don’t try to learn everything by yourself. The focus comes from the environment so choose the perfect environment to stay focused on your goal. In your case choosing the perfect coaching centre will help a lot. I recommend vvl courses. in one of the best UGC net coaching centres for commerce subjects and many more. start with great values and successfully make candidates crack the UGC NET Exam the award-winning institute provides 130+ topics from Basics to advance. check out their site immediately.

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netcommercemocktest-blog · 8 years ago

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CBSE UGC NET Commerce Paper-2 Mock Test December 2015

For CBSE UGC NET Commerce Paper-2 Mock Test December 2015 . . . Kindly visit the webpage @ http://www.mocktests.net/cbse-ugc-net-commerce-paper-2-december-2015-mock-test/

#cbse #ugc #net #commerce #paper-2 #mock test #december 2015

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lazykoalacollectionblog · 3 years ago

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NTA UGC NET PAPER1 DECEMBER 2021 | Solved With Explanation

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/nta-ugc-net-paper1-december-2021-solved-with-explanation/

NTA UGC NET PAPER1 DECEMBER 2021 | Solved With Explanation

This extract of Paper1 Question is the OFFICIAL Question Paper asked in Commerce Subject (Shared by Students During Answer Key Review) & Answer Key for the UGC NET December 2021 Paper taken from www.ugcnet.nta.nic.in.

UGC-NET is an exam directed by the National Testing Agency, twice a year, However, due to an unsolicited pandemic, it was accomplished once a year for two consecutive years i.e 2020 and 2021. The students, as well as teachers, glimpsed a significant hike in the level of questions asked by UGC-NET.

They are undoubtedly in demand of students who comprehend every concept and can manage pressure within a restricted time frame. My friends, trust me gone are the days when you can clear the UGC net exam just by stuffing a few concepts. Now UGC-NET wants you to understand each idea so that only the well-deserved can qualify.

Question #1 – Which region of the brain is involved in our ability to learn new information, particularly if it is verbal?

Cerebrum

Hippocampus

Pons

Thalamus

Correct Answer:‐ Cerebrum Explanation– See, Many questions asked by ugc-net are very irrelevant. You can not answer each and every question irrespective of how much you study. So, don’t pay attention to these questions. Always focus on what you know and just make sure you don’t mark them incorrectly. Cerebrum– The largest part of the brain. It is divided into two hemispheres, or halves called the cerebral hemispheres. Areas within the cerebrum control muscle functions and also control speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. Question #2- mooKIT platform uses _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _, an open-source content management system.

DRUPAL

JOOMLA

SAKAI

Moodle

Correct Answer:‐ DRUPAL

Question #3- INFLIBNET Centre, which is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintains

Swayam Prabha

e‐Pathshala

e‐Gyankosh

Shodhganga

Correct Answer:‐ Swayam Prabha Explanation- Information and Library Network Centre is an organisation that promotes and facilitates libraries and information resources for Indian further education. Its premises are in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The Centre started in March 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics. This is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintained by Swayam Prabha which is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resources Development to provide 32 High-Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to home).

Question #4- Given below are two statements

Statement I: According to Piaget, the ability to solve conservation problems depends on having an understanding of three basic aspects of reasoning: identity, compensation, and reversibility.

Statement II: The stage of classification does not depend on a student’s ability to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set and group the objects according to that characteristic.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions. Jean William Fritz Piaget was a Swiss psychologist known for his work on child development. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development and epistemological view are together called “genetic epistemology”. Piaget placed great importance on the education of children

Question #5- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes ________________.

A. Immediate family

B. School

C. Beliefs

D. Customs

E. Neighbourhood

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, C and E only

3. A, B and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes Immediate family, School, and Beliefs

Question #6- Which one of the following is an important characteristic of the researchers involved in a qualitative study?

Non‐partisan

Reflexivity

Transparency

Enthusiasm

Correct Answer:‐ Non‐partisan Explanation- Quantitative studies– is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies. It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts. The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

Question #76 – Some of the types of hypothesis are as follows:

A. Descriptive

B. Null

C. Confounding

D. Intervening

E. Explanatory (Causal)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B and D only

4. A, B and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research. Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.

Question #8- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will meet during the study.

Statement II: Through exploration, researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #9- Survey research is based on one of the following?

1. Constructivism

2. Interpretivism

3. Positivism

4. Hermeneutics

Correct Answer:‐ Constructivism Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research

Positivism– it was the era in which science started advancing and people started believing in science and logic behind everything and they accepted that everything is because of science and everything can be proved on the basics of facts. Only objectivity mattered to them. Human beings were the centre for them.

Post positivist- We can say post-positivists were a mixture of both. They believed in science with the acceptance that everything is not in the hands of human beings. there are some higher powers. Everything cannot be proved with objectivity. So they were both subjective and objective with their approach. They were realistic and accepted their own limitations. Hence, post-positivists were realistic in their approach.

Question #10- Which among the following are non‐parametric statistics?

A. t‐test

B. F‐test

C. Spearman’s rank-order correlation

D. Mann‐Whitney‐Wilcoxon test

E. Kendall coefficient of concordance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. B, D and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- Nonparametric statistics is the branch of statistics that is not based solely on parametrized families of probability distributions. Nonparametric statistics are based on either being distribution-free or having a specified distribution but with the distribution’s parameters unspecified.

Question #11 – ________ messages have more or less the same meaning for the audience.

1. Denotative

2. Complex

3. Connotative

4. Abstract

Correct Answer:‐ Denotative Explanation- In linguistics and philosophy, the denotation of an expression is its literal meaning. For instance, the English word “warm” denotes the property of being warm. Denotation is contrasted with other aspects of meaning including connotation

Question #12- Which one of the following is an example of a technological barrier in communication?

1. Physical locations of communicators

2. Low bandwidth of internet

3. Personal attitude towards technology

4. Complexity of ideas

Correct Answer:‐ Physical locations of communicators

Explanation- See, in many questions asked by UGC net, you can’t do it by applying formulas, especially in paper 1. In many questions, you only have to use your common sense,

Let’s say in the above question you can solve this answer by using your common sense and all you need to have is a little information about what topic they are asking. In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #13- The communication among persons working at different levels who have no direct reporting relationship is called: 1. Intrapersonal communication

2. Upward communication

3. Horizontal communication

4. Diagonal communication

Correct Answer:‐ Intrapersonal communication

Explanation– communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. Barriers are those things that act as hurdles in communication and are called barriers to communication. There are many different types of barriers. As we can see in the above-given options these culture, power and time are not any physical traits. Intrapersonal Communication- the communication which we do with ourselves is called intrapersonal communication. There is no involvement of any other person. Like- diary writing, stream of consciousness, spirits talks and most important even once asked by ugc net is Dreams. Dreams are also part of intrapersonal communication.

Intrapersonal communication is the process by which an individual communicates within themselves, acting as both sender and receiver of messages, and encompasses the use of unspoken words to consciously engage in self-talk and inner speech.

Question #14- Marshall Mcluhan’s name is associated with the assertion:

1. The message is the medium

2. The medium is the message

3. The message determines the medium accurately

4. A message is a message

Correct Answer:‐ The message is the medium Explanation- Herbert Marshall McLuhan CC was a Canadian philosopher whose work is among the cornerstones of the study of media theory. He studied at the University of Manitoba and the University of Cambridge.

Question #15- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In classroom communication, teachers should acknowledge and take into account students’ views.

Reason R: In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by establishing a viewpoint.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

Question #16- How many terms are there in the series 168, 175, 182,_ _ _ _, 266?

1. 13

2. 14

3. 15

4. 16

Correct Answer:‐ 13 Explanation- First of all you should try to take the differences. If the first difference does not give anything significant, you can go for the second difference i.e. the difference of the differences.

Question #17- Given below are two statements

Statement I: The compound interest on ₹280 for 18 months at 10 % per annum is ₹44.3.

Statement II: At a 5.6 % rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question #18- The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 11, then the average of the new set of numbers is:

1. 82

2. 72

3. 78

4. 77

Correct Answer:‐ 82 Explanation- For your reference, The mean of 10 numbers is 7 If each number is multiplied by 12 then the mean of the new set of numbers is a Total of 10 numbers =10×7=70… If each number is multiplied by 12… New Total =70×12 divide by 10= 84

Question #19 – Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

1. 65/80

2. 11/16

3. 5/8

4. 29/40

Correct Answer:‐ 65/80 Explanation– To compare the fractions, first of all, we go with the denominator. If the denominator is the same as all the fractions then we will compare only the numerator. The fraction that has the smallest numerator will be the smallest fraction.

Question #20- A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of ₹71. The number of 20 paise coins is 20

1. 144

2. 124

3. 200

4. 125

Correct Answer:‐ 124 For your reference, see this example and then try to solve this question. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs. 71. The number of 25-paise coins is? Let there are n 25 paise coins. So n×25+(324-n)20=7100, or 25n-20n=7100-6480=620, or 5n=620, n=620÷5=124. So there are 124 numbers of 25 paise coins.

Question #21- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Truth and Falsehood are predicates of Arguments

Statement II: Validity and Invalidity are predicates of Statements In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Explanation– An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.

Question #22- Identify the fallacy committed in the argument: Some birds are not beautiful creatures. All dogs are beautiful creatures. Therefore, no dogs are birds.

1. Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term

2. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term

3. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term

4. Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

Correct Answer:‐ Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term Explanation– Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises. As we see, fallacies can be committed in many ways, but usually, they involve either a mistake in reasoning or the creation of some illusion that makes a bad argument appear good or bad (either). An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive. Ethos- Ethos is an argument that appeals to ethical authority or credibility.[ ] Pathos- pathos is an argument that appeals to emotions. Fallacies are usually divided into two groups: Formal and Informal Groups.

Question #23– If ‘All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of the following options can be validly inferred from it?

A. ‘No men is mortal’ is False

B. ‘Some men are mortal’ is True

C. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is True

D. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is False

E. ‘Some men are mortal’ is False

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, B, C and D only

4. B, C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Question #24- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: According to Naiyāyikas, the fallacy of Savyabhicāra occurs when the middle term leads to different opposite conclusions.

Reason R: When the middle term is irregular, it is distributively not related to the major term.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question #25- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

Correct Answer:‐ A-III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

Question #26- The number of characters in 8-bit ASCII code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange)

1. 64

2. 128

3. 256

4. 512

Correct Answer:‐ 64

Question #27- The Post Office protocol is

1. Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer

2. Protocol used to handle email attachments

3. Protocol used when receiving emails from the email server

4. Protocol used for sending emails

Correct Answer:‐ Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer Explanation- The post office protocol (POP) is the most commonly used message request protocol in the Internet world for transferring messages from an e-mail server to an e-mail client. With POP3, the e-mail client requests new messages from the e-mail server, and the server “pops” all new messages out to the client.

Question #28- Given below are two statements regarding the Router

Statement I: It enables data packets to be routed between different networks.

Statement II: It works in the Data Link Layer.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true Explanation– A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

Question #29- Following are some statements regarding File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Choose the correct statements

A. It is used to access the world wide web (www)

B. It is used to download data from file servers

C. It is used for very small files

D. Files are transferred from one device to another

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. B and D only

4. B and C only

Correct Answer:‐ A and B only Explanation- The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard Communication Protocol used for the transfer of Computer Files from a server to a client on a Computer Network. FTP is built on a client-server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server. FTP users may authenticate themselves with a clear-text sign-in protocol, normally in the form of a username and password, but can connect anonymously if the server is configured to allow it. For secure transmission that protects the username and password, and encrypts the content,

Question #30- The number of Sustainable Development Goals is

1. 13

2. 15

3. 17

4. 19

Correct Answer:‐ 13 Explanation- The Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all”. The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by 2030.

Question #31- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen dioxide NO is produced from polluting sources

Statement II: Most of the atmospheric NO is produced due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question #32- Which of the following water-borne diseases may be caused by viruses, bacteria and protozoa?

1. Cholera

2. Hepatitis

3. Typhoid

4. Diarrhea

Correct Answer:‐ Cholera Explanation- Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhoea and dehydration. Left untreated, cholera can be fatal within hours, even in previously healthy people. Modern sewage and water treatment have virtually eliminated cholera in industrialized countries.

Question #33- United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) was the result of deliberations held during

1. Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972

2. Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro in 1992

3. Montreal Protocol 1987

4. Kyoto Protocol 1997

Correct Answer:‐ Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972 Explanation– The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading environmental authority in the United Nations system. UNEP uses its expertise to strengthen environmental standards and practices while helping implement environmental obligations at the country, regional and global levels. UNEP’s mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations. UNEP re-organised its work programme into six strategic areas as part of its move to results-based management. The selection of six areas of concentration was guided by scientific evidence, the UNEP mandate and priorities emerging from global and regional forums.

Question #34- Which of the following states has maximum installed wind power as per MNRE’s latest report?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Maharashtra

Correct Answer:‐ Andhra Pradesh

Question- #35 Global Citizenship Education promotes

1. Common international laws for global citizenship

2. Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries involving VISA

3. International public relations

4. More peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and sustainable societies

Correct Answer:‐ Common international laws for global citizenship Explanation- Global Citizenship Education inspires and empowers individuals to Reflect on their biases and assumptions. Value diversity and inclusion. Develop a greater understanding of countries, communities, and cultures around the world; events shaping our world.

Question- #36 CBCS is

1. Criteria-Based Choice System

2. Choice-Based Credit System

3. Criteria-Based Creditable Scores

4. Credit-Based Choice Scores

Correct Answer:‐ CHOICE BASED CREDIT SYSTEM (CBCS): Explanation- The CBCS provides an opportunity for the students to choose courses from the prescribed courses comprising core, elective/minor or skill-based courses. The courses can be evaluated following the grading system, which is considered to be better than the conventional marks system.

Question #37- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans require sound database systems at the regional level only.

Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its impeccability with data architecture, security, quality, cleaning and integration.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question #38- Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI (Higher Education Commission of India). Which of the following are verticals of HECI?

A. NHERC

B. NAS

C. HEGC

D. NCIVE

E. NAC

Question- Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and E only

3. A, C and E only

4. C, D and E only

Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Question #39- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

4. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Correct Answer:‐ A-II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

Question 40 – Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Leadership studies are an emergent discipline, and the concept of leadership will continue to change. Leadership lore is defined as an influence relationship among leaders and followers who want real change and outcomes that reflect their shared purpose. Leadership involves influence. It occurs among people; those people who intentionally desire significant changes, and the changes reflect purpose shared by the leaders and their followers. Influence means that the relationship among people is not passive; however, also part of this definition is that influence is multidirectional. It does not use orders or threats to make somebody do something. The basic cultural values in America make it easiest to think of leadership as something a leader does to a follower. However, leadership has an effect in both directions. In most organizations, superiors influence subordinates, but subordinates also influence superiors. The people involved in the relationship want real and important changes‐ leadership involves creating change, not maintaining what normally happens. In addition, the changes sought are not dictated by leaders, but reflect purposes that leaders and followers share. Moreover, change is toward an outcome that the leaders and followers both want; a desired future or shared purpose that motivates them toward this more preferable outcome. An important aspect of leadership is influencing others to come together around a common vision. Thus, leadership involves the influence of people to bring about change toward a desirable future

Explanation- Tip- Albeit, there is no hard and fast rule to solve comprehension. You can solve comprehension by doing more and more practice. Students usually take these types of questions for granted but you need to understand that this is a very complex topic and this deserves as much attention as you give to other topics. There are some rules which you can follow,

1st Rule- Do not read the full paragraph. Yes, you read it right. Do not spend a lot of time reading the whole paragraph. Just by having a look try to understand the gist of the paragraph. A quick read.

2nd- Read all the questions very carefully, yes very very carefully, and then again look at the paragraph. All I can guarantee you is that with this rule you will be able to solve 2 or 3 questions.

3rd – Now one thing that I observed is that usually, questions are chronological as per the paragraph. So, let’s say you solved the first 2 or 3 questions by applying the above tricks. You don’t need to read the whole paragraph again. Just read the last few lines and you are ready to rock.

4th – The most important question of any comprehension is the title – so the title is like the Bollywood song’s title line. They will repeat the line or title just as bole chudiyan repeats in bole chudiyan song. So try to pick that title. (thanks to me later)

5th – By applying overhead rules I can assure you, that you can easily solve 3 -4 questions, and because of the lack of availability of time that is more than enough.

Question #40 – Leadership studies are an emerging discipline”, means: ‘

1. Leadership studies are an established field

2. Leadership studies are a valid field of research

3. Leadership studies is an evolving domain of scholarship

4. Leadership studies is an elaborate field

Correct Answer:‐ Leadership studies are an established field

Question #41- What variables are used for defining leadership?

1. Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team

2. Power to get things done quickly by the influence

3. Power to change and control

4. Power to effect and desire for mandated change

Correct Answer:‐ Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team

Question #42 – What is the main theme of this passage?

1. Explanation of leadership construct

2. Argument about leadership

3. Models of leadership

4. Pros and cons of leadership

Correct Answer:‐ Explanation of leadership construct

Question #43- What should be the outcome of leadership actions?

1. Movement towards the vision of the leader

2. Movement towards a common vision of the leader and the followers

3. Movement towards the vision of the majority

4. Strengthening of the authority of leaders

Correct Answer:‐ Movement towards the vision of the leader

Question-#44 The concept of leadership discussed in this passage is

1. Vertical‐top down

2. Horizontal

3. Individualistic

4. Exceptional

Correct Answer:‐ Vertical‐top down

Question #45- Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow In the following table, the total Exports and Imports of 5 countries over 4 years (in Rs Crore) is given. Study the table carefully and answer the given questions. (I‐import, E‐export)

Explanation– Let’s understand how we can solve these Data integration problems. If you are a humanities student like me, Data interpretation is a big ghost for us. When I was preparing for this exam initially I used to ignore data interpretation. However, you can’t deny that this is very crucial and you can’t crack this exam without data interpretation. Here are a few tips which I used during my preparation days, which I hope will help you as well.

Try to solve simple problems like addition, subtraction, dividing and multiplying. You might be thinking that you are good with this but with this I mean you should be able to solve this without paper and pen.

Try to solve percentages and average questions. These two topics are the base of Data integration. You can’t even think of solving Data integration problems without these two topics. Solve as much as you can.

Then last but not least, timings matter the most while solving these questions. Questions are easy but lengthy. You can solve all these questions but the game is of time. You have to solve these 5 questions in only 10 minutes otherwise you won’t be able to solve other questions which are of equal weightage.

Practise as much as you can.

Question#46- Find out the difference between the average export and average import for the country P.

1. 8.25

2. 7.75

3. 8.50

4. 7.25

Correct Answer:‐ 8.25

Question#47- Which country has the maximum percentage of profit increase from 2019 to 2020? (Profit = Export-Import)

1. P

2. Q

3. R

4. S

Correct Answer:‐ P

Question #48- Which year has the maximum export?

1. 2017

2. 2018

3. 2019

4. 2020

Correct Answer:‐ 2017

Question#49 – Which year has the minimum average import?

1. 2017

2. 2018

3. 2019

4. 2020

Correct Answer:‐ 2017

Question #50 – Find out the ratio of export done by countries S and T during 2017‐2020

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