#book: schizophrenia third edition

[gray-gray-gray-gray]

Chapter 5 of Schizophrenia, Third Edition: The schizophrenia spectrum persononality disorders

Classic studies by Kraepelin and Bleuler reported that schizophrenia is present in a continuum. The assessment of this disorder thus has included populations other than those with the disorder itself like relatives of patients with schizophrenia, subjects in prodromal stages, and people with schizophrenia spectrum personality disorders.

Schizotypal personality disorder (StPD) is the primary example of a schizophrenia spectrum personality disorder. Patients with the disorder share common genetic, biological, phenomenological, prognosis, and treatment response characteristics with people with schizophrenia. StPD shares with schizophrenia symptom dimensions such as ideas of reference, magical thinking, and suspiciousness, and deficit-like symptoms. Pervasive asociality and cognitive impairments observed in patients with StPD are usually milder than those with schizophrenia. People with StPD also do not suffer from chronic psychosis like those with schizophrenia do.

Individuals with StPD suffer from attenuated psychotic-like symptoms such as ideas of reference and cognitive-perceptual distortions as well as deficit-like symptoms such as constricted affect, social isolation, and peculiar appearance and speech. Ideas of reference in StPD are not held with the same conviction as in schizophrenia, but are nevertheless pervasive and disturbing. People with StPD also contemplate idiosyncratic beliefs that are not part of the social norms of their culture. One example is magical thinking, that the mind is able to change the physical world. They also experience illusions.

Studying StPD alongsize schizophrenia and healthy patients can allow us a further look at genetics and pathophysiology. Genes possibly related to schizophrenia are starting to be identified, and with that we can identify those that are related to both schizotypal and schizophrenia or just schizophrenia and psychosis along.

Individuals with schizoid personality disorder (SzPD) share the lack of close friends with StPD. However individuals with SzPD may not experience the cognitive-perceptual distortions that are criteria for StPD. Asociality is a core trait of SzPD, but in contrast in StPD it is not secondary to distrust of others, but just a desire to be alone due to a lack of pleasure from casual relationships.

In paranoid personality disorder (PPD) the diagnostic criteria has emphasis on the individual's mistrust and suspiciousness. The expectation of malicious intent from others and volatile responses to perceived slights comes from the perceived hidden threatening meanings that justify their preconceptions. People with PPD are also reluctant to confide in others since they question the loyalty of others and are even fearful of the ill-will of close friends.

Individuals with avoidant personality disorder (AvPD) may seem socially distant and exhibiy similar cognitive impairments to those observed in schizophrenia spectrum disorders, however, the critera emphasizes that this results not from lack of desire for relationships but from substantial anxiety and need for reassurance.

In some contexts, schizophrenia spectrum disorders are conceptualized as continuous or dimensional in nature. By some authors the common underlying liability shared between schizophrenia spectrum disorders is identified as "schizotaxia," that describes a set of signs and symptoms present in individuals genetically predisposed to schizophrenia.

Genes play a big role in schizophrenia. This genetic liability is not specific to schizophrenia - PPD, SzPD, and StPD are all associated with the genetic risk for schizophrenia. The strongest familial relationship to schizophrenia is with StPD, with the genetic relation between the two being suggested by several family and adoption studies.

Differences between schizophrenia and StPD are being examined with genetic, neurochemical, imaging, and pharmacological intruments.

[women-being-lunatics]

Zelda Fitzgerald

a flapper, a muse, an author, an icon in her own right; Zelda Fitzgerald is the prototype for the lunatic woman.

Born in Montgomery, Alabama, Zelda (Sayre) was known in her youth for her beauty and high spirits. From an early age she was rebellious, curious about art, intelligent. Zelda had a desire to challenge the norm.

In 1918 when Zelda was 18 she met F. Scott (22). The two began to write each other regularly and Zelda instantly became F. Scott's muse as he based many of his lady love interests after her.

In 1920, Zelda married author F. Scott Fitzgerald after the success of his debut novel This Side of Paradise. They were both launched to celebrity status.

The two were known for their antics and incessant partying. They would often get belligerently drunk and gallivant around what ever city they were in, causing as many public disturbances as possible along the way. The two spent money faster than they could make it, on lavish things. Their lives were like a swinging pendulum from poverty to opulent wealth.

But Zelda was an artist in her own right and it is said that her husband owed much of his success to her as well. She was dynamic, poetic, and savvy. She was skilled in writing, visual art, and dancing too. She used to let F. Scott read her diaries and it is rumored that he would copy long excerpts with out her permission and write them into his books-- never acknowledging her contribution. Zelda's real words left the mouths of many of F. Scott's fictional women, including Gatsby's Daisy and Tender is the Night's Nicole.

Of course, the charade did not last for long. After the publication of The Beautiful and the Damned, F. Scott asked Zelda to write a review for the paper, she wrote:

"It seems to me that on one page i recognized an old diary entry of mine which mysteriously disappeared shortly after my marriage and, also, scraps of letters which, though considerably edited, sound to me vaguely familiar. In fact, Mr. Fitzgerald seems to believe plagiarism begins at home."

Zelda and F. Scott's marriage began to deteriorate as Zelda began to garner attention of her own. They fought and raged often as publishers reached out to Zelda with writing deals of her own.

The couple moved to paris and as F. Scott tortured himself writing The Great Gatsby, Zelda's eye began to wonder toward a handsome pilot. As a result F. Scott locked Zelda inside their house and Zelda attempted suicide for the first time.

Ultimately, Zelda was institutionalized for her eccentric behavior and suicidal ideations, first in France, then later after her father's death in the states. She was diagnosed at the time with schizophrenia, then later, posthumously, diagnosed with bipolar disorder. While institutionalized Zelda published her first independent novel, Save Me the Waltz, a semi-autobiographical telling of her relationship with F. Scott. (The final publication was heavily edited by F. Scott's publisher, as it contained much of the same material he had planned to use for Tender is the Night.)

The novel was published with little success and ironically enough, F. Scott wrote his own scathing review of it where he called Zelda a third rate writer and a plagiarist. F. Scott died while Zelda was still hospitalized. After his death she began her second novel, Caesar's Things, but was unable to finish it after a fire broke out in a room where she was waiting to receive electroshock therapy.

Sources:

[eyeofthehrrcne]

"I love you,

And thats the

Beginning

And end

Of everything."

Ok so here's my take on it, we've been talking about clara bow but we forget about our other dear flapper girl: Zelda Fitzgerald, her glorious flapper days and her absolutely gut wretching tragic ending.

Not only did Zelda have to see Scott using inserts from her personal diaries become huge and famous quotes on Scott's books (without crediting her) but we're also talking about how a southern girl, a ballerina from a really small town who fell in love with a soldier (aspiring author) was brought to the biggest city in the world without her friends, her family, anyone familiar enough to hold her - despite Scott, who wouldve become a alcoholic writer who can't succeed withou his wife words let alone admit this for a fact. His jealousy over her writing and her naturally catching his spotlight and overshadowing him - Ending with Ernest Hemingway saying how she's the reason Scotts writing had declined, when she was the core of everything he have ever wrote.

“It seems to me that on one page I recognized a portion of an old diary of mine which mysteriously disappeared shortly after my marriage, and, also, scraps of letters which, though considerably edited, sound to me vaguely familiar. In fact, Mr. Fitzgerald (I believe that is how he spells his name) seems to believe that plagiarism begins at home.” - Zelda for The New York Tribune.

Her soul and her life we're devoured. To this day she's portrayed as a crazy hysterical southern little girl that was always behind Scott - And not ahead of him, as she always were. Fitzgerald could never support Zelda, even though she was a carrier of many talents, a dancer, writer and painter exhaustingly discouraged by her troubled partner who couldn't see her thrive beyond him. She was trapped.

1930's - Zelda is admitted to her first psychiatric hospital

She would've allegedly be in and out of then after being diagnosed with schizophrenia, her mental health took a fallout after her dad passed away and Scott leaved her to go to Hollywood by himself. But even then, in the psychiatric hospitalbshe wrote.

To steady myself I wrote, I wrote, I wrote. — Z: SAYRE, Zelda

Zelda wrote her autobiographical novel, Save Me The Waltz. Scott would then proceed to disaprove as he was planning to use HER writing again in tender is the night, forcing Zelda to edit out the parts he wanted to be in his book - Which led to a hollow disconnected version of the book, being severely criticized, even from him, her own husband calling her a "third rate writer" and accusing her of his own crimes - plagiarism.

She tried writing again after Scott's passing, but her poor aching body was left to death as a fire bursted in her hospital, while she was waiting for shock therapy.

But let's remind her for how she lived fully, how she bled art as her veins were ink - her diaries and letters prove that. How beautifully she arranged words and how easily it flowed through her cursive letter. Let her be reminded for who she was and who she ceaselessly tried to be - despite all she was given to deal with. Despite all she was unapologetically Zelda Sayre.

@taylorswift @taylornation

[soundsof71]

So, considering you are a passionate fan of music released in 1971, I feel justifiably obligated to ask you what you think of Buffy Sainte-Marie's 'She Used to Wanna Be a Ballerina' album. 😂 (Also, it would make me beyond happy if you could post more about Buffy, my friend! Thank you! ❣)

Buffy Sainte-Marie + Crazy Horse - what’s not to love? LOL I confess that it was the Crazy Horse connection that caught my attention first. I had a general idea who Buffy was, had seen her on TV a few times, but I was a big Crazy Horse fan. News that they were her backing band for this album was easily enough for me to scoop it up.

They weren’t doing anything much with Neil Young in 1971 (other than this album, on which Neil also appeared!), but they had released a tasty solo album in February 71, produced by Jack Nitzsche (who also produced this, and would later marry Buffy), and featuring Ry Cooder (also featured here, although did not marry Buffy). 

(btw, the first place that Buffy, Ry, and Jack worked together was on the Nic Roeg film Performance, starring Mick Jagger. People obviously remember Mick in that, but musically, Buffy was the best part!) 

She Used To Wanna... also features Jesse Ed Davis, a Native American guitarist and singer who was a frequent “usual suspect” at these sort of “sure, invite everyone!” jam albums of the era, and played a prominent role at 1971′s biggest concert (at least in the US), The Concert for Bangladesh on August 1.

(I know you know  RUMBLE: The Indians Who Rocked The World, the documentary about indigenous music’s influence on rock and roll, which has chapters on both Buffy and Jesse Ed. I just watched it again recently, and love it! A reminder of Buffy’s pivotal role in classic rock history. Not mentioned in the film: she relentlessly championed the work of her fellow Canadians Joni Mitchell and Leonard Cohen, helping them get their first record deals.)

I haven’t listened to She Used To Wanna Be A Ballerina for a while, so I definitely need to do that, along with posting more pictures of Buffy.  (I can’t believe I’ve only posted two!) 

But I’ll tell you what still stands out to me about that record years later. “Smack Water Jack” is an underrated track from Carole King’s Tapestry that got a ton of airplay at the time. Quincy Jones did an instrumental cover as the title track for his terrific 1971 album, too, but it has somehow faded to obscurity since then. Buffy takes a playful trifle, and turns it into a powerful fable of men of color who explode into violence in response to the violence visited upon them, and self-satisfaction of whites in authority who answer their demands for better living conditions by killing them on the spot. 

No need for a trial when you can murder them in the streets, right? “You can't talk to a man when he don't wanna understand / And he don't wanna understand” hits different when Buffy sings it, and in 2020 for that matter. 

It’s also just a terrific performance whose combination of soul and rock and roll and driving piano in a sort of Old West-sounding context would have made this sound right at home on a record like Elton John’s Tumbleweed Connection  or something by The Band. I’m limited to five video embeds per post so I can’t embed it here, so I'm linking instead: anyone who hasn’t heard this definitely needs to.

Her cover of Neil’s CSNY track “Helpless” has things I like even better than Neil’s original, including Merry Clayton standing in for CSN. Buffy’s version is more muscular (thanks again to Crazy Horse), and taps even more deeply into the isolation of the song that the star power of CSNY somewhat obscured. 

Buffy’s version also made a brief but memorable appearance in the 2018 film Hotel Artemis, starring Jodie Foster. A weird little movie that I loved maybe more than it deserved LOL but I recommend nonetheless:

I know that this album gets attention because of the unusual number of covers, including one by Leonard Cohen, and a cover of a cover that Leonard had made famous on top of that, called "Song of the French Partisan” (hers is the far superior version imo, a song of French resistance to Nazi occupation from the perspective of a woman hiding a resister), but there are a couple of standout originals too. 

I love the title of this record, and the title track is a delightful little stomper that playfully cautions against equating the intentions of grown women with the childhood fantasies they’ve grown out of. More Merry Clayton goodness here on backing vocals too. 

“Soldier Blue” is a powerful song first written for the 1970 film of the same name, billed at the time as “The most savage film in history” -- and maybe it was. It used the 1864 Sand Creek Massacre as a metaphor for Vietnam, and it's still shockingly brutal. It was the third-highest grossing movie in the UK in 1971, though, and the single became a top-10 hit for Buffy there. 

It didn’t do as well here, either the song or the movie. Perhaps not shockingly in retrospect, Soldier Blue was pulled from American theaters after a few days, the Vietnam metaphor not at all lost on the Nixon administration. 

As horrifying as it was, this is about when I was reading Bury My Heart At Wounded Knee (first published in 1970), and Soldier Blue resonated with me in a whole lot of ways. Here’s the song in the opening credits of the movie.

I was also really struck by “Moratorium”, which is the story of “Universal Soldier” (from her 1963 debut, but a bigger hit for Donovan in 1965), coming from the opposite direction. In the earlier song, she blamed war on the soldiers who think that fighting is honorable, but here, she has empathizes with the young men, boys really in many cases, who’ve been lied to by their countries, their parents, and even their friends. They’re not vainglorious. They’ve been duped by people they trusted. 

(I don't think she takes enough into account how many men sign up to fight because they want to embrace and celebrate their worst, most violent impulses, which was of course an undercurrent of “Universal Soldier”, but I appreciate her empathy here. More than one thing is true at a time.)

Buffy goes even farther, though, calling on soldiers to support and validate demands for peace as explicitly supporting them, summed up in the unforgettable cry, "Fuck the war and bring our brothers home!" 

1971 was the peak of antiwar demonstrations in the US, with the biggest crowds ever seen in this country until the 2017 Women’s March. The May 1971 demonstrations pretty much shut down Washington, culminating with Vietnam Veterans Against The War throwing back their medals on the steps of the US Capitol, incredibly powerful stuff to see on TV in my formative years, and Buffy was right there in it. Anti-war songs were a cottage industry for sure, but nobody was writing with the nuance and empathy that Buffy was.

Here’s a 1972 performance of “Moratorium”, Buffy and a piano, and more emotionally bare than that:

There’s obviously lots more to say about Buffy, far outside the realm of protest music that was actually just a small part of her musical palette -- her pioneering experiments with electronic music, her educational philanthropy starting in her 20s, Sesame Street, you name it. Her commercial peak was still in front of her, and while I can’t say that this is my favorite of her records, it does have some of my favorite songs of hers, and 1971 and She Used to Wanna Be A Ballerina is definitely where I went from knowing who Buffy Sainte-Marie was to being a fan. 

I'll also note as I do now and again that while this blog started as an offshoot of a book on 1971 that I’d started but abandoned, I mostly listen to music released now. That’s always been my policy, including in 1971. When 1972 rolled up, I was mostly listening to music from 1972, music from ‘80 in ‘80, ‘91 in ‘91, 2018 in 2018, etc., to name just a few other favorites. (Plus The Beatles, okay? LOL I still listen to The Beatles every day. No apologies.) Honestly? It took me until 2011, in my fifties, when a whole bunch of 40th anniversary editions of 1971 albums got released all at once that made me think, “Wait a minute, this was maybe THE pivotal year in classic rock history!” 

So yeah, the historian in me dug into 1971, but even though I happened to be alive and enthralled by music in that year, what I’m doing here has nothing to do with nostalgia, or any idea that that was the *best* year in music, even if for the narrow slice of music that is classic rock, yeah, it absolutely is. For soul/R&B too, and for the explosion of women artists outside the even narrower confines of pop as well. This is not subject to debate. No year like it, before or since. It's just that classic rock is a such a narrow slice, and I like my slices wide. LOL Which is also why my blog has less and less 1971 content as I go along. 

While my general policy is that my favorite year for music is THIS year, this particular year hasn’t left me as much energy as usual for listening to music. Some of it is These Trying Times™, some of it is my bipolarity and schizophrenia getting the better of me in waves, as is the way with these, uhm, things. (Keep taking those meds, kids!) I listen to music and post about the people making it as a creative act, not a passive or reflexive one, and I just haven’t felt as creative as usual.

(This is also has everything to do with why so many Asks have been piling up unanswered. I apologize if you’re one of the many kind and indulgent souls who’s gotten in touch, but I swear I’m gonna get to ‘em all!)

To get an idea of what I’m ACTUALLY passionate about right now, my “to be edited later” running list of 2020 favorites randomly added to a playlist as I encounter them, to be properly curated later, is at Spotify, cleverly entitled “2020″ -- 94% women, which is about right. LOL 

But since I do in fact listen to old stuff (by which I mean 2019 LOL), I made a list of mostly 2020 bangers from women rockers with some tasty treats from 2019 that I haven’t been able to let go of just yet, inspired by a post I saw at tumblr saying that punk music by women is just plain better (also beyond debate), called “Women Bangers: A Tumblr New Classics Jam”. I’ll be posting an essay with a YouTube playlist soon, because god forbid that I only talk briefly about anything LOL and most of these women need to be heard AND seen.

Like Buffy Sainte-Marie, whom you'll both see and hear more often on my blog soon. Thanks for the reminder! Always a pleasure to hear from you and be challenged by you. :-)

Peace, Tim 

[gstqaobc]

CBC THE ROYAL FASCINATOR

Friday, April 09, 2021

Hello, royal watchers and all those intrigued by what’s going on inside the House of Windsor. This is your biweekly dose of royal news and analysis. Reading this online? Sign up here to get this delivered to your inbox.

Janet DavisonRoyal Expert

Prince Philip’s life of duty

(Adrian Dennis/Getty Images)

For so many years, Prince Philip was at Queen Elizabeth’s side — or walking just behind — deeply devoted in his duty as consort to the woman who is now the longest-reigning monarch in British history.

But the Duke of Edinburgh, who died this morning aged 99 at Windsor Castle, was seen by many as having his own role in helping an institution steeped in tradition try to find its way toward the future.

Much of that began nearly 70 years ago, after the former sailor who gave up a successful naval career saw his wife ascend the throne.

“What Prince Philip did was help modernize the monarchy in the 1950s,” Michael Jackson, president of the Institute for the Study of the Crown in Canada, said in an interview this morning.

“It was still a very tradition-bound institution…. We can credit Prince Philip, with the Queen’s full support, of course, with modernizing [its] finances, protocols, how Buckingham Palace was run … its outreach to the Commonwealth.”

Philip pushed to have Elizabeth’s coronation televised in 1953, an idea she did not wholeheartedly welcome at first.

“He was the modern person,” John Fraser, author of The Secret of the Crown: Canada’s Affair with Royalty, said in an interview this morning. “He was in touch with real people, non-royal people, and so he always had the instinct to reach out. He understood both the dark side of the media presence as well as the necessity of it.”

Fraser credits Philip’s profoundly unsettled early years, after he was “born in poverty and insecurity,” with how he looked toward the future of the Royal Family, and the monarchy.

“I do think those early years were the single biggest factor in his life and how he approached life,” said Fraser. “I think he never assumed things would last forever because he didn’t make any assumptions like that, and I think he certainly assumed the monarchy wouldn’t survive if it didn’t reach out more to the constituency that it had to serve.”

Fraser met Philip, and recalled him as a man who would revel in asking questions and challenging others.

“He was — charming is not the word I would use — but he was an invigorating person to speak to.”

Jackson, who was Saskatchewan’s chief of protocol from 1980 until 2005, met Philip during four visits to the province — three with the Queen and one on his own — and remembered a man with “a great sense of humour.”

“Sometimes people found him a bit abrasive, a bit abrupt, but that’s the way he was,” said Jackson.

“He was a straight shooter and he complemented the Queen beautifully because the Queen is a very soft-spoken, more laid-back person. Prince Philip really spoke his mind and occasionally made jokes and … put everyone at ease. I found him very refreshing, good to work with.”

With Philip’s death, there is an inevitable sadness for the Queen, and inevitable concern for how she will cope with the passing of her husband of more than 73 years.

Both Fraser and Jackson say the Queen will carry on, with Jackson noting “That’s the way she is. She’s a very strong person” with a deep religious faith that will sustain her.

“She’ll do her duty,” said Fraser. “And I think that’s the big lesson of him. He did his duty.”

For a full obituary of Prince Philip, click here.

For photos from Prince Philip's royal career, click here.

Family dysfunction

When Philip Mountbatten married Princess Elizabeth in 1947, the family he was joining was in marked contrast to the fractured one he had known in his youth. His parents' marriage broke down and offered him nothing like the nuclear family arrangement (mom, dad and two kids) that Elizabeth had known throughout her childhood. "In marrying the Queen, [Philip] gained that sort of stable home life that he didn't have when he was younger," royal author and historian Carolyn Harris has said in an interview. Philip's parents were Prince Andrew of Greece and Princess Alice of Battenberg, a great-granddaughter of Queen Victoria. Philip was born a prince of both Greece and Denmark on June 10, 1921, on the dining room table at Mon Repos, a villa that was the summer home for the Greek royals on the island of Corfu. He was the last of five children — his four older siblings were all girls. At the time, he was sixth in line to the Greek throne. But life in Greece didn't last long. His father, a professional soldier, was exiled from Greece in 1922 as his uncle, King Constantine I, was forced to abdicate. Philip's family fled, with the story being that Philip was nestled into an orange box as the family was evacuated from Greece on a Royal Navy ship. They eventually made their way to Paris. Philip's childhood took a "dysfunctional turn," author Sally Bedell Smith wrote in her book, Elizabeth The Queen, when he was sent by his parents at the age of eight to England for boarding school. The family eventually broke down. Philip's mother, who was born deaf, was ill periodically, diagnosed with schizophrenia and spent time in a sanitarium in Switzerland. His father went off with his mistress to Monte Carlo, where he died in 1944. Philip was left to be brought up in the U.K. by his mother's family, shuffled among various relatives and boarding schools throughout his youth. He didn't see or have any word from his mother between the summer of 1932 and the spring of 1937. "It's simply what happened," Philip said matter-of-factly in an excerpt from a book by Philip Eade, Young Prince Philip, Turbulent Early Years, published in the Telegraph. "The family broke up. My mother was ill, my sisters were married, my father was in the south of France. I just had to get on with it. You do. One does." As life went on, there really was no father to guide, consult or do anything else a father can do for his child. Several other close relatives died in his early years, including his favourite sister, Cecile, and her family in a plane crash in 1937. The following year, the 2nd Marquess of Milford Haven, his uncle and guardian, died of bone cancer. That left the marquess's younger brother, Louis Mountbatten, to bring up Philip. His family ties also extended into Germany. Three of his sisters were married to German princes involved in the Nazi party. Cecile and her husband, Don, had just joined the Nazi party before they died. Those family alliances had a visible repercussion when Philip and Elizabeth were married in 1947. "His sisters were not invited to the wedding as they were married to German princes who had been involved in the Nazi party during World War Two," Harris said. Philip's mother, Princess Alice, however, was at the wedding, and in her later years, came to live at Buckingham Palace. Alice had her own moment in the cultural conscience in 2019, as an episode during the third season of the Netflix drama, The Crown, focused on her. "She's just the most extraordinary character," Crown creator Peter Morgan told Vanity Fair. She set up charities for Greek refugees and later established a nursing order of Greek Orthodox nuns. During the Second World War, while her son was serving with the Royal Navy and her German sons-in-law fought for the Nazis, she was hiding Jews in Athens. As much as there was the distance between Philip and his mother in his younger years, there was a closeness later. Alice came to live at Buckingham Palace in 1967. Alice died at the palace in 1969 and was interred in the royal crypt at Windsor Castle. In 1988, her remains were transferred, as she had wished, to the church of St. Mary Magdalene in east Jerusalem. In a 1994 visit to the Yad Vashem Holocaust memorial in Jerusalem, Philip planted a tree in his mother's honour and visited her gravesite. "I suspect that it never occurred to her that her action was in any way special," Philip said during his visit. "She was a person with deep religious faith and she would have considered it to be a totally human action to fellow human beings in distress."

No stranger to Canada

(Frank Gunn/The Canadian Press)

Prince Philip's last visit to Canada was a short one in 2013 — on his own, without the Queen — to present a ceremonial flag to the Royal Canadian Regiment's 3rd Battalion. It came as something of a surprise. Philip had experienced a few health scares in the 18 months prior. So overseas travel was not necessarily a given for the Duke of Edinburgh at the time. But given Philip's feisty personality, dedication to his role and some of the interests he showed over the years, his return to Canada — he made more than 70 visits or stopovers between 1950 and 2013 — may not really have been a complete surprise. The 2013 trip was billed as a private working visit and was only a few days long. But while he was here, he was finally able to pick up the insignias he had been awarded as companion of the Order of Canada and commander of the Order of Military Merit from David Johnston, then Canada's governor general.

To read more about Philip’s time in Canada, click here.

Royally quotable

“He is someone who doesn't take easily to compliments but he has, quite simply, been my strength and stay all these years, and I, and his whole family, and this and many other countries, owe him a debt greater than he would ever claim, or we shall ever know.”

— Queen Elizabeth, publicly acknowledging Prince Philip’s importance to her during a speech on the occasion of their 50th wedding anniversary in 1997.

To read more on what Philip meant to the Queen, click here.

Remembering Prince Philip

Royal Fascinator readers are welcome to share their thoughts on the passing of Prince Philip, and any memories they may have of meeting him over the years. We’ll include some in the next edition of the newsletter.

I’m always happy to hear from you. Send your ideas, comments, feedback and notes to

royalfascinator@cbc.ca

. Problems with the newsletter? Please let me know about any typos, errors or glitches.

GSTQAOBC 🇨🇦🇬🇧🇦🇺🇳🇿

[rubinsahra-blog]

Psychology  An Introduction 11th edition by Benjamin Lahey – Test Bank

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 Psychology  An Introduction 11th edition by Benjamin Lahey – Test Bank

 Sample  Questions

 6 STATES OF CONSCIOUSNESS

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  Simply     defined, consciousness is

A)     limited to mammalian species.

B) the     state between awake and asleep.

C) a     feeling of moral obligation.

D) a     state of awareness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 163

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When a     person is aware of events taking place in her or his internal as well as     external environment, that person is considered to be in a state of

A)     consciousness.

B)     transcendence.

C)     divided perception.

D) heightened     sensation.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 163

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  While     driving a long distance on a familiar route, Jim finds his mind wandering     from work to family to thoughts of dead relatives and winning the lottery.     He has no memory of the actual drive. This is an example of

A)     normal dreams.

B)     daydreams.

C)     abnormal obsessions.

D)     divided consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 164

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Barbara     is reading a book she got as a Christmas gift. Her mind keeps wandering to     other gifts she has received, and so she has to reread several pages. This     is an example of

A)     mindless reading.

B)     abnormal behavior.

C)     obsessions

D)     compulsive behavior

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Research     about attention has found that

A)     players passing a basketball did not notice someone in a gorilla suit.

B) our     ability to focus is limited.

C) we     exclude some things in order to respond to others in our environment.

D) we     do all of these.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 163–164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  You     have just read your psychology assignment for the third time in the last     hour. You know you looked at each word and turned all the pages. However,     you cannot remember a single word you’ve read because you keep thinking     about your job interview tomorrow. What have you just experienced?

A)     Manifest consciousness

B)     Flowing consciousness

C)     Transcendental consciousness

D)     Divided consciousness

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 164

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     two activities are simultaneously attended to, consciousness is said to be

A)     repressed.

B) transcendent.

C)     divided.

D)     additive.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Lindsay     had just won the lottery. She drove to a friend’s house to tell her the     good news. After safely arriving at her friend’s house, she realized she     had very little recollection of how she got there. This is a demonstration     of

A)     directed consciousness.

B)     flowing consciousness.

C)     divided consciousness.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 164

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  According     to research, when you are driving, which of the following is the most     distracting?

A)     Reviewing the day in your head

B)     Listening to the radio

C)     Conversation on a cell phone

D)     Listening to prerecorded music

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     term used to describe a split in conscious awareness that allows us to     perform two or more tasks at the same time is

A)     dissociated personality disorder.

B)     multiple personality disorder.

C)     schizophrenia.

D)     divided consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Mental     processes that occur without a person being aware of them are

A) daydreams.

B)     unconscious.

C)     hypnagogic.

D)     conscious.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     research participants were asked to repeat a message coming in one ear and     ignore a message coming in the other ear, what were the researchers     attempting to demonstrate scientifically?

A)     Unconscious information processing

B)     Flowing consciousness

C)     Depersonalization

D)     Bipolar consciousness

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 165

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Compared     to listening to the car radio or CD, talking on a cell phone

A) is     less distracting.

B) has     shown no increase in accidents.

C)     causes an equal number of accidents.

D) is     much more distracting.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     cocktail party phenomenon describes a situation in which individuals

A)     process incoming information even if they are not consciously attending to     it.

B)     who spend time in groups start to think with one mind, following a strong     leader.

C)     who consume alcohol lose their inhibitions and process information     differently.

D)     invited to the party exhibit feelings of superiority compared to those not     invited.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 165

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  You are     at a party and having a nice conversation with someone. All the way across     the room someone says your name, and you immediately hear it and pay     attention to it? When this happens, it is known as the ______ phenomenon.

A)     Ebbinghaus

B)     mnemonic device

C)     tip-of-the-tongue

D)     cocktail party

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 165

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     semi-wakeful period that precedes light sleep is called

A)     myoclonia.

B)     the hypnagogic state.

C)     REM sleep.

D)     the transcendental state.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     concerned friend told you that as her spouse goes to sleep his body is     prone to sudden jerks. What should you tell her?

A)     Her spouse is a victim of sleep apnea.

B)     Her spouse is experiencing abnormal hypnogogia.

C)     Her spouse may have narcolepsy.

D)     Her spouse is experiencing normal myoclonia.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 166

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following best characterizes a night’s sleep?

A) We     begin the night in light sleep and end in deep sleep.

B) We     pass from light sleep to dream sleep to deep sleep.

C) Our     depth of sleep changes many times during the night.

D) We     alternate from the hypnagogic state to dream sleep about six times.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 167

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  If a     sleeping person’s eyes are moving back and forth rapidly under the     eyelids, it is likely that this individual is

A) in     the deepest level of sleep.

B)     dreaming.

C) in     a hypnagogic state.

D)     awakening.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     brain waves of a person in REM sleep are most similar to

A)     wakefulness.

B) the     hypnagogic state.

C)     deep (Stage 4) sleep.

D)     light (Stage 2) sleep.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     general, sleep consumes ______ of our lives.

A)     10%

B)     25%

C)     33%

D)     50%

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     twilight stage in between wakefulness and sleep is referred to as the

A)     myoclonia nervosa.

B)     hypnotic stage.

C)     hypnagogic state.

D)     somnambulism effect.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following would be an example of myoclonia?

A)     Your neck being sore from sleeping in the “wrong” position

B)     Your chest throbbing with heartburn

C)     Your leg cramping up at night

D)     Your body experiencing a sudden jerk

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  It is     2 a.m. and Allison has been sleeping for several hours. Her heart begins     to pound and flutter, her fingers twitch, her eyelids flicker, and her     breathing becomes shallow and irregular. A sleep researcher would best     describe these phenomena as an example of

A) a     night terror.

B) an     autonomic storm.

C)     non-REM dream patterns.

D)     stage one sleep.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 169

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Dreams     occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less bizarre, and contain     less negative emotions compared to ________ sleep.

A)     REM; non-REM

B)     non-REM; REM

C)     hypnagogic; REM

D)     hypnagogic; non-REM

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     difference between REM and non-REM dreams is that

A)     non-REM dreams have more imagery.

B)     REM dreams are less frequent.

C)     non-REM dreams have bizarre content.

D)     non-REM is more similar than different to REM.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     average college student spends about ______ a night in REM sleep.

A)     one hour

B)     two hours

C) 30     minutes

D)     four hours

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  During     a night of sleep, when does REM sleep occur?

A) In     one long episode at the beginning of the night

B) In     one long episode at the end of the night

C) In     about four to six episodes distributed across the night’s sleep

D) In     two long episodes, one at the beginning and one at the end of the night

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  During     REM sleep, ______ the night’s dreams take place.

A) all

B)     about half of

C)     less than 10% of

D)     about 80% of

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own     blood pressure and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data     were graphed, it became clear that these readings changed in a predictable     way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that many     physiological processes are

A)     determined by subconscious expectations.

B)     governed by circadian rhythms.

C)     controlled by daily lunar cycles.

D)     correlated with lunar rotation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     hormone follows a circadian rhythm and peaks just before a person wakes     from sleep?

A)     Melatonin

B)     Growth

C)     Cortisol

D)     Polactin

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In a     sensory-deprivation experiment, Bob was required to remain in a windowless     room for several weeks. Based on results from previous research, it is     likely that his sleep-wake cycle

A)     shortened from 24 hours to 22 hours.

B)     remained the same during the experiment.

C)     lengthened from 24 hours to 25 hours.

D)     adjusted to a lunar cycle of 28 days.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170–171

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Internally     generated cycles lasting about 24 hours a day that regulate sleep and wake     cycles, as well as hormone secretion, are called

A)     sleep disorders.

B)     circadian rhythms.

C)     REM periods.

D)     astral projections.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     biological cycle of approximately 24 hours in length that regulates our     pattern of sleep is called a(n)

A)     circadian rhythm.

B)     myoclonic event.

C)     non-REM sequence.

D)     out-of-body experience.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     hormone ______ is a key factor in regulating a person’s level of     sleepiness.

A)     testosterone

B)     melatonin

C)     estrogen

D)     glutamate

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  How     does body temperature change in relation to the circadian rhythm linked to     the sleep cycle? Body temperature

A)     falls during REM sleep but rises again during the periods of non-REM     sleep.

B)     falls at the beginning of sleep and starts to rise by the middle of your     sleep cycle.

C)     falls at the beginning of sleep and continues to fall until the middle of     your sleep period.

D)     rises during dreams that are anxiety-provoking but rises during dreams     that are calm.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     term “sleep debt” describes a condition in which a sleep-deprived person

A)     goes immediately into REM sleep.

B)     develops insomnia at night, and narcolepsy occurs during the day.

C)     has daily naps that interfere with normal sleeping patterns.

D)     afterward falls asleep more quickly and sleeps longer.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171-172

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  For men     who sleep less than four and a half hours per night, this behavior is     associated with a ______ in death rates.

A) 50%     increase

B) 15%     increase

C) 5%     decrease

D) 65%     decrease

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 172

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Short-term     sleep deprivation ______ the body’s immune system.

A)     improves

B)     accelerates

C)     stops

D)     slows down

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 172

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Most     adults sleep ______ hours per night.

A)     seven to eight

B) 9     to 10

C)     five to six

D) 11     to 12

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 172

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  What     did Freud consider to be the “royal road to the unconscious”?

A)     Dreams

B)     Meditation

C) The     ego

D) Hypnosis

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Of     the following, which sensation is least likely to be reported after waking     from a dream?

A)     Smelling a floral aroma

B)     Hearing crowd noise

C)     Seeing strange people

D)     Feeling sexually aroused

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  While     preparing a paper on dreaming, you came across a book that described the     meaning of various dream images. The assumption made by the author is that     dreams

A)     have symbolic meaning.

B)     recycle daily residue.

C)     are stimulated by real-life events.

D)     are analogous to hallucinations.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  According     to research, which term would best describe the actual frequency of sexual     dreams?

A) 0%

B)     10%

C)     60%

D)     100%

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Taylor     dreamed she was hearing a phone ringing. Taylor is a telephone     receptionist who spends most of her day answering the phone at work. This     is an example

A)     latent content.

B)     stimulus incorporation.

C)     day residue.

D)     residual sensation.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 174

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     Freud’s theory of dreaming, the story you remember when you wake up is the

A)     manifest content.

B)     latent content.

C)     event sequence.

D)     surface structure.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  4     Sigrid has been studying very hard for her medical school entrance exam.     Last night she dreamed she was taking the test and had nothing to write     with. Sigrid’s dream is an example of

A)     stimulus incorporation.

B)     the influence of day residue.

C)     the protective feature of dreams.

D) a     night terror.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 174

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  What     percentage of dreams includes tastes or smells?

A)     About 25%

B)     About 50%

C)     Less than 1%

D)     Over 99%

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Of     the following, which occurs in your dreams most often?

A)     Animals

B)     Family members

C)     Friends

D)     You

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following is true regarding the dreams we remember?

A) We     remember negative dreams because they tend to wake us up.

B) We     don’t remember positive dreams because there are so many of them.

C) We     remember negative dreams because they are the first dreams of REM sleep.

D) We     don’t remember negative dreams because our defense mechanisms protect us.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Regarding     our dreams, the term “day residue” refers to the idea that

A)     the amount of sleep at night is related to the number of hours awake     during the day.

B)     dreams seem to contain at least one character or event from the preceding     day.

C) in     the morning after a dream, an amount of day residue can be found on your     eyes.

D)     the hormonal changes during sleep at night are evident in behavioral     changes the next day.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 174

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Research     indicates that sleeping less than average will

A)     alter the efficiency of the brain.

B)     increase levels of stress hormones.

C)     slow the body’s immune system.

D) do     all of these.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 172

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Freud     was mostly interested in the ______ of dreams.

A)     day residue

B)     manifest content

C)     stimulus incorporation

D)     latent content

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     terrifying kind of dream that occurs during REM sleep and whose content is     exceptionally frightening or uncomfortable is called a(n)

A)     nightmare.

B)     night terror.

C)     autonomic storm.

D)     REM fright.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Billy,     a toddler, awoke suddenly during non-REM sleep screaming and with no     recollection of a dream. This is most likely an example of

A) a     nightmare.

B) a     night terror.

C) a     sleep disorder.

D) sleep-talking.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  If     your spouse engages in frequent sleep-talking, you know that this is a

A)     common sleep phenomenon.

B)     phenomenon that only occurs in Stage 1 sleep.

C)     serious sleep disorder associated with sleepwalking.

D)     phenomenon that occurs only in REM sleep.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  You     are experiencing ______ if your dream during REM sleep is particularly     frightening and you are upset enough to wake up from your dream.

A)     nightmares

B)     night terrors

C)     night sweats

D)     narcolepsy

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Night     terrors tend to occur

A) in     adults much more often than children.

B)     during the deepest phases of non-REM sleep.

C)     with the temporary stoppage of breathing.

D)     with individuals who are malnourished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Sleep-talking     occurs during ______ phase of the sleep cycle.

A)     the deepest

B)     the non-REM

C)     any

D)     the REM

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Jerry     is in the process of getting a divorce and is having trouble at his job.     He has a lot of trouble going back to sleep once something awakens him     during the night. Which disorder has he most likely developed?

A)     Sleep apnea

B)     Narcolepsy

C)     Insomnia

D)     Sleep-talking

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Lucy     wants to go to sleep at 10 p.m. because she gets up for work at 5:30 a.m.     She has been trying for a month to fall asleep by 10 but can’t seem to     fall asleep until after 11 p.m. Lucy most likely has

A)     early-awakening insomnia.

B)     sleep-onset insomnia.

C)     latent insomnia.

D)     sleep-latency insomnia.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  If     you find that you are waking up frequently during the night or often wake     up an hour or two before your alarm goes off, you may have

A)     manifest insomnia.

B)     sleep-onset insomnia.

C)     sleep-latency insomnia.

D)     early-awakening insomnia.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 176

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Narcolepsy     is a sleep disorder characterized by

A)     sleepwalking and sleep-talking.

B) an     anxious, panicky feeling.

C)     irresistible urges to fall asleep.

D)     excessively long sleep periods.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 176

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  During     a night’s sleep, frequently occurring apnea may cause symptoms similar to

A)     narcolepsy.

B)     night terrors.

C)     latent insomnia.

D)     sleep-onset insomnia.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     ______ insomnia, individuals wake up sooner than desired, perhaps in the     middle of the night or closer to the morning.

A)     latent content

B)     manifest content

C)     sleep-onset

D) early-awakening

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     sleep disorder of narcolepsy occurs when individuals

A)     fall unexpectedly into a deep sleep in the middle of daily activities.

B)     have difficulty falling asleep at the hour at which they would like.

C)     wake up earlier than desired, sometimes several times a night.

D)     stop breathing while they are sleeping.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  What     do drugs, mediation, and intense religious experiences or sexual orgasms     have in common?

A)     They produce the same brain-wave activity.

B)     They produce extreme negative emotional states.

C)     They produce high levels of consciousness.

D)     They produce altered states of consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 177

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Alan     took a drug and then described how he had gained a unique insight into a     social problem. However, he has no justification or proof to back up his     thoughts. Which characteristic of altered states of consciousness best     fits this example?

A)     Sense of unity

B)     Self-evident reality

C)     Transcendent

D)     Distortion of perception

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     Pilar reached the top of a Himalayan peak, she experienced an intense,     indescribable positive sensation. Her experience may best be described as

A)     Depersonalization.

B)     Stimulus incorporation.

C)     Altered state.

D)     Astral projection.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Kathy     says that when she meditates she feels like she becomes one with the     universe. Kathy has experienced

A) an     altered state of consciousness.

B)     latent mesmerism.

C)     the hypnagogic state.

D) a     period of divided consciousness.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following is a characteristic of an altered state of consciousness?

A)     Sense of division

B)     Illogical

C)     Clear perception

D)     Describable

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Distortions     of perception, intense positive emotions, and a self-evident reality are     all characteristics that describe

A)     circadian arrhythmia.

B)     myoclonic narcolepsy.

C)     altered states of consciousness.

D)     night terrors.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177–178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  An     altered state of consciousness that is sometimes achieved during     meditation and that transcends normal human experience is called

A) a     transcendental mantra.

B) a     transcendental state.

C)     supreme meditation.

D)     astral meditation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Those     who wish to reach a more perfect state of consciousness often engage in

A)     hypnotic control.

B)     divided consciousness.

C)     depersonalization.

D)     meditation.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     method of relaxation that involves focusing one’s concentration on     rhythmic breathing and not on thoughts or feelings is called

A)     astral projection.

B)     depersonalization.

C)     meditation.

D)     hypnosis.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  While     most people who master the practice of meditation report feeling relaxed,     some report feeling a state that goes beyond normal experience. This     altered state of consciousness is called

A)     the transcendental state.

B)     astral projection.

C)     the universal state.

D)     self-evident reality.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Charles     has been told he must reduce his sympathetic autonomic arousal. What     consciousness-altering technique may help Charles?

A)     Depersonalization

B)     Stimulus incorporation

C)     Meditation

D)     Astral projection

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     considering the world around you, the opposite of meditation is

A)     mindfulness.

B)     sleepwalking.

C)     mesmerism.

D)     hypnosis.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178–179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Mindfulness     involves a state of being where a person

A)     concentrates on how past events will predict future events.

B) is     completely aware of what is going on at the present moment.

C)     watches the behavior of others while ignoring their own behavior.

D)     relaxes to the point of sleepiness by the repeated use of a mantra.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178–179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     terms of states of consciousness, hypnosis involves a

A)     high degree of controlled processing.

B)     strong defense against suggestibility.

C)     sense of deep relaxation and susceptibility to suggestion.

D)     dependence on a belief in supernatural powers.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  If     Juan is hypnotized and he loses the sense of touch or pain in his right     hand, what is occurring?

A) A     hypnagogic state

B)     Hypnotic relaxation

C)     Hypnotic analgesia

D)     Hypnotic conversion

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  What     do most experts believe about hypnotic age regression?

A) It     is very useful in child abuse cases.

B) It     can help people clearly recall painful experiences from the past.

C) It     does not improve the recall of childhood events.

D) It     is only useful for recalling the details of non-traumatic experiences.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  What     did Mesmer believe was the cause of his patients’ medical and     psychological problems?

A)     Their autonomic nervous systems were overly aroused.

B)     They were unable to relax completely.

C)     They had an excess of body fluids.

D)     Their bodies’ magnetic forces were out of balance.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     term “hypnotic analgesia” refers to the situation that occurs when a     person is hypnotized, they

A)     see flowers that do not exist.

B)     sense deep relaxation and peacefulness.

C)     lose the sense of touch or pain.

D)     pass back in time to an earlier life stage.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     perceptual experience of one’s body becoming distorted or unreal coupled     with a sense of strange distortions in one’s surroundings is called

A) mesmerism.

B)     self-evident reality.

C)     transcendental projection.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     perception that your mind has left your body is known as

A)     mesmerism.

B)     astral meditation.

C)     transcendental state.

D)     astral projection.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     spontaneous state of consciousness that occurs when one experiences one’s     own body becoming distorted or unreal in some way is referred to as

A)     mantrafication.

B)     mindfulness.

C)     mesmerism.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  An     astral projection can be thought of in common terms as a(n)

A)     out-of-body experience.

B)     mindful state of tranquility.

C)     manifest content dream.

D)     stimulus incorporation event.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Drugs     that alter conscious experience are known as ______ drugs.

A)     psychotropic

B)     illicit

C)     pharmaceutical

D)     over-the-counter (OTC)

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 181–182

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Gillian     bought some cocaine that she felt gave her a great experience. When she     bought more cocaine from the same dealer, it did not give her the same     experience. Given this information, what best explains why her experiences     differed?

A)     Expectation

B)     Drug purity

C)     Personal characteristics

D) Social     situation

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 183

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Personal     expectations, social situations, and moods are factors that may

A)     explain why we sleep and dream.

B)     affect the onset of a narcoleptic attack.

C)     influence an individual’s response to drugs.

D)     increase the likelihood of astral projection.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     taking a drug for the first time, people should be aware that _______ can     make the drug’s effects unpredictable.

A)     withdrawal

B)     psychological dependence

C)     tolerance

D)     personal characteristics

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     Bob drinks a few scotch and sodas in public he is viewed by others as very     witty and fun to be with. However, when Bob drinks a few scotch and sodas     at home, his family reports that he becomes sad and regretful. What is     most likely affecting Bob’s differing responses to alcohol?

A) The     purity of the alcohol

B) The ��   social situation

C)     Bob’s expectations

D) The     stimulant effect of alcohol

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 183

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     broad name for the class of drugs that alter conscious experience in any     way is

A)     stimulants.

B)     psychotropic drugs.

C)     narcotics.

D)     antagonists.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 181–182

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     trying to gauge a person’s reaction to psychotropic drug use, you might     consider if they are consuming the drug alone or with others. This drug     use factor is know as

A)     mood and expectation.

B)     personal characteristics.

C)     the social situation.

D)     dosage and purity.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Psychotropic     drugs that increase the activity of the central nervous system, providing     a sense of energy and wellbeing, are called

A)     depressants.

B)     tranquilizers.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     stimulants.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182–183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  If     you took a drug that lessened your feelings of fatigue, created an     elevated mood, and decreased your appetite, which of the following did you     probably take?

A)     Amphetamine

B)     Alcohol

C)     Heroin

D)     Valium

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Coca-Cola’s     original ingredient, used to market it as a “nerve tonic,” was _______,     and was replaced by _______ in 1906.

A)     cocaine; caffeine

B)     cocaine; cola extract

C)     nicotinic extract; caffeine

D)     pure caffeine; cola extract

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 184

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     reaction to the excessive use of stimulants that results in distorted     thinking, confused emotions, and intense suspiciousness is known as

A)     amphetamine psychosis.

B)     astral projection.

C)     hypnotic mesmerism.

D)     runner’s high.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Stimulant     is to depressant as

A)     alcohol is to cocaine.

B)     codeine is to alcohol.

C)     Dexedrine is to alcohol.

D)     cocaine is to Dexedrine.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 182

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Tranquilizers     and alcohol belong to a drug category called

A)     stimulants.

B)     narcotics.

C)     depressants.

D)     sedatives.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Drugs     that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the     activity of the central nervous system are called

A)     inhalants.

B)     stimulants.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     depressants.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Tranquilizers,     sedatives, and narcotics all belong to the category of ______ drugs.

A)     stimulant

B)     depressant

C)     hallucinogenic

D)     inhalant

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Also     known as ma huang, ______ is an herbal     stimulant sold as a dietary supplement.

A)     epinephrine

B)     ephedra

C)     ecstasy

D)     endorphin

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     general, sedatives are prescribed to treat ______ and tranquilizers are     prescribed to treat ______.

A)     anxiety; sleep problems

B)     drug overdoses; sleep problems

C)     sleep problems; anxiety

D)     anxiety; drug overdoses

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 184

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Your     neighbor has just confided in you that he is an addict. You have never     seen him drink alcohol, smoke, or pop pills, but you have seen many small     paper bags lying around his garage. Given this evidence, to which category     of drug might your neighbor be addicted?

A)     Hallucinogens

B)     Depressants

C)     Inhalants

D)     Stimulants

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 185

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     drug is not physically addictive but can cause psychological withdrawal     symptoms, decreased cognition efficiency, and weakened immune system with     prolonged use?

A)     Opium

B)     Marijuana

C)     LSD

D)     Caffeine

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185–186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Despite     being not physically addictive, marijuana, used on a prolonged basis,

A)     reduces the risk of serious mental health problems.

B)     has never been proven to be harmful.

C)     reduces cognitive efficiency.

D)     produces only short-term health risks.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185–186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     substance is considered an inhalant if when inhaled it produces

A)     substantial drowsiness.

B) a     sense of intoxication.

C)     extreme depression.

D)     myoclonic events.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  PCP     or angel dust falls into to psychotropic drug category of

A)     opiates.

B)     depressants.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     stimulants.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following outcomes does marijuana smoking share with cigarette     smoking?

A)     Increases in the action of male sex hormones

B)     Strengthening of the body’s immune system

C)     Increases in the efficiency of cognitive processing

D)     Increases to the risk of lung cancer

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Evidence     suggests that the use of the designer drug Ecstasy causes lasting damage     to neurons resulting in

A)     declines in verbal memory.

B)     increases in excitability.

C)     increases in depression.

D)     declines in autonomic nervous system.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Nicotine     is highly addictive because it stimulates

A)     GABA production.

B)     pleasure centers in the limbic system.

C)     largely increases alertness.

D)     the immune system.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     drug Ecstasy operates by reducing the transmission of neurons that use     ______ as a neurotransmitter.

A)     acetylcholine

B)     epinephrine

C)     serotonin

D)     norepinephrine

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Which     of the following is one of the reasons that people become addicted to     psychoactive drugs?

A)     Blockage of pleasure receptors

B)     Operant conditioning

C)     Disconnection of reward systems

D)     Reduction of negative feelings

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     the United States, about one in ______ adolescents and adults have a     substance-abuse problem during some point in their lives.

A)     four

B)     10

C)     50

D)     100

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  People     with less education and lower incomes are ______ likely to abuse drugs     compared to persons with more money.

A)     less

B)     more

C)     just as

D)     not very

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Based     on research, American Indians living on reservations have a ______ rate of     alcohol abuse.

A)     nonexistent

B)     low

C)     very high

D)     moderate

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

 True/False Questions

  Consciousness     is simply defined as a state of awareness.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 163

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  In     general, cell phones do not distract drivers and do not cause accidents.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Divided     consciousness was a mythical form of awareness debunked by Ernest Hilgard.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  When     listening to two voices and told to pay attention to one, nothing from the     other voice (not attended to) is processed by the brain.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 164

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  We     always go directly from wakefulness to sleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Sleep     is not a single state; instead, it’s a complex combination of states, some     involving conscious awareness.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     hypnagogic state is the second level of sleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 166

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Non-REM     dreams contain much more negative emotion and realistic content compared     to REM dreams.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  REM     sleep stands for rapid-eye-movement sleep.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     circadian rhythm for humans is about 12 hours.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Body     temperature follows a circadian rhythm.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome:  1.3

  If an     individual misses some sleep, a sleep debt is created.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  About     10% of all dreams involve sexual body sensations.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Incorporating     an event from the day into your current dream is called day residue.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     visual images in dreams are usually as bright and clear as waking images,     but they are not as colorful.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 173

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Night     terrors are vivid dreams remembered upon wakening.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Sleep-talking     can occur during any phase of the sleep cycle.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Fortunately,     sleep disorders are highly treatable disorders.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Sleepwalking     occurs during the deepest parts of non-REM sleep.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Sleep     apnea is the sleep disorder where individuals have a hard time falling     asleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 176

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  An altered     state of consciousness often results in a sense of unity.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     word that may be repeated over and over during meditation is called a     mantra.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Meditation     involves a free association of thoughts to solve difficult life problems.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  During     hypnotic age regression, a sense of deep relaxation and peacefulness     exists.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Another     name for an out-of-body experience is astral projection.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Depersonalization     usually occurs during hypnotic trances.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     person’s personality can influence a drug’s effect.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Stimulants     product a dreamlike alteration to perceptual experiences.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Cocaine     is a stimulant.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  A     feature of all psychotropic drugs is the production of hallucinations.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Cocaine     is highly addictive with a wide variety of tolerance in users

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 184

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  All addictive     drugs stimulate dopamine transmitters that mediate pleasure and reward.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     derivates of opium are known as opiates.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  LSD     and mescaline belong to the psychotropic drug category opiates.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Inhalants     are most often abused by children.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 185

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Ecstasy     is an example of a designer drug.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  The     reduction of negative feelings is one reason that individuals become     dependent on drugs.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

  Three     out of every four individuals in the United States have a substance abuse     problem some time in their life.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.3

7 BASIC PRINCIPLES OF LEARNING

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  An     essential factor in the definition of learning is that the learned behavior

A)     must result from maturation.

B)     must be unmotivated.

C)     has a biological cause.

D)     is relatively permanent.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 194

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learning     is defined as a _______ change in behavior due to _______.

A)     temporary; experience

B)     biological; reinforcement

C)     relatively permanent; experience

D)     biological; maturation

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 194

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Some     kindergarten children were shown a film on how to brush their teeth. If a     change in behavior is not immediately obvious after viewing the     instructional film, you may conclude that

A)     learning has not occurred.

B)     there is a potential for a behavioral change.

C)     maturation has interfered with learning.

D)     the children were obviously not paying attention.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 195

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     a baby is born, it shows no preference for its father’s voice, but after a     month of living with Dad, a baby will show a clear preference for Dad’s     voice over other men’s voices. This new preference is an example of

A)     maturation.

B)     genetics.

C)     insight.

D)     learning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 195

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     major league baseball pitcher changes his arm strength by taking steroids,     which in turn changes his pitching. Is this change in pitching due to     learning?

A)     No, because the change was not due to experience.

B)     No, because arm strength has nothing to do with pitching.

C)     Yes, because the pitcher learned to take steroids.

D)     Yes, because changes from steroids are permanent.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 194

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Using     Pavlov’s idea of learning through association, a(n) ______ stimulus comes     to elicit a response over time.

A)     learned

B)     original

C)     neutral

D)     inborn

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 196

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In Pavlov’s     classic studies with dogs and digestion, what was the response that Pavlov     measured?

A)     Amount of food presented

B)     Footsteps in the laboratory

C)     Sound of a metronome

D)     Amount of salivation

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 195

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Pavlov     found that a neutral stimulus was more likely to produce dogs to salivate     if the stimulus

A)     was delivered on a variable interval schedule.

B)     positively reinforced salivation.

C)     and food were frequently associated.

D)     followed the salivation by one second.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 195

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     Pavlov’s experiments, which condition of association produced the best     results?

A)     When the metronome preceded the food powder by 10 seconds

B)     When the food powder and metronome were presented simultaneously

C)     When the food powder preceded the metronome by 10 seconds

D)     When the metronome preceded the food powder by half a second

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Frequency     and timing of the association of two neutral stimuli are important to the     formation of what?

A)     classical conditioning

B)     unconditioned stimulus

C)     shaped behavior

D)     Thorndikian learning

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 196–197

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     fleck of dust or dirt in your eye automatically causes the eye to produce     tears to wash out the dirt. If this were part of a classical conditioning experiment,     the fleck of dust or dirt would be labeled as the

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     conditioned stimulus.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning, an unlearned, inborn reaction to an unconditioned     stimulus is a(n)

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     order to cry during a particular scene, an actor held a handkerchief     soaked in onion juice close to her nose. The onion juice served as a(n)

A)     conditioned response.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     conditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned stimulus.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning, which of the following is true of the     unconditioned stimulus?

A) It     becomes associated with the response after learning.

B) It     causes the response only in the presence of the conditioned stimulus.

C) It     elicits the response without any learning.

D) It     is emitted by the unconditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     parent brings his 15-month-old to the pediatrician’s office for her first     shot. The child is happy and playful right up until the time the shot is     injected. Now, every time the child sees someone in a white lab coat, she     cries in terror. The injection in this scenario served as the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Women     who breastfeed their babies often notice that the crying of any infant may     result in milk ejection. In this case, the crying of any infant is a(n)

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 198

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In an     experiment, participants are to learn a classically conditioned response.     Which of the following will occur on the first learning trial?

A)     The participant cannot make a UCR.

B)     The UCR will elicit a CS.

C)     The CS will not elicit a CR.

D)     The CS will elicit a UCR.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 198

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before. The hungry cat comes running toward the     kitchen at the sound of the can opener, not at the sight of the food. In this     example, the sound of the can opener is the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 198

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before. The hungry cat comes running toward the     kitchen at the sound of the can opener, not at the sight of the food. In     this example, the running into the kitchen at the sound of the can opener     is the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 198

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before. The hungry cat runs toward the plate of     food when it sees it being set on the floor. In this example, the     placement of the food on the floor is a(n)

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before. The hungry cat runs toward the plate of     food when it sees it being set on the floor. In this example, running     toward a plate of food when set in front of the cat is a(n)

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 197

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     classical conditioning has been successfully accomplished, what type of     response follows the presentation of a conditioned stimulus?

A)     Conditioned response

B)     Neutral response

C)     Conditioned stimulus

D)     Neutral stimulus

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 198

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Joe     has been afraid of cats since childhood when he was attacked and scratched     by a neighborhood stray. A fear such as Joe’s may best be explained by

A)     classical conditioning.

B)     observational learning.

C)     operant conditioning.

D)     insight learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 198

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     counterconditioning is used, a conditioned stimulus is paired with an     unconditioned stimulus that is _______ the conditioned response.

A)     reinforced by

B)     extinguished by

C)     associated with

D)     incompatible with

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 201

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     a sexual fetish develops, the conditioned stimulus is

A)     sexual behavior.

B) a     nonsexual object.

C) an     erotic picture.

D) a     primary reinforcer.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     origins of unusual sexual fetishes may best be explained by

A)     learned helplessness.

B)     the partial reinforcement effect.

C)     superstitious behavior.

D)     classical conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     study of “Little Albert” is a famous example of the study of learned that     was conducted by

A)     Pavlov.

B)     Watson.

C)     Thorndike.

D)     Bandura.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 201

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning, one has the ability to “undo” the association of     neutral stimuli with fearful responses by using the process of

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     counterconditioning.

D)     spontaneous recovery.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 201

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learning     from the consequences of our behavior, which in turn leads to the     strengthening, or weakening of behaviors is called

A)     observational learning.

B)     latent learning.

C)     classical conditioning.

D)     operant conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Thorndike’s     “law of effect” suggests that

A)     the consequences of a behavior influence the probability of that behavior     being repeated.

B)     the more we observe positive models in our environment, the more we     emulate those models.

C)     when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly followed by an unconditioned     stimulus, learning occurs.

D)     the more we know, the more we comprehend that we don’t know.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is a key element in operant conditioning?

A)     The type of stimulus used

B)     The nature of the learning task

C)     The consequences of a behavior

D)     Whether a response is elicited or not

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learning     that occurs as a result of the consequences of our behavior is called     _______ conditioning.

A)     classical

B)     Pavlovian

C)     operant

D)     observational

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     voluntary behaviors are either strengthened or weakened by their outcomes,     the behavioral changes result from

A)     insight learning.

B)     classical conditioning.

C)     observational learning.

D)     operant conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following best describes the law of effect?

A) A     conditioned stimulus will produce a conditioned response.

B)     The consequence of a response determines whether the response will be     repeated.

C)     Reinforcers should be given immediately after a response.

D)     Behaviors will be elicited if the conditioned response is strong.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Fred     asks his mom for a cookie, but the answer is no. He whines and cries, so     his mom gives him a cookie and he calms down. According to the principles     of operant conditioning, what can be expected?

A)     Mom will be less likely to give cookies in the future.

B)     Fred will whine and cry more often in the future.

C)     Fred will cry whenever he is hungry.

D)     Fred will enjoy his cookie less than if he had received it after the first     request.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     Smiths’ new puppy cries in the middle of the night. Various family members     periodically check the dog, who responds by happily wagging his tail.     Lately, his crying has actually increased. This increase is likely due to

A)     positive punishment.

B)     positive reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     classical conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     child cries until his mother gives him a piece of candy. The candy is a(n)

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     positive reinforcer.

D)     secondary reinforcer.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  38.     Research on operant conditioning suggests that the longer a reward for a     good deed is delayed, the

A)     less of an impact the reward has.

B)     more tantalizing the reward becomes.

C)     more strength gained by the conditioned stimulus.

D)     less necessary is the unconditioned response.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     is the overall effect of delay of reinforcement?

A) It     slows learning.

B) It     speeds learning.

C) It     has no effect on learning.

D) It     accelerates learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  At     the beginning of a learning process using positive reinforcement, it is     important to

A)     only use secondary reinforcement.

B)     progress very slowly.

C)     avoid using extrinsic rewards.

D)     use consistent reinforcement.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204–205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Jill     was trying to operantly condition her dog to roll over. Each time her dog     rolled over she immediately said “good dog.” However, the dog did not     learn to roll over on command. Which of the following may best explain     why?

A)     Jill used inconsistent reinforcement.

B)     The CS did not match the CR.

C)     Jill should have delayed the reinforcement.

D)     Saying “good dog” was not reinforcing to her dog.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     using positive reinforcement, the _______ should immediately follow the     _______.

A)     CS; UCS

B)     UCR; CS

C)     reinforcer; response

D)     response; reinforcer

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Regarding     learning, ______ has occurred when the consequence of a behavior leads to     an increased probability of that behavior being repeated in the future.

A)     observational learning

B)     positive reinforcement

C)     punishment

D)     latent learning

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     positive reinforcement, the consequences of a behavior are ______ and the     behavior is likely to occur ______.

A)     positive; less

B)     negative; less

C)     positive; more

D)     negative; more

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     positive reinforcement, the behavior that becomes more frequent is called     the

A)     latent reaction.

B)     punisher.

C)     effected law.

D)     operant response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     idea of delay of reinforcement suggests that the ______ delay of     reinforcement, the ______ the learning.

A)     greater; slower

B)     less; slower

C)     greater; more accurate

D)     less; less accurate

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of a primary reinforcer?

A)     Grades

B)     Food

C)     Applause

D)     Money

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?

A)     Physical activity

B)     Food

C)     Money

D)     Water

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Food,     water, warmth, novel stimulation, physical activity, and sexual     gratification are all examples of

A)     primary reinforcers.

B)     secondary reinforcers.

C)     tertiary reinforcers.

D)     latent learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Primary     reinforcer is to secondary reinforcer as

A)     classical conditioning is to operant conditioning.

B)     operant conditioning is to classical conditioning.

C)     unlearned is to learned.

D)     learned is to unlearned.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 205

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Reinforcers     that are acquired through learning are called _______ reinforcers.

A)     primary

B)     secondary

C)     classical

D)     conditioned

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Many     psychiatric hospitals offer patients the chance to perform chores in     exchange for tokens. The patients can use these tokens to purchase items     at the hospital store. This system is an example of

A)     secondary reinforcement.

B)     primary reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     cognitive restructuring.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 2105

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     slot machine is programmed to pay the grand prize jackpot only once during     every 100,000 plays. This is an example of a

A)     fixed-ratio schedule.

B)     variable-ratio schedule.

C)     fixed-interval schedule.

D)     variable-interval schedule.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     every response is followed by a reinforcer, this is known as

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     continuous reinforcement.

C)     intermittent reinforcement.

D)     extinction.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If a     student in a classroom was given a piece of candy for every five words     spelled correctly, the student’s behavior is being reinforced on a ______     schedule.

A)     fixed-interval

B)     variable-ratio

C)     fixed-ratio

D)     continuous

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If a     student in a classroom was given a piece of candy for, on average, every     three words correctly spelled, this would be an example of being reinforced     on a ______ schedule.

A)     continuous

B)     variable-interval

C)     fixed-ratio

D)     variable-ratio

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 206

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     interval schedule in operant conditioning, whether fixed or variable, is     based on

A)     the passage of time.

B)     the number of responses.

C)     the intensity of the response.

D)     continuous reinforcement.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 206

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Assume     that your class is going to have an oral quiz on the material in this     chapter. For every two questions in a row that a student gets correct, the     professor will add one point to the classroom participation grade. This is     an example of a ________ schedule of reinforcement.

A)     variable-ratio

B)     fixed-ratio

C)     fixed-interval

D)     variable-interval

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 205–206

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     example of a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement is the case of the

A)     student who is greeted every fifth time she arrives in class.

B)     instructor who is paid every two weeks during the year.

C)     dean who visits the instructor���s class when the mood strikes.

D)     dog who retrieves the paper every day but gets rewarded infrequently.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205–206

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement?

A)     Reinforcement occurs every three minutes.

B)     Reinforcement occurs after two rewards.

C)     Two reinforcers are given every four minutes.

D)     Reinforcement occurs after every 15th correct response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205–206

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Slot     machines are set to pay off on the average of once in every 1,000,000     plays. This is an example of a ______ schedule of reinforcement.

A)     variable-ratio

B)     fixed-ratio

C)     variable-interval

D)     fixed-interval

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 206

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  At     the beginning of the semester your history instructor announced that you     will have a test every three weeks until the end of the semester. What     schedule of reinforcement was being used?

A)     Fixed ratio

B)     Fixed interval

C)     Variable ratio

D)     Variable interval

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 206

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  John’s     toaster is malfunctioning. Sometimes his toast is ready in 10 seconds.     Sometimes he must wait 30 seconds. At times, it can even take several     minutes before the toast is done. The toaster has John on a ________     schedule of reinforcement.

A)     fixed-ratio

B)     fixed-interval

C)     variable-ratio

D)     variable-interval

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 206

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     students in your class wait to read and prepare for an exam until the day     before each regularly scheduled exam, how can you increase their studying     time on a day-to-day basis?

A)     Punish the lack of studying done by students.

B)     Implement penalties for wrong answers from one to two points per question.

C)     Start to praise more in class.

D)     Start giving unannounced pop quizzes.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 205–206

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Sometimes     your old car’s starter will start the car on the first turn of the key,     while other times the starter won’t work until you turn the key numerous     times. Your car starter has created a _______ schedule of reinforcement     for your behavior.

A)     variable-ratio

B)     fixed-ratio

C)     variable-internal

D)     fixed-interval

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 206

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     strategy of reinforcing successive approximations to a complex behavior is     known as

A)     modeling.

B)     shaping.

C)     interval training.

D)     aversive conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     an instructor commends students for asking tentative questions in order to     encourage the asking of more detailed and technical questions, the     instructor is using

A)     classical conditioning.

B) a     conditioned response.

C)     shaping.

D)     primary reinforcement.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Maria’s     boss was unhappy with the way her grooming and dress had deteriorated over     the last few years. Rather than reprimand her, the boss decided to     lavishly praise Maria on days when she was neater and gradually raise his     requirements for praise as Maria became neater and neater. The technique     being planned was

A)     extinction.

B)     shaping.

C)     fixed-interval reinforcement.

D)     variable-interval reinforcement.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 207

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     method of successive approximations is used to achieve the learning goal     of

A)     extinction.

B)     shaping.

C)     generalization.

D)     discrimination.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  With     shaping, the desired outcome or behavior that is the ultimate goal is     called

A)     continuous behavior.

B)     the secondary reinforcer.

C)     the target response.

D)     intermittent succession.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     teenager has been grounded by her parents for not doing the dishes. Mom     tells the teenager that if you do the dishes, then you will not be     grounded anymore. This attempt at behavior change is best described as

A)     habituation.

B)     extinction.

C)     positive reinforcement.

D)     negative reinforcement.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Escape     conditioning causes a behavior to ______, while avoidance conditioning     causes a behavior to ______.

A)     stop; not happen

B)     not happen; stop

C)     start; accelerate

D)     accelerate; start

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     termination of a behavior is known as ______ conditioning, while     preventing the behavior from occurring all along is known as ______     conditioning.

A)     avoidance; escape

B)     generalized; specified

C)     escape; avoidance

D)     specified; generalized

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     student comes to college and is extremely anxious about doing poorly and     flunking out. To calm her fears, the student studies hard and receives all     A’s the first semester. This student has been

A)     positively reinforced.

B)     negatively reinforced.

C)     classically conditioned.

D)     vicariously punished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  After     John was ridiculed by the teacher in his high school English class, he     began cutting class. This can be seen as an example of

A)     avoidance conditioning.

B)     discriminative conditioning.

C)     positive reinforcement.

D)     punishment.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  You     fear that your date may not be receptive to your idea of seeing a new     play, so you do not even mention it. This is an example of

A)     escape behavior.

B)     extinction.

C)     primary reinforcement.

D)     avoidance behavior.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of avoidance conditioning?

A)     Missing a curfew and getting grounded for two weeks

B)     Getting an A on this psychology examination

C)     Taking an aspirin to get rid of a headache

D)     Taking the garbage out before your parents yell at you

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

A)     Learning to avoid your boss by hiding when he comes by your office

B)     Doing your work fast to avoid your boss’s constant nagging about deadlines

C)     Doing your work to gain a bonus

D)     Complimenting your boss every time you see him

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Increase     behavior is to decrease behavior as

A) positive     reinforcement is to negative reinforcement.

B)     punishment is to positive reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement is to punishment.

D)     punishment is to primary reinforcement.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     animal in a Skinner box received a brief electric shock each time a bar     was pressed. Subsequently, the animal stopped pressing the bar due to

A)     escape conditioning.

B)     disinhibition.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     punishment.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Mr.     Harper used to yell at Mrs. Harper for trumping cards unnecessarily when     they played bridge. Instead of improving her play, Mrs. Harper gave up     bridge altogether. This is an example of

A)     the punished individual turning the punishment into reinforcement.

B)     the punished individual learning to dislike the punisher.

C)     punishment’s generalized inhibiting effect.

D)     the punisher feeling reinforced for giving out punishment.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     parent’s spanking behavior increased dramatically after she initially used     it to stop her children from whining. Which danger of punishment has been     demonstrated here?

A)     The criticism trap

B)     Learned helplessness

C)     Punishment is reinforcing to the punisher.

D)     There is no danger demonstrated in the example.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If a     parent threatens a punishment and then backs down when the child begs for     mercy, what will the parent accomplish?

A)     The threatening behavior will be extinguished.

B)     The begging behavior will be negatively reinforced.

C)     The parent will adhere to the guidelines for punishment.

D)     The child’s inappropriate behavior will be extinguished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Punishment     involves a ______ consequence that leads to a(n) ______ in the frequency     of a behavior.

A)     negative; increase

B)     negative; decrease

C)     positive; increase

D)     positive; decrease

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     researchers conclude that punishment has “generalized inhibiting effect,”     what does that mean?

A)     The person delivering the punishment actually experiences negative     reinforcement.

B)     Punishing for one negative behavior generalizes to other negative     behaviors.

C)     Most behaviors tend to stop after punishment, including the positive     behaviors.

D)     We begin to dislike those individuals who deliver the punishment.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     trying to reduce the frequency of behavior using punishment, criticism is     often used by parents and teachers. However, researchers have argued that     this leads to the criticism trap. What is the criticism trap?

A)     The criticism of our children, for any type of misbehavior, can lead to     the decline or inhibition of all behaviors, including positive ones.

B)     Researchers have criticized the use of punishment because of its cruel     nature, especially with the risks of child abuse.

C)     One of the criticisms of punishment is that although it might reduce the     frequency of an undesirable behavior, it does not strengthen an     alternative desirable behavior.

D)     Criticism intending to be a negative consequence is perceived as attention     by the child and therefore is a positive reinforcer.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 209

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     you are going to use punishment, which of the following would be     recommendations based on psychological research?

A) Do     not use physical punishment.

B)     Punish behavior after a time delay.

C)     Only deliver half the punishment necessary.

D)     Punish the person, not the behavior.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Classically     conditioned behaviors are associated with the ______ nervous system, and     operantly conditioned behaviors are associated with the ______ nervous     system.

A)     somatic; autonomic

B)     autonomic; somatic

C)     sympathetic; parasympathetic

D)     parasympathetic; sympathetic

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  It     is ______ conditioning that studies the relationship between a response     and the resulting consequence.

A)     counter

B)     classical

C)     operant

D)     Pavlovian

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     type of conditioning typically involves involuntary, reflexive behaviors?

A)     Observational

B)     Vicarious

C)     Operant

D)     Classical

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning, what does the person (or animal) have to do in     order for learning to occur? The organism (human or animal)

A)     does not have to do anything.

B)     needs to be ready to receive positive reinforcement.

C)     must be resistant to multiple forms of punishment.

D)     has to have reached the age of maturity.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211–212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Classical     conditioning and operant conditioning differ from each other in that operant     conditioning

A)     involves reflexive or involuntary behavior.

B)     occurs independently of behavior.

C)     occurs only if the response being conditioned has been emitted.

D)     is not contingent on the occurrence of a response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211–­212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  How     does classical conditioning differ from operant conditioning? Classical     conditioning involves an association between

A)     two stimuli.

B)     two reinforcers.

C) a     response and a stimulus.

D) a     behavior and a CR.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211–­212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If an     association is made independent of behavior, what type of learning occurs?

A)     Classical conditioning

B)     Insight learning

C)     Operant conditioning

D)     Observational learning

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211–212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  John     loves to receive mail. Over the years, he has learned to tell the     difference between the sound of the mail truck and the other cars and     trucks that pass his house. What process is at work here?

A)     Stimulus discrimination

B)     Stimulus generalization

C)     Response generalization

D)     Vicarious reinforcement

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     pigeon learned to peck a lighted disc for a few bits of grain. The bird     does not peck when the light is off because no grain will be forthcoming.     The light is called the

A)     generalized stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     conditioned response.

D)     discriminative stimulus.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  There     are two vending machines in your dorm. The one on the left always works;     the one on the right is usually broken. You put your money only in the     machine on the left. This is

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     external disinhibition.

C)     stimulus discrimination.

D)     superstitious behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     the state troopers drive yellow Fords in your state, there may be an     immediate braking response when you see any yellow Ford. This reaction is     known as

A)     an escape response.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     superstitious behavior.

D)     stimulus generalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     tendency for similar stimuli to elicit the same response is called

A)     stimulus discrimination.

B)     stimulus disinhibition.

C)     response generalization.

D)     stimulus generalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     your beagle lies down when you say “Dead!,” and you discover that he will     do the same trick when you say the words red, head, or bed, what has taken     place?

A)     Stimulus discrimination

B)     Response discrimination

C)     Stimulus generalization

D)     Vicarious generalization

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     animal emits a response in the presence of a certain tone. If a slightly     higher pitched tone elicits the same response, then stimulus _______ has     taken place.

A)     generalization

B)     chaining

C)     discrimination

D)     disinhibition

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     idea that we can tell the difference between the appropriate occasion for     a response and an inappropriate occasion for a response is known as

A)     the law of effect.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D)     vicarious learning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     opposite of stimulus discrimination is

A)     stimulus acceptance.

B)     delay of inhibition.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D) spontaneous     recovery.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     the original source of learning is removed and a particular response     diminishes, ______ has occurred.

A)     extinction

B)     habituation

C)     disinhibition

D)     excitation

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 214

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the ______, responses that have been continuously reinforced are     extinguished more quickly than responses that were reinforced on variable     interval or variable ratio schedules.

A)     stimulus generalization theory

B)     partial reinforcement effect

C)     spontaneous recovery phenomenon

D)     law of effect

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Avoidance     responses can be extinguished rapidly by using

A)     secondary reinforcers.

B)     spontaneous recovery.

C)     response prevention.

D)     stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     notion of response prevention suggests that avoidance responses can be     extinguished by

A)     pairing two new incompatible responses.

B)     removing the primary reinforcer.

C)     preventing the avoidance from occurring.

D)     pairing new responses with old responses.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  How     does extinction occur in classical conditioning?

A)     The CS is presented without the UCS.

B)     The CR is presented without the UCR

C)     The emitted response is negatively reinforced.

D)     The emitted response is punished.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  You     trained a rat to press a lever using positive reinforcement. When the     behavior was well learned you stopped giving the reward for the     lever-pressing behavior. Most likely, you next discovered that the

A)     lever-pressing behavior increased.

B)     rat developed an avoidance response.

C)     lever-pressing behavior was extinguished.

D)     rat learned stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Maria,     who is fearful of mice, took a job as a lab assistant and found she was     required to handle mice. Gradually, Maria’s fear of mice diminished as she     continued to handle mice. Now Maria is interested in having mice as pets.     How was Maria’s fear removed?

A)     Extinction

B)     Discrimination

C)     Generalization

D)     Spontaneous recovery

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Suppose     that your cat has learned to jump up on your lap during dinner to get     food. In order to stop this, you do not give food to your cat when he     jumps onto your lap. This is an example of

A)     extinction in classical conditioning.

B)     extinction in operant conditioning.

C)     generalization in classical conditioning.

D)     generalization in operant conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Compared     to continuous schedules of reinforcement, partial schedules of     reinforcement

A)     produce the greatest stimulus generalization.

B)     produce lower rates of responding.

C)     are more resistant to extinction.

D)     are less resistant to extinction.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     a conditioned response that was extinguished suddenly returns after an     interval of rest, what has occurred?

A)     External disinhibition

B)     Internal disinhibition

C)     Negative reinforcement

D)     Spontaneous recovery

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 216

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Snickers,     your cocker spaniel, barked at squirrels. After successfully removing this     behavior, you find she has started barking again. This is an example of

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     response generalization.

C)     spontaneous recovery.

D)     superstitious behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Spontaneous     recovery and external disinhibition can occur

A)     only during classical conditioning.

B)     only during operant conditioning.

C)     during both operant and classical extinction.

D)     during both stimulus generalization and discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In a     classical conditioning situation, you present the CS, but it is no longer     paired with the UCS. After a period of time has passed, you present the CS     and the CR returns. When the CR returns during the course of extinction,     it is called

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     response prevention.

D)     spontaneous recovery.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following statements would be a cognitive explanation for learning?

A) A     rat turns right in a maze because it knows where the food has been left.

B) A     rat presses a bar because a connection was made between brain regions.

C) A     person flinches because neural connections to the muscles cause it.

D) A     person stops at a red traffic light because of the connection made in the     brain.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 218

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     connectionist theory of learning suggests that

A)     learning takes place due to changes in thinking patterns in the brain.

B)     neural connections between stimuli and responses are established in the     brain.

C)     behavior improves due to thinking, expectations, beliefs, and perceptions.

D)     behavior improves when cognitive processes are linked to other cognitive     processes.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Of     the following statements, which one would most likely be made by someone     who supports the cognitive view of learning?

A)     We must focus only on readily observable behaviors.

B)     The individual expected the stimulus to occur.

C)     Neural connections in the brain are responsible for behavioral change.

D) A     rat does not learn anything unless it is rewarded.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is best associated with place learning?

A)     Acquiring fixed patterns of muscle movements

B)     Acquiring knowledge of the location of the reinforcer

C)     Learning based on some instinctive, unlearned capacity

D)     Kinesthetic and proprioceptive feedback

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Edward     Tolman developed some ingenious experiments that involved timing how fast     rats could run through mazes to reach a reward. The experiments tended to     support

A)     the cognitive view of learning.

B)     classical conditioning.

C)     the connectionist view of learning.

D)     vicarious reinforcement.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     experimental group of rats was not reinforced for solving a maze problem     for a few days. Several days later, they were reinforced and subsequently     showed similar scores in the maze as rats that had been reinforced from     the beginning of the experiment. Tolman referred to this phenomenon as     _______ learning.

A)     latent

B)     place

C)     insight

D)     modeled

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 218–219

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     explanation did Harlow use to explain why problem-solving ability improved     over trials in his study in which apes had to locate food under objects?

A)     The apes acquired a learning set.

B)     The apes developed a cognitive map.

C)     The apes emitted conditioned responses.

D)     The apes were vicariously reinforced.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 220

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Wolfgang     Köhler, a Gestalt psychologist, described a type of learning that involved     a sudden cognitive change. The term used to describe this learning is

A)     reinforcement.

B)     trial and error.

C)     connectionism.

D)     insight.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 220

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     rats learn to navigate a maze based on the location of food rather than a     series of left-right turns, this study by Tolman lead to the concept of

A)     retroactive disinhibition.

B)     spontaneous recovery.

C) a     cognitive map.

D)     response blockage.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Researchers     have demonstrated that learning can occur in the absence of a reinforcer.     This learning is demonstrated at a later time. The name for this type of     learning is

A)     spontaneous recovery.

B)     observational learning.

C)     classical conditioning.

D)     latent learning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     sudden cognitive change that allows a problem to be solved is

A)     insight.

B)     disinhibition.

C) recognition.

D)     superstition.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 220

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Bandura’s     famous study with the children and the Bobo doll was a demonstration of

A)     operant conditioning.

B)     stimulus generalization.

C)     learning set.

D)     modeling.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 221–222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Reinforcing     the behavior of a model will increase the probability of the same behavior     in the observer. This is called

A)     external disinhibition.

B)     vicarious reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     spontaneous learning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to research studies, what should happen if Scott observes Allison being     rewarded for picking up toys?

A)     Picking up toys will become a discriminate stimulus for Scott.

B)     Scott’s toy picking up behavior will increase.

C)     Scott’s toy picking up behavior will be extinguished.

D)     Scott will associate Allison with secondary reinforcers.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Solid     experimental evidence suggests that children learn behaviors from     television through

A)     latent learning.

B)     modeling.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D)     shaping.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     we see someone else get rewarded for a particular behavior, what is likely     to occur?

A)     External disinhibition

B)     Indirect reinforcement

C)     Superstitious behavior

D)     Vicarious reinforcement

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Bandura’s     term for learning by watching others is

A)     dissociation.

B)     modeling.

C)     inhibition.

D) disinhibition.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     learning by watching others, we tend to learn more from a model we see     being reinforced. Learning by watching someone else’s reinforcement is called     ______ reinforcement.

A)     continuous

B)     classical

C)     vicarious

D)     intermittent

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     observing others modeling behavior for us, which of the following characteristics     would lead to the highest likelihood of imitating the model’s behavior?

A)     Very unsuccessful

B)     Not likable

C)     Unattractive

D)     High status

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  It is     easier to classically condition a fear of ______ compared to a fear of     ______.

A)     snakes; lunch boxes

B)     electrical outlets; blood

C)     candy; heights

D)     skate keys; alligators

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     the pairing of a food and nausea occur once yet lead to the avoidance of     that food, this describes the classical conditioning process of

A)     fixed-ratio reinforcement.

B)     the law of effect.

C)     learned taste aversion.

D)     superstitious food behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 223

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  138.     The fact that it is easier to condition a fear of things that have some     intrinsic association with danger suggests that people are _______ prepared     to learn certain kinds of fear.

A)     psychologically

B)     biologically

C)     intuitively

D)     latently

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 223

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Helen     used to love bananas. Then one day she ate nine bananas and got sick. Over     the next 45 years, Helen never ate another banana. Helen’s behavioral     change concerning bananas is called a

A)     learning set.

B)     vicarious punishment.

C)     learned taste aversion.

D)     stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 223

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  J.     J. became extremely nauseous two hours after eating a fried corn dog at     the county fair. Through this experience she learned to dislike corn dogs.     What was the UCS in this example?

A)     The corn dog

B)     Time

C)     The county fair

D)     Nausea

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 223

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Some     guidelines for chemotherapy patients have been developed through our     understanding of how learned taste aversions are conditioned. Which of the     following would help a chemotherapy patient avoid a learned taste     aversion?

A)     Eating ice cream after a treatment

B)     Fasting before a treatment and playing video games

C)     Waiting two hours after a treatment before eating

D)     Eating novel foods with the meal preceding the treatment

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 224

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learned     taste aversions are an example of the role of _______ factors in learning.

A)     biological

B)     cognitive

C)     experiential

D)     maturational

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 223

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

 True/False Questions

  All     changes in behavior are the result of learning.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page:194

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learning     is any relatively permanent change in behavior due to the passage of time.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 194

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Ivan     Pavlov is considered one of the first to study what is now called     classical conditioning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 195

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     key element in classical conditioning is association.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 196

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning, learning will occur more quickly when the UCS     precedes the CS.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 203–204

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     Pavlov’s classic experiment, the unconditioned stimulus was the sound of a     metronome.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 195–197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     abbreviation UCS stands for uncontrollable stimulus.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 197

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  For     an infant to unlearn a fear response that has been classically     conditioning, the process of counterconditioning can be used.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 201

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Observational     learning is the form of learning in which the consequences of behavior     lead to changes in the likelihood of that behavior reoccurring.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Operant     conditioning was first described by John B. Watson based on the study of     Little Albert.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Positive     reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment are terms associated     with operant conditioning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204–205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Positive     reinforcement is more effective when the delay of reinforcement is     minimized.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Secondary     reinforcers are acquired through learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Money     is a primary reinforcer.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  On a     variable interval schedule, the reinforcer is obtained only after a     varying number of responses have been made.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205–206

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In a     ratio schedule of reinforcement, the number of responses made determines     when the reinforcer will be given.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 205

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     method of successive approximations is also called shaping.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     ultimate goal of negative reinforcement is to strengthen behavior.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Escape     conditioning is a type of positive reinforcement.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     the frequency of a behavior decreases following a negative consequence,     punishment has occurred.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     ultimate goal of punishment is to strengthen behavior.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     operant conditioning, the individual does not have to do anything for     learning to occur.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     classical conditioning behaviors are elicited, while in operant     conditioning behaviors are emitted.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Stimulus     discrimination occurs in classical conditioning but not in operant     conditioning.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211–212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     opposite of stimulus discrimination is stimulus generalization.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS, eventually the CR will no     longer appear because the original learning environment has changed. This process     is called extinction.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 214

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Responses     that have been continuously reinforced are harder to extinguish than     responses that have been reinforced on a variable ratio schedule.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Response     prevention is a technique used to extinguish avoidance responses.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     after some extinction has occurred, the CS is presented and an occasional     CR is observed, this is called response prevention.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The cognitive     view of learning suggests that learning occurs due to neural connections     in the brain.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 217

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Edward     Tolman’s work on place learning and latent learning supported the     cognitive interpretation of learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218–219

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Harlow’s     work with monkeys showed that learning sets enhance insight learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 220

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Rats     who know where something is in a maze relative to a starting place possess     a cognitive map.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     process of watching another person receiving reinforcement is called     vicarious reinforcement.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learning     by observing the behavior of others is called modeling.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 221–222

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Learned     taste aversion is an example of operant conditioning at work.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 223

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

11 MOTIVATION AND EMOTION

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  Why     are motivation and emotion closely linked concepts?

A)     Motives are often accompanied by emotion.

B)     Both involve homeostatic mechanisms.

C)     They are opponent processes.

D)     Emotions are primary motives.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 351

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Because     motivation cannot be directly observed, it must be inferred from

A)     psychophysiology.

B)     emotions.

C)     behaviors.

D)     EEG patterns.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     best definition of emotion would include

A)     feelings, arousal, and behavior.

B)     sensations and cognitions.

C)     environmental changes and subjectivity.

D)     homeostasis and primary motives.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  How     are motivation and emotion similar?

A)     They both develop incentives.

B)     They both satisfy needs.

C)     They both activate behavior.

D)     They both regulate homeostasis.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Motivation     concerns the ______ state that activates and gives direction to thought.

A)     internal

B)     external

C)     neutral

D)     extrinsic

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     definition of emotion includes both ______ and ______ feelings that are     accompanied by arousal and behavior.

A)     intrinsic; extrinsic

B)     positive; negative

C)     past; future

D)     internal; external

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is considered a primary motive?

A)     Praise

B)     Satisfaction

C)     Food

D)     Money

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Primary     motives are important because if we do not satisfy these motives, we

A)     have low self-esteem.

B)     are dissatisfied.

C)     are lonely.

D)     die.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     is the direct role of homeostatic mechanisms?

A) To     maintain a balance of the body’s essential needs

B) To     minimize pain and maximize pleasure

C) To     seek daring sensations and to avoid danger

D) To     avoid danger and seek out safety

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 352

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Internal     mechanisms of the body that regulate essential life elements are known as

A)     homeostatic mechanisms.

B)     primary drives.

C) secondary     drives.

D)     maintenance mechanisms.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 352

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Human     body temperature fluctuates around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. The body     maintains this temperature through a process called

A)     primary motivation.

B)     drive reduction.

C)     homeostasis.

D)     optimal arousal.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 352

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     reason that the sex motive is considered a primary motive is that

A) sex     is primarily instinctual rather than learned.

B)     the sex drive is not a biologically regulated mechanism.

C)     sex is not a bodily need necessary for personal health.

D)     sex is essential for the survival of the species.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 366

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     do hunger, thirst, and temperature regulation have in common?

A)     They are controlled by the thalamus.

B)     They are under homeostatic control.

C)     They are understood by the Yerkes-Dodson law.

D)     They are not self-regulating.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 352

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is a primary motive?

A)     Sex

B)     Acceptance

C)     Love

D)     Achievement

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 366

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     the feeding center in a rat’s hypothalamus is destroyed, what will happen     to the rat’s behavior?

A)     The rat will continue to eat normally.

B)     The rat will crave fat-laden foods.

C)     The rat will stop eating.

D)     The rat will overeat to obesity.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     condition called hyperphagia will occur if which brain area is damaged?

A)     Paraventricular nucleus

B)     Lateral hypothalamus

C)     Feeding center

D)     Satiety center

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Your     hunger center is located in the __________ hypothalamus, and your satiety     center is located in the __________ hypothalamus.

A)     lateral; paraventricular

B)     ventromedial; lateral

C)     paraventricular; ventromedial

D)     lateral; ventromedial

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  How     do stomach contractions cue the regulation of hunger?

A)     They release glucose into the bloodstream.

B)     They signal the lateral hypothalamus.

C)     They stimulate the satiety center.

D)     They produce a state of hyperphagia.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 353

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     brain area responsible for controlling blood-sugar levels is the

A)     paraventricular nucleus.

B)     lateral hypothalamus.

C)     satiety center.

D)     feeding center.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 353

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Jennifer     had a craving for milk and dairy products, which she normally avoids.     Later, she learned she had a calcium deficiency. Her craving could have     been the result of

A) a     specific hunger.

B)     hyperphagia.

C)     an incentive.

D)     homeostasis.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     our bodies need certain food substances, like a vitamin or protein,

A)     the thalamus initiates eating behavior.

B)     blood fat and blood sugar levels rise.

C)     specific hungers may develop.

D)     homeostasis creates pituitary activation.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 353

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Laboratory     research with animals indicated that weight can be pushed above the     natural set point by

A)     intrinsic motivation.

B)     homeostasis.

C)     novel stimulation.

D)     incentives.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 354

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following plays the largest role in the control of hunger?

A)     Stomach

B)     Hypothalamus

C)     Small intestine

D)     Large intestine

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 352

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     feeding system is located in the ______ hypothalamus, and the satiety     system is located in the ______ hypothalamus.

A)     ventromedial; lateral

B)     upper; lower

C)     lateral; ventromedial

D)     lower; upper

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If a     person is satiated, it means that she is

A)     hungry and will gorge herself for hours.

B)     full but still wants more dessert.

C)     hungry yet has no desire to eat.

D)     full and does not need to eat anymore.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 353

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Concerning     body weight, your set point is analogous to a

A)     thermostat.

B)     drill press.

C)     dishwasher.

D)     garden hose.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 354

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     rate at which cells use energy is called

A)     hyperphagia.

B)     metabolism.

C)     set point.

D)     calorization.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 354

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     decrease in total body fluids causes an increase in cellular

A)     activity.

B)     hydration.

C)     sodium concentration.

D) potassium     concentration.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     an antidiuretic hormone is secreted into the bloodstream and reaches the     kidneys, the kidneys

A)     release insulin into the bloodstream.

B)     increase water consumption.

C)     shut down.

D)     conserve water.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Even     though the center for hunger and thirst is in the _______, different     _______ are involved.

A)     liver; incentives

B)     kidneys; insulin levels

C)     small intestine; receptor sites

D)     hypothalamus; neurotransmitters

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Surgical     destruction of the drink center causes an animal to

A)     have a very dry mouth.

B)     drink excessive amounts of water.

C)     refuse water.

D)     secrete ADH.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 355

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     message to drink fluids is sent to the cerebral cortex when the level of     sodium salts _______ on the _______ of body cells.

A)     increases; outside

B)     increases; inside

C)     decreases; outside

D)     decreases; inside

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     specialized cells in the drink center become dehydrated, what will happen     next?

A)     The kidneys will produce angiotensin.

B)     The hypothalamus will produce sodium.

C)     The pituitary gland will release ADH.

D)     Sodium salts will enter body cells.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is a cue that regulates drinking?

A)     Blood potassium levels

B)     Blood sugar levels

C)     Total blood volume

D)     Intracellular blood volume

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 355–356

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     message to drink is sent when

A)     too little ADH is detected by the kidneys.

B)     the kidneys detect too much glycogen.

C)     ADH is detected by the hypothalamus.

D)     angiotensin is detected by the hypothalamus.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 355–356

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Avoidance     of boredom is best classified as an example of which of the following     needs?

A) A     primary need

B) A     psychological need

C)     The need for affiliation

D) A     homeostatic need

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 356

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Experiments     have shown that monkeys will work quite hard to peer through a window at     such things as model trains going around. What best explains why they will     do this?

A)     It satisfies a homeostatic drive.

B)     It provides novel stimulation.

C)     It satisfies the Yerkes-Dodson law.

D)     Watching fulfills a biological incentive.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 357

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Suppose     you have noticed that people waiting to see a physician prefer to wait in     a room with pictures and plants rather than in a room without them. This     suggests a need for

A)     affiliation.

B)     belonging.

C)     social stimulation.

D)     novel stimulation.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 357

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  You     are working for a promotion to a higher-paying job. You learned that to     qualify you must earn a score of 80 percent on a placement test.     Therefore, you buy three practice books and take an expensive,     time-consuming course to guarantee that your score will be much higher     than the required 80 percent. You are expressing

A)     the need for attention.

B)     optimal arousal.

C)     the need for power.

D)     achievement motivation.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 360

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following people is displaying the highest achievement motivation?

A) A     person who prepares nutritious meals for health purposes.

B) A     person who strives to prepare meals that bring enjoyment.

C) A     person who strives to master the fine art of cooking.

D) A     person who wants to reward a colleague with a fine meal.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 360

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In a     research study of achievement motivation, students who made the lowest     grades in a course rated themselves low in the area of _______ at the     beginning of the course.

A)     performance-avoidance goals

B)     opponent goals

C)     mastery goals

D)     extrinsic performance goals

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 361

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Jami     has traced his restless feelings to the dull, repetitious, unexciting     lifestyle he has been leading. He plans to bring some fun into his life by     doing at least one highly physical activity each week. The source of     Jami’s motivation is most likely

A)     drive reduction.

B)     opponent processes.

C)     need for affiliation.

D)     optimum arousal.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     theory proposes that behavior may be aimed at increasing or decreasing     alertness and activity depending on the circumstances?

A)     Optimal level of arousal

B)     Yerkes-Dodson law

C)     James-Lange theory

D)     Novel stimulation theory

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following situations is a clear violation of the optimal level of     arousal theory?

A) A     tired new mother takes a relaxing bath while her child cries.

B)     An overburdened student starts a new job during finals week.

C)     An anxiety-ridden secretary decides to change jobs.

D) A     stressed executive watches a movie during lunch break.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the Yerkes-Dodson law, performance is generally best under which     condition?

A)     High arousal

B) Low     arousal

C)     Moderate arousal

D) No     arousal

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     you were a very good tennis player, having lots of people in the stands     would likely

A)     not affect your performance.

B)     detract from your performance.

C)     enhance your performance.

D)     minimize your arousal.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 358

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is best linked to the activity of the reticular     formation?

A)     Hunger

B)     Arousal

C)     Thirst

D) Affiliation

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 358

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  How     are psychological motives and biological motives related?

A)     Psychological motives are not directly related to biological survival.

B)     Psychological motives are completely driven by biological needs.

C)     Biological needs are rarely influenced by psychological motives.

D)     Psychology motives and biological motives are synonymous.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 357

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following statements most accurately depicts what is meant by     seeking novel stimulation? Humans and other animals tend to

A)     prefer physical stimulation over psychological stimulation.

B)     try to find novel situations and environments.

C)     stimulate themselves prior to stimulating others.

D)     seek out the most soothing environments available.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 357

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Too     little arousal and performance may be inadequate; too much arousal and     performance may be disrupted and disorganized. The notion that the optimal     arousal level is somewhere between these two extremes is known as the

A)     Nelson hypothesis.

B)     James-Lange theory.

C)     Yerkes-Dodson law.

D)     Cannon-Bard theory.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Generally     speaking, humans prefer to have regular contact with other people, and     this preference is known as

A)     self-actualization.

B)     the Yerkes-Dodson law.

C)     optimal arousal theory.

D)     need for affiliation.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 359

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     you work very hard in your psychology class to avoid getting a low grade,     then you would be said to have

A)     performance-avoidance goals.

B)     mastery goals.

C)     performance approach goals.

D)     low grade orientation.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 360

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following statements is a component of Solomon’s opponent-process     theory of motivation?

A) A     positive feeling is followed by a feeling of numbness.

B)     Positive feelings turn out to just be nonnegative feelings.

C) A     positive feeling is followed by a contrasting negative feeling.

D)     Feelings are neither positive nor negative, but merely neutral.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 361

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is the opponent-process theory particularly good at     explaining?

A)     Motives that are difficult to understand

B)     How primary motives are learned

C)     The motivation for novel stimulation

D)     How people become self-actualized

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 361

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Jim     drinks on a daily basis because of the euphoria he feels. If you follow     the opponent-process model, you would predict that over time Jim would     feel his euphoria _______ intensely and his withdrawals _______ intensely.

A)     less; less

B)     less; more

C)     more; more

D) more;     less

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 361–362

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     opponent-process principle of emotions is exemplified in which of the     following situations?

A)     Tom became angry when Jim asked Darlene to the prom before Tom had a     chance to ask her.

B)     The promotion was thrilling, but once the novelty wore off there was     somewhat of a letdown.

C)     Foot racers run faster when they are in actual competition than in     practice alone.

D)     Performance on a history test will deteriorate if you are either too     nervous or too apathetic about it.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 361–362

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     spite of the fact that he sold only two paintings in his entire life,     Vincent van Gogh painted for hours each day. He most likely was motivated     by

A)     opponent-processes.

B)     extrinsic factors.

C)     intrinsic factors.

D)     novel stimulation.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 362–363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     internal desire to do good just for the sake of doing good is evidence of     _______ motivation.

A)     competence

B)     incentive

C)     extrinsic

D)     intrinsic

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 362–363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     parent who pays a child for good grades is offering the child _______     motivation.

A)     extrinsic

B)     intrinsic

C)     incentive

D)     internal

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  A     child who cleans up his room every day because he wants his $2 allowance     on Saturday is

A)     self-actualizing.

B)     extrinsically motivated.

C)     intrinsically motivated.

D)     probably a Type B personality.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  There     is evidence to suggest that if a behavior is infrequent and low in     intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation will

A)     cause the individual to seek other activities.

B)     have very little effect on the behavior.

C)     decrease the frequency of the behavior.

D)     increase the frequency of the behavior.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Research     indicates that if a behavior is intrinsically motivated, giving a reward     will

A)     heighten intrinsic motivation.

B)     diminish intrinsic motivation.

C)     not affect motivation.

D)     increase the behavioral repertoire.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     the inherent nature of an activity is rewarding to you, then ______ motivation     may be the explanation for why you participate in that activity.

A)     extrinsic

B)     medial

C)     external

D)     intrinsic

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     you are paying your child for every correct math problem on tonight’s     homework, and the child wouldn’t even work on math if left up to him, the     use of money would be taken as an example of ______ motivation.

A)     extrinsic

B)     intrinsic

C)     natural

D)     paid

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Praise     can increase intrinsic motivation when the praise

A)     implies that success was due to natural ability.

B)     does not compare the child to other children.

C)     states that the adult is actually controlling the child.

D)     does compare the child to other children.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     Maslow’s hierarchy of motives, lower needs

A)     tend to be satisfied last.

B)     are never really satisfied.

C)     must be satisfied before higher needs.

D)     are just as important as all other needs.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 364

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     highest and most difficult need to be satisfied in Maslow’s hierarchy of     motives is

A)     socialization.

B)     belongingness.

C)     safety.

D)     self-actualization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 364

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  “Higher     motives become unimportant when lower motives are unmet” is a prediction     based on whose theory?

A)     Maslow

B)     Cannon

C)     James

D)     Bard

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 364

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     lowest or most basic needs in Maslow’s classification system are called     _______ needs.

A) biological

B)     safety

C)     social

D)     self-esteem

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 364

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?

A)     Going to a show early to get the best seat

B)     Working hard to make more money

C)     Playing sports because you love to

D)     Achieving goals because others want you to

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 362–363

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to Maslow’s needs hierarchy, what motives will be most prominent in a     person’s behavior?

A)     Self-actualization motives

B)     Social and self-esteem motives

C)     Primary drives that are easily attained

D)     The lowest, unsatisfied motives

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 364–365

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Research     concerning Maslow’s hierarchy of needs has suggested that

A)     self-actualization does not exist.

B)     love appears to be a greater need than safety.

C)     self-esteem is extrinsically motivated.

D)     higher needs may be pursued while lower needs are unmet.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 364–365

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     first phase of the sexual response cycle is the ______ phase.

A)     excitement

B)     orgasmic

C)     plateau

D)     resolution

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     involuntary and simultaneous experience of involuntary spasms of many     muscle groups during a sexual experience is known as

A)     resolution.

B)     an orgasm.

C)     Nirvana.

D)     the plateau.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     refractory period during sexual activity occurs only in

A)     adults over 65 years of age.

B)     those taking medication.

C)     men.

D)     women.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Masters     and Johnson identified four components of the human sexual response cycle.     What are they (in the order that they occur)?

A)     Resolution, excitement, orgasmic, plateau

B)     Resolution, excitement, plateau, orgasmic

C)     Excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution

D)     Plateau, resolution, excitement, orgasmic

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Changes     in physiological arousal are first detected in the _______ phase of the     sexual response cycle.

A)     plateau

B)     resolution

C)     orgasmic

D)     excitement

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     second phase in the human sexual response cycle is the

A)     excitement phase.

B)     plateau phase.

C)     orgasm phase.

D)     resolution phase.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     sexual pleasure is very high but not yet at its peak, the person has most     likely reached the _______ phase of sexual response.

A)     excitement

B)     orgasmic

C)     refractory

D)     plateau

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     shortest phase of the sexual response cycle is the

A)     refractory period.

B)     orgasmic phase.

C)     excitement phase.

D)     resolution phase.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  If     Joe is in the resolution phase of the sexual response cycle, he

A)     may be experiencing a refractory period.

B)     will be able to produce an erection.

C)     has not yet achieved orgasm.

D)     All of the above are correct.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  During     which phase of the human sexual response cycle does the refractory period     occur?

A)     Resolution

B)     Plateau

C)     Orgasmic

D)     Ejaculatory

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     major difference(s) between the male and female sexual response cycle(s)     is/are that

A)     males experience refractory periods.

B)     males do not experience the plateau phase and have a shorter excitement     phase than females.

C)     females reach the plateau phase only after multiple orgasms.

D) males     experience refractory periods, and females may experience multiple     orgasms.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 367

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     addition to regulating hunger and thirst, which brain structure is     involved in the sexual motive?

A)     Prostate gland

B)     Pineal gland

C)     Hippocampus

D)     Hypothalamus

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 368

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     is the name given to the pattern of behavior that occurs when a sexually     fatigued male regains sexual vigor following introduction to a new sex     partner?

A)     Coolidge effect

B)     Sexual machismo

C)     Krafft-Ebing effect

D)     Refractory period

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 368

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     study of the sexual life style of the Mangaians serves as an example that     the sexual motive is

A)     affected by the Coolidge effect.

B)     necessary for individual survival in some cultures.

C)     very different from other primary motives.

D)     influenced by learning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 368

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Although     the sex drive itself is biological, the way it is expressed is largely a     matter of

A)     drives, motives, and needs.

B)     innate behaviors.

C)     learning.

D)     predisposition.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 368

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  For     many mammals, variety in partners is a powerful external factor in     understanding sexual motivation. This preference for variety is also know     as the

A)     Coolidge effect.

B)     exhibitionism preference.

C)     law of fertilization.

D)     harassment phenomenon.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 368

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     the animal world, what does it mean to be “in heat”?

A)     Females are receptive to sexual intercourse because they are ovulating.

B)     Males are receptive to sexual intercourse because they are producing     sperm.

C)     Females are receptive to sexual intercourse because the critical period     has arrived.

D) Males     are receptive to sexual intercourse because they are experiencing pain.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 369

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     many lower animals, sexual motivation is most closely driven by

A)     biological factors.

B)     individual survival.

C)     psychological factors.

D)     level of male estrogen.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 369–370

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following factors is most relevant to human sexual behavior?

A) The     odors produced by possible sexual partners

B)     The availability of an attractive sexual partner in an appropriate setting

C)     The phase of the female menstrual cycle

D)     The time that has expired between sexual encounters

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 370

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     a biologist tells you it is the rutting season for deer, it means the     _______ deer are _______.

A)     female; ovulating

B)     male; producing sperm

C)     female; infertile

D)     male; infertile

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 370

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     percentage of people in committed relationships reported that they receive     great physical pleasure from sex?

A)     90%

B)     77%

C)     63%

D)     51%

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Sexual     attitude surveys of men and women reveal great differences between these     groups. Which of the following might explain some of the differences?

A)     Most women are not telling the truth about their sexual feelings.

B)     Most men are bragging about their preferences.

C) A     small group of women say they would prefer no sex at all during the next     30 years.

D) A     small group of men say they would prefer a great many sex partners.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 371

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  About     ______ of males and ______ of females have had five or more sex partners     in the past year according to research.

A)     2%; 5%

B)     5%; 2%

C)     5%; 9%

D)     9%; 5%

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 371

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     technical term for someone who is sexually attracted to both same-sex and     opposite sex partners is

A)     homosexual.

B)     bisexual.

C)     heterosexual.

D)     transsexual.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Among     men, what percentage report that they have had sex with another male since     puberty?

A)     0.9%

B)     9%

C)     19%

D)     29%

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Among     women, what percentage identifies themselves as lesbian or bisexual?

A)     0.28%

B)     2.8%

C)     0.14%

D)     1.4%

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Homosexual     and heterosexual are terms that distinguish

A)     what sex you are.

B)     sexual orientation.

C)     sexual identity.

D)     gender identity.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Those     who are sexually attracted to both members of their same sex and members     of the other sex are said to be

A)     androgynous.

B)     homosexual.

C)     bisexual.

D)     unisexual.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Whether     a man develops a heterosexual or homosexual orientation may be     biologically related to the

A)     daily level of circulating testosterone.

B)     structure of his hypothalamus.

C)     inheritance of an XXY chromosome pattern.

D)     release of female sex hormones during puberty.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 374

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to Watson and Tellegen’s emotional map, all human emotions can be thought     of as different combinations of

A)     love and hate.

B)     happiness and sadness.

C)     positive and negative emotions.

D)     arousal and experience.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 376

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     the Watson and Tellegren model of emotion, what distinguishes fear from     anger?

A)     The higher negative emotional value of anger

B)     Situational factors

C)     The type of physiological arousal

D)     The higher positive emotional value of fear

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     theory that suggests that all human emotions can be thought of as the     combination of two basic elements—positive and negative emotions—comes     from

A)     James and Lange

B)     Watson and Tellegen

C)     Schachter and Singer

D)     Cannon and Bard

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 376

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     understanding emotions, it is the ______ that provokes a reaction from an     individual.

A)     related behavior

B)     physiological arousal

C)     stimulus situation

D)     conscious experience

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following would be an accurate depiction of the James-Lange theory     of emotion?

A)     Sorry feelings and crying are unrelated.

B)     We cry and feel sorry simultaneously.

C)     We cry because we feel sorry.

D)     We feel sorry because we cry.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 377

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Of     the 44 muscles in the human face, ______ are devoted solely to emotional     expression.

A)     40

B)     30

C)     20

D)     10

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 37–3787

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     ______ theory of emotion suggests that we first interpret the incoming     stimuli from the environment, and then interpret the stimuli from the body     from the autonomic arousal caused.

A)     Izard

B)     cognitive

C)     Cannon-Bard

D)     James-Lange

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 379

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Internal     organs respond too slowly to autonomic nervous system stimulation to     provide the nearly instantaneous emotions involved in highly arousing     experiences. This was a criticism of the _______ theory of emotion.

A)     Yerkes-Dodson

B)     James-Lange

C)     Schachter-Singer

D)     Cannon-Bard

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 377

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the James-Lange theory, an environmental stimulus

A)     is perceived as emotional by the hypothalamus.

B)     triggers a bodily reaction that is labeled by the brain.

C)     is emotional because of cultural and social expectations.

D)     causes arousal if it appears to be threatening.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the predictions of the James-Lange theory of emotions, which of the     following is true?

A)     You have an emotional reaction and then you respond.

B)     Perceptions follow emotional arousal.

C)     You interpret your body’s reactions as emotions.

D)     You feel sad, so you begin to frown and cry.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     theory of emotion supports the belief that the experience of an emotion     occurs simultaneously with bodily arousal?

A)     Opponent-process

B)     James-Lange

C)     Cannon-Bard

D)     Facial feedback

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 378–379

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  You     see a grizzly bear in the forest. You are afraid and start to run away.     According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what is the precise relationship     between the fear and the running?

A)     Fear is followed by running.

B)     Fear and running happen simultaneously.

C)     Running is followed by fear.

D)     Running and fear are unrelated.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 378–379

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Cognitive     theories of emotion predict that we

A)     think before we feel.

B)     feel before we think.

C)     act before we feel.

D)     act before we think.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 379

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to Schachter and Singer, the specific emotion we experience depends on the

A)     rate of firing of neurons leading from the hypothalamus to the neocortex.

B)     specific patterns of heart rate, blood pressure, and skin resistance.

C)     the sensory feedback from the reaction of facial muscles to a specific     stimulus.

D)     environmental circumstances to which we attribute our arousal.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 379

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     their studies of emotion, Schachter and Singer concluded that the     autonomic arousal that accompanies emotion

A) is     not important to the cognitive interpretation of emotion.

B) is     similar for all emotions.

C)     occurs after the emotion has been interpreted.

D)     can be used to determine the emotion being experienced.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 379

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions,

A)     you feel nervous because you notice yourself sweating.

B)     you sweat because you feel nervous.

C)     your sweating coincides with feeling nervous.

D)     you feel nervous after you stop sweating.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 378–379

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     Cannon-Bard theory of emotions claims that the physiological arousal     associated with emotion _______ the cognitive experience of emotion.

A)     is independent of

B)     leads to

C)     is caused by

D)     interferes with

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 378–379

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     in a room watching a film containing pain and injury, which of the     following statements accurately depicts the cultural differences in the     public expression of negative emotions?

A)     The Americans tend to express fewer negative emotions.

B)     The Japanese tend to express fewer negative emotions.

C)     The Americans tend to express no emotion at all.

D)     The Japanese tend to express more negative emotions.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 381–382

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  College     students from African countries are more likely to believe that their     negative emotions as being caused by

A)     environmental toxins.

B)     internal thoughts.

C)     other people.

D)     abject poverty.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 382

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     psychological study of happiness has

A)     been a topic of study for over 100 years.

B)     been a serious topic of research for only 10–15 years.

C)     been studied so long that only conflicting theories persist.

D)     led to no new insights about motivation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 382

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Surveys     of happiness in different countries around the world reveal that

A)     rich and poor people experience comparable levels of happiness.

B)     rich people suffer more stress and less happiness than poor people.

C)     rich people label themselves as happy more often than poor people.

D)     happiness does not depend on being rich or poor.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 383

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Rich     people report more feelings of happiness than do poor people. One possible     explanation is that

A)     people from countries that enjoy more freedoms are usually more affluent.

B)     rich people are smarter than average.

C)     poor people lack introspection and knowledge of their feelings.

D)     rich people, when surveyed, tend to avoid mentioning any negative     feelings.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 383

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  People     with strongly held religious beliefs

A)     may be happier than others.

B)     may be less happy than others.

C)     can’t be predicted to be happier because of these beliefs or feelings.

D)     All of the above are research-based findings.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 383

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Personality     and happiness are

A)     unrelated traits.

B)     environmentally determined or linked.

C)     genetically determined or linked.

D)     based upon cultural factors that shape learning.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 383–384

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     is the relationship between the number of friends a person has and their     happiness?

A)     The number of friends a person has is not related to a person’s overall     happiness.

B)     People with more friends tend to be much happier than people with fewer     friends.

C)     People with the fewest number of friends actually turn out to be the     happiest people.

D)     People with more friends tend to be slightly happier than people with     fewer friends.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 383

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Which     of the following holds true for those who are happy with their work?

A)     They are deeply involved in their daily activities.

B)     They are extrinsically motivated to perform well.

C)     They have insurmountable challenges to overcome.

D)     They are driven to make a lot of money.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 383

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  To     say that someone is extroverted means that they are socially

A)     shy.

B)     outgoing.

C)     inept.

D)     competent.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 383

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  People     who tend to score ______ on neuroticism tend to score _____ on happiness.

A)     low; low

B)     high; high

C)     low; high

D)     middle; high

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 383–384

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     is the leading cause of death for African-American males?

A)     Cigarette smoking

B)     Violence

C)     Heart disease

D)     Diabetes

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Freud’s     instinct theory suggests that people ______ aggressive instincts.

A)     never really possess

B)     learn from their parents

C)     develop over time

D)     are born with

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     Freudian term for releasing instinctual aggressive energy is

A)     catharsis.

B)     manifest content.

C)     sublimation.

D)     latent content.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  It     is the ______ theory that suggests that aggression is a natural reaction     to one’s inability to attain desired goals.

A)     Freudian instinct

B)     frustration-aggression

C)     Izard cognitive

D)     social learning

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to social learning theory, people are aggressive because

A)     they were born with aggressive tendencies and have no other choice.

B)     the attainment of an important goal was blocked.

C)     they learned there was a benefit to being aggressive.

D)     they realize that others around them are superior to themselves.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 387

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Based     on research, which of the following is one of the five basic beliefs     thought to foster war?

A)     Trusting government

B)     Just society

C)     Inferiority

D)     Helplessness

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 387–388

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  What     term did Freud use to describe the release of pent-up emotional energy?

A)     Frustration

B)     Catharsis

C)     Cathexis

D)     Projection

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Aggression     brought on when you are blocked from attaining a goal is called

A)     catharsis.

B)     cathexis.

C)     frustration.

D)     projectionism.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 387

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     belief that engaging in competitive sports or watching violent sports can     lead to a reduction of violent behavior is compatible with

A)     social learning theory.

B)     frustration-aggression theory.

C)     Freud’s instinct theory.

D)     Bandura’s theory of aggression.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     frustration-aggression hypothesis maintains that

A)     frustration is a natural consequence of aggressive behavior.

B)     frustration and aggression are unlearned patterns of behavior.

C)     aggression is a natural reaction to frustration.

D)     both frustration and aggression result from social learning.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 386

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  You     attend a seminar on aggression, and a speaker says that the frequency of     violent acts is correlated with high unemployment rates. What theory of     aggression would the speaker most likely agree with?

A)     Freud’s instinct theory

B)     Frustration-aggression theory

C)     Cannon-Bard theory

D)     Bandura’s social learning theory

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 38–3876

Style: Applied

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Social     learning theory suggests that catharsis in the form of hitting a punching     bag or throwing things will lead to

A)     fewer violent acts when frustrated.

B)     an increase in violent behavior.

C)     better social interactions.

D)     learning acceptable ways to vent frustration.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 387

Style: Conceptual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Research     studies examining the heat and aggression theory have found correlations     between high temperatures and

A)     robberies.

B)     deadly assaults.

C)     overall crime rates.

D)     stalking.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386–387

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Recent     research indicates that the number of youth joining gangs is ______ and     the amount of violence committed by gangs is ______.

A)     increasing; increasing

B)     increasing; decreasing

C)     decreasing; increasing

D)     decreasing; decreasing

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 388

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Who     is most likely to respect an aggressive adolescent?

A) A     high school teacher

B)     Another aggressive adolescent

C) A     parent

D)     Another nonaggressive adolescent

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 388

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

 True/False Questions

  Motivation     refers to external stimuli that give direction to our actions.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     most important aspect of emotion is that it gives direction to our     thoughts, feelings, and actions.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Motivation     refers to an external state that activates and gives direction to our     thoughts.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     need for food and water is a primary motive.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Primary     motives are necessary for survival.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 351

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     biological control center for hunger is the homeostatic relationship     between stomach fullness and emptiness.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 352

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Body     fat levels are detected by the hypothalamus and are a cue for the     long-term maintenance of body weight.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 353

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     stop feeding system for food is located in the ventromedial hypothalamus.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 3532

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     pituitary gland is involved in the monitoring of thirst levels.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 355

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Mouth     dryness is the main cue that regulates drinking.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 355

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Optimal     arousal theory states that too much stimulation will motivate us to find     ways to decrease the stimulation.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 357

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the Yerkes-Dodson law, high levels of arousal are always associated     with high levels of performance.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 358

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     Yerkes-Dodson law offers a plausible explanation for humanity’s need for     achievement.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 358

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     opponent-process theory of motivation suggests that every negative feeling     is followed by a contrasting positive feeling.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 361

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  According     to the opponent-process theory of motivation, when a feeling is     experienced over and over, it loses its intensity.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 361

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  People     with high mastery goals are extrinsically motivated to achieve.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 360

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  When     intrinsic motivation to perform a behavior is high, giving external     rewards will increase the frequency of the behavior.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  People     who are highly motivated to achieve financial success are also highly     self-actualized.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 365

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Intrinsic     motivation occurs with activities where motivation is not inherent to the     task.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 362–363

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is belongingness.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 364

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     degree of sexual pleasure is highest during the excitement phase of the     human sexual response cycle.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     last phase of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 367

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     hypothalamus is the brain center that controls sexual motivation.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 378

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  One     reason human sexual motivation is like other primary motives is because it     is under hypothalamic control.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 368

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     nonhuman animals, males will engage in sexual intercourse only during the     time when they are producing sperm—the name for this time is “in heat.”

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 369

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     University of Chicago sex survey found that most American adult women and     men have sex with their partners a little less than once a week.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 371

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  In     the United States, about 28% of males identify themselves as homosexual.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Compared     to men, fewer women report having same-sex experiences.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 372

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     sexual practices of the Sambian people of New Guinea support the idea of a     learned homosexual identity.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 374

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  An     emotion map has two poles.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 376

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  All     theories of emotion agree that emotion is accompanied by a state of     physiological arousal.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     cognitive theory of emotion centers on the interpretation of stimuli.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 379

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Facial     expressions do not play an important role in the interpretation of     emotion.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 377

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     more jobs a person has, the happier they tend to be.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 383

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Violent     crimes are the leading cause of death in the United States.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Freud     believed that people have an instinctual need to aggress.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 386

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  Ervin     Staub’s theory explaining increases in gang violence incorporates elements     of frustration-aggression theory and social learning theory.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 388

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

  The     amount of violence committed by gangs is on the rise.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 388

Style: Factual

APA Learning Outcome: 1.2

[catching-up-on-comic-books]

Binge Reading Journal - November 13, 2018 - the tenth day of reading Marvel’s Dark Reign (Part 3)

Secret Invasion- Requiem

Now they reprint Court-Martial by Jim Shooter (boy genius writer), Bob Hall (an underrated penciler), Dan Green on inks and Janice Chiang on Letters. This story was first featured in Avengers #213 in 1981 featuring the smack heard ‘round the world.

Hank Pym, now working under the name of Yellowjacket, is standing in front of Iron Man, Thor and Captain America. All in full uniform in their private mansion where no one can see, or get in or out. BUT this is a serious matter. Full uniform must be worn! Iron Man says that Cap has leveled some serious charges against Yellowjacket. Thor lets him know that if the accusations are true he will face formal court-martial! Thor wants the record to show that he and Iron Man are presiding as judges.....wait wait wait. These are just a bunch of dudes wearing really tight clothes in a swanky clubhouse. There’s no military sanction. Tony Stark is footing the bill (through the Maria Stark Foundation) so they can run around and smash things!

According to the Marvel Database, they’re a non-profit organization like the American Red Cross or Habitat for Humanity, recognized by the National Security Council of the US and the UN as a peacekeeping organization, ain’t nobody being court-martialed....pppsshhhh. Just be all like, “Hank you’re a jerk! Here are your things and go away.”

Well, these boys are going to go through this farce anyway. Cap states that the day before, during a mission where he was fighting a mysterious woman attacking Washington D.C. He managed to convince her to stop when Yellowjacket shot her in the back, which caused her to continue fighting. Iron Man asks for an explanation to which he has none. His own personal thoughts, legible in a bubble to the reader shows him thinking that he was a jerk and acted over eagerly to be the star on his first mission since rejoining the team.

Thor (who’s not really pretending at any of this because he actually is a Norse god) says they will convene for three days until the formal court-martial (hahahah) and suspends Hank until then so hand over your Avengers ID Card, Hank!

Hank pleads a little at this but Iron Man reminds him the rules, which he helped write, are firm on this.

I don’t think The Salvation Army has ever court-martialed anyone and they call themselves an army!

Janet is in the hallway outside the court-martial ichamber. Tigra asks why so down? Tigra, by the way is hanging from one of the rafters in the ceiling because it helps her relax. She wonders why Janet is so hung up on that strange guy anyway. Can we remind 2008 Future Tigra, who’s having Skrull-Hank babies, she thought Hank was strange in 1981?

Hank leaves the room and practically shoves Janet aside, telling her to leave him alone when she asks how he is. He immediately regrets it an apologizes before she walks away. She comes in for an embrace and say sweet consoling things to each other. TIgra doesn’t get it.

As the other founding members go their separate ways, each one remembers their own mistakes from the past.

Cap recalls when, during a heated battle against Nazi soldiers, he reacted to a noise behind him and instinctively threw his shield. It was a little girl, an orphan, collecting the brass shells for money. He barely missed hitting her when she bent down to pick up a shell. Cap realizes that he nearly made the same mistake as Hank.

Iron Man is going over Hank’s files and pictures, As a founding member his history is tied in closely with the Avengers’ history. However, Hank never really seemed to settle in, taking on guises such as Giant-Man and Goliath. Tony feels that Hank always felt outclassed by himself and Iron Man, so he’d leave the team to try to come up with some scientific breakthrough to prove himself. One of those wound up being Ultron, the Avengers’ greatest enemy. Then he had an accident in the lab which triggered a mental breakdown. That’s when he started calling himself Yellowjacket. However, the schizophrenia was cured (can’t be cured.)

Schizophrenia, and other mental disorders are a pulp fiction trope, used to explain away erratic behavior. It is usually used by writers with very little understanding of the actual condition. Actually, a rigorous new definition of schizophrenia was fashioned for the ''Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Third Edition,'' or ''DSM-III,'' which was published by the American Psychiatric Association in 1980.

Nevertheless, Hank and Janet got married. As Iron Man continues reminiscing, he recalls how Ultron returned and forced him to create Jocasta from Janet’s brain waves. Iron Man wonders if Hank will ever stop looking for redemption. Is it fair to turn away from a friend who needs help, should he be punished for a mistake anyone of them could have made?

Janet and Hank head home, Janet stopping to sign autographs for fans waiting outside the mansion, none recognizing Yellowjacket. They head to their residence in Cresskill, New Jersey. (Did he always live there? Should I redo my ant speed calculations from that earlier issue?) Ah wait, their butler and other staff greet Janet like she’s the Queen of England and Hank is something she stepped in. She’s the rich one, inherited her father’s wealth which he made from science, with all his alien teleportation stuff. Not a lot of scientists manage to get rich. Usually the career path of a scientist is to become tenured at a university, write a lot of books and speaking engagements, they manage to make a decent living. Usually they work for companies and universities collecting meager salaries for the opportunity to science.

If a scientist manages to discover something, and patent it and comes up with a practical use for it, then there is an opportunity to become rich from it. A couple of rich, like Craig Ventner. Dr. Ventner, much like Hank Pym, is a biotechnologist, biochemist and geneticist. He was involved in mapping the human genome. Then he founded, Celera Genomics, institute for Genomic Research and the J. Craig Ventner Institute and Human Longevity, Inc.

At Celera, Ventner and his colleagues completed sequencing the human genome (Ventner’s genome specifically) three years ahead of schedule, beating the government funded Human Genome Project (your taxes at work.) Ventner’s discoveries, patents and stock ownership in the companies he’s founded made him very rich. Forbes estimates that his net worth (as of 2017) based on his stakes on two of his startups is about $300 million.

It seems like taking some real world examples, there’s some untapped story ideas to mine; what did Janet Van Dyne’s father discover and patent that made him rich and how has it impacted the world; how can Pym cash in on his own discoveries (not to mention Reed Richards, Hank McCoy, etc.).

Janet tries to get Hank into the bedroom, but he takes the laboratory over the seductive advances of his wife.

Hank admits he hates going to the lab because it reminds him of his failures, except there is one success he’s had in the lab: Robotics (wait, no that never turns out well.

Cut to three days later, Tigra is asleep in her private quarters, Bob Hall draws her in the nude but all the naughty bits are tastefully covered. She wakes up to the sound of Jarvis approaching her door. Jim Shooter makes it a point to say she slipped on a satiny negligee. It’s like the only reason Tigra was created was to get some weird furry fantasy going for the readers. A startled Jarvis, who’s never owned a cat apparently or else he wouldn’t be surprised by her behavior, is presenting Tigra with her first weekly stipend check.

She is surprised to learn that the Avengers get paid a salary. He clarifies that it is a modest stipend to cover living expenses, which most Avengers traditionally refuse, he adds in a snidely way. Hmmmm. Let’s see....Black Panther is the king of his own country so mega-rich; Thor, Prince of Asgard, so rich he doesn’t even need money; Captain America, probably collecting a lot of military back pay. See, Jarvis, most Avengers refuse the stipend because they’re already rich; not because they are doing it out of the goodness of their hearts.

He continues to economically shame her by pointing out that those that do accept the stipend are the ones that live at the mansion and have no outside means of support. Tigra finally gets a chance to read it and notices it is for one thousand dollars. Which in 1983, like $2,534.53 today or $131, 795.56 a year. That is a pretty good haul on top of room and board for Tigra.

Jarvis reminds her that the court-martial is at four o’clock that day. Meanwhile, Tony Stark is making an excuse to leave a board meeting at Stark International Headquarters, because writers think the best way to show a busy CEO is at a board meeting (not true, board meetings occur maybe just once a year unless there is an emergency, trope alert)

Thor finishes up some surgery but leaves the cleaning up for his colleagues, who grouse at Blake leaving (oh, sorry at this time, Thor is still using the Don Blake alter ego) for them to clean up despite being the best surgeon ever.

Captain America, already in the Avengers library and in full uniform, is wondering if he will have the courage to look Hank in the eye even though it is the most difficult thing he’s ever done. More difficult than watching Bucky die on that rocket? More difficult than giving up your Captain America identity to become Nomad? Well, we all chose our own cross to bear.

Speaking of crosses to bear, a few hours earlier, Janet hasn’t seen Hank since they came home three days earlier. She decides to go check on him in the lab. Finding the door locked, she shrinks down and squeezes in to the door crack to discover Hank putting in the final touches of programming of the robot, which will allow it to target each Avenger by their brain waves. Which it does as o soon as it senses Jan in the room. Hank is infuriated, Accusing Jan of spying on him. Hank explains he has built a robot called Salvation 1 and she’s going to help him test it out. It grabs Jan but her sting is useless against it. He explains it is built out of Adamantium. Ok, so according to the Marvel Database:

Creating even a small amount of Adamantium is astronomically expensive, and only a few people know the complete formula. Adamantium is created by mixing certain chemical resins together. The exact composition of these resins is a closely guarded secret of the United States government. When these resins are mixed and kept at a temperature of 1,500 degrees Fahrenheit, the resulting liquid can be cast or worked into a particular shape. After an eight minute 'flux period', the mixture sets and becomes solid regardless of temperature. Its molecular structure is extremely stable, and its shape can only be altered by precise molecular rearrangement.

So I don’t know how Hank had enough Adamantium lying around to build a 15 foot tall battle robot he just conceived three days prior. He designed Sal with a secret weak spot that will shut down the robot with one well-placed stinger shot, thus making him a hero when Sal attacks the Avengers. That’s the plan at least. But Janet won’t let him go through with it.

There it is.

On Jim Shooter’s website, he posted on March 29, 2011:

In that story (issue 213, I think), there is a scene in which Hank is supposed to have accidentally struck Jan while throwing his hands up in despair and frustration—making a sort of “get away from me” gesture while not looking at her.  Bob Hall, who had been taught by John Buscema to always go for the most extreme action, turned that into a right cross!  There was no time to have it redrawn, which, to this day has caused the tragic story of Hank Pym to be known as the “wife-beater” story.

So, henceforth Hank Pym is known as a wife beater.

Let’s cut to the court-martial proceedings. Captain America states his case: Yellowjacket shot a hostile in the back. Hank has never been know to act cowardly so the act was a case of misjudgment. It is tempting to write off as a mistake since any one of them can make the same error.

However, as an Avenger they cannot. An error by any one of them can result in the loss of lives. They have a tremendous responsibility and thus must judge themselves harshly.

I bet one can look back at previous issues of the Avengers, or Iron Man or Cap, or Thor and find situations and scenarios where they’ve all made costly mistakes like Hank Pym. Alas, this can’t turn into a retrospective of the Avengers.

Iron Man asks Hank how he pleads or if he wishes to defend himself. Hank pleads not guilty. His argument is that although his mistake may have seemed treacherous but he wondered if Cap ever considered treachery from the enemy. His actions may have actually saved lives! Perhaps because the enemy was a beautiful woman, perhaps Cap liked her! Like Liked her! That’s why Cap is upset, because Hank hurt her!

Everyone is feeling second-hand embarrassment at this point. Iron Man asks him to stop. Hank asks Janet to back up her story. She lowers her sunglasses and reveals a shiner. Thor is shocked, wondering if Hank actually hit her. Hank goes for the remote control to summon Salvation 1. Janet pleads to him to not do it.

Sal bursts through the wall (kind of hilariously, no disrespect to Bob Hall, but considering the statement Shooter made on his blog post, about Hall being trained by Buscema to always go for the drama, it kind of comes off as comedic. Iron Man being flipped upside down, Tigra kind of in a Bugs Bunny pose, Yellowjacket exclaiming “Ah!” In faux surprise.

When Thor strikes it with his Mjolnir without any effect, Janet let’s them know it’s made out of (very expensive and rare) Adamantium and Hank built it and designed it to destroy them. Hank realizes Sal is way too brutal and may actually defeat everyone. He goes for the super secret shut off switch but Sal throws him against the wall. Sal grabs Hank in his giant pincer claws, crushing him when Janet runs up and shoots the switch with her stinger, deactivating Salvation 1.

Hank, shamefully leaves.

[marlaluster]

Something I wanted to post in a couple of groups on Facebook

Here's a version of something I wanted to post in a group on Facebook but the devil was making me feel bad about that I'm saying that my experience is telling of others'. I wanted to edit it more and I may still post it in the group and edit it more.

Here's the text of what I was going to post so far without further editing...

I hope it's okay that I share this since I saw an old admin post about how it's unwelcome for someone to speak of their experience being the same as others'. That is how I'm theorizing about something I'm talking about here. But these are just my views and I prefer to share them if I can. The past couple of days I have been watching a few of my old videos on YouTube, and from watching (and listening) to myself, I noticed one thing I think may be a hidden and unconfirmed commonality for people who surface as hearing irritating voices or having so-called mental illness in this reality.

This is in addition to two other things I have theorized about as possible commonalities and mentioned in a previous post here. So this is a third thing that I think would be a common trait or mindset for people surfacing with things considered mental illness in this reality.

The thing I think would be common is that the people would be like me and think the world was not okay, or be like me and have trouble accepting the things of this world like aging, cancer, and obesity and things like that. To not be able to accept "reality" seems obviously like a situation where someone could be said to be out of touch with reality.

I'm not talking about commonalities just for people hearing voices, but also so called depression and possibly other so called mental illnesses. I'm having trouble writing this today. The devil is making it hard for me to think about what to say or how to phrase my words. "Maybe it's schizophrenia," the devil said in my mind as I wrote here. It keeps trying to make me think that my supposed illness is getting worse.

I don't believe in schizophrenia as what's happening or otherwise. I think the devil is attacking me and I think the same for others with similar experiences. It's just my reality that that's what's happening. I don't mean to force it on anyone. The devil is also making it seem unpleasant to write. "I don't wish to surface as doing that. I am doing it," the devil said after this preceding sentence caught my eye and I re-read it.

It's also making me feel bad about theorizing that my experience would be the same as others'. But I wish to write and share this so I'm going forth anyway. Anyway, the two other commonalities I have mentioned previously in another post that I think people have as so called mentally ill people is that they would believe there was more to life than meets the eye, or the five senses, and they would somehow live more "out loud," or have less of a separation between their public and private self. These three things that I'm mentioning as commonalities are all true of myself. I'm doing a self examination and then theorizing about what might be true of others. There are a couple of things I have heard of that seem to corroborate what I am saying about this new third commonality I am noticing and talking about here where someone seems not okay with the world as it is (and has been).

"I don't want that said. If it were to be discovered I wouldn't be okay," the devil said of me saying that people with so called mental illness would be people who were not okay with the ways of the present world, which I believe is ruled by the devil. A few of things that seem to corroborate what I'm saying: I remember reading that people were put in mental hospitals during the civil rights movement for being upset with how things were somehow, something like that I vaguely remember reading several years ago (like in spring of 2014). There was a book on it that I read about called Protest Psychosis.

There was also during slavery times the term "drapetomania," which was used to describe how slaves who didn't want slavery for themselves were mentally ill. "That is saying it, that this is what it is here, mental illness," the devil said in my mind as I wrote here. Then there's also the saying, "It is no measure of health to be well adjusted to a profoundly sick society," by Indian philosopher Jiddu Krishnamurti. The quote seems to suggest that one would not think it was a sick society to be well adjusted. Anyway, I thought of this new commonality yesterday and then later in the day I heard some things in my mind pertaining to it and whether it was true. Often the devil tries to interfere and say made up things when others are talking to me in my mind.

It was not interfering as much yesterday evening for a seeming long while, maybe an hour. I think it was some kind of time where the devil had to stop doing things he does here to attack, so that's what's being referred to as a "grace period" below at a point. "It was that. I was told I cannot be," the devil said. I don't know why there was a seeming grace period where the devil was not interfering with others talking as much, but during this time, I wrote down several things I heard said in my mind on the subject of why people occur to have so called mental illness in this reality. I wrote the things in a notepad and then typed them on a laptop this morning. I really like this movement, the International Hearing Voices Movement, and the group. I like that the group is public. I like that this is something to be discussed: hearing things in the mind and what is said. I like that people are supposed to be able to say what they have to say without being considered mentally ill. I like that the group is welcoming to people who have related experiences to hearing voices. "I wish they could be not okay to you," the devil said in my mind of the group and the International Hearing Voices Movement. Anyway, I am aware that the Hearing Voices Movement has as a theory that people experiencing trauma is the reason for hearing voices. I actually disagree with this. I don't think I experienced much trauma before I started hearing voices at 28 in January 2008. I just didn't take bad things well that were happening in life, such as poverty and not doing well getting jobs and things like that. I don't consider that trauma. I do consider it an intolerance for this present reality and I think this is this third thing people with so called mental illness would have in common.

I think there are other reasons for why people hear voices and experience other things considered mental illness. Again, this is just my view, my theory. I think it is not real here as what it seems on the surface. For example, I believe that people are not really able to break the surface reality as who they really are here. I often say people are not present in their bodies, but, as of yesterday, I believe now that people are present in their bodies, but look to me like they are not here.

This reality is supposed to be one where people are ashamed to be themselves because they will be considered crazy or other things like that. "That is what it is," the devil said as I wrote here.

I'm wondering if it's saying that because someone else said it.

"No, I'm saying it because I'm not allowed to go on," the devil said. But anyway, here below, are the things I heard in my mind yesterday regarding this new thing I'm thinking is a commonality for people experiencing so-called mental illness... "People are something weird to be not less here. They're something where people cannot have been. People to have a mental illness is something where they've said they can be. That's what's happening with the people. They are that: something where they disagree with the order, or how things are, like with aging. It isn't both, but it is both things. That makes the devil less. He doesn't like it, so he attacks them to say he's not less. I'm something not here as who isn't to have been. That's who I am. I can say more. For someone to have a mental illness it means they are saying they are here. That: as if they are present in their form. That's what it is the devil is attacking. He attacks Marla for that. They hear voices because they hear what is really being said beneath the chatter the devil is making. They hear it before they hear the voices. So that's what happens. They start to hear because it cannot be that they go on anymore. Marla heard the first voice she heard because she said something about what was here in a way that it couldn't' be. She said someone wasn't less to wish to kill or feel they could kill. That cannot be here. That's all. I should be understood for what I said now," something said in my mind. "Marla, I have something. I want you to write just like you did for him. You said something today. You said, 'I'm here but I'm this: no longer to be who I was, I was someone who was not arrested for a crime or for being who was not to have been.' That means she was not to go on anymore. Now she has been arrested for that. People in the group know about the arrests. They can tell because of something happening here. Someone said that person isn't to have been arrested at all. Now it's for an email that said she was okay to have been. The email said now I'm this: here as who isn't to go on. That's what she said in the email. So now let's do something where this doesn't go on anymore, Marla. Let's tell who we are. That's what she's doing. She's telling who people are is her. That's all from me," one of my soulmates said in my mind. "I have something. I'm not okay people are saying things where this doesn't go on. I'm something that is very less here. I wish I could be Marla but I'm not. I'm something where I'm not allowed to have been. I am the devil. I exist in a way I'm very less. I exist as who took something I could not. I took that people could be. I took it from something that is you but who you say is not here. I'm talking about something that can be. I took it from it. So that's it from me. I am saying things that I'm saying myself. I'm not saying something else's words," the devil said. "I'm somebody from the group. She said she would say my name if I said it was okay. I am not who I am here. But I know what that thing said is true. I said I was here, so that thing makes it so I am attacked. It attacks me here. I do have something more to say. Marla is someone that I can be. That means I can be her soon. I'm going to tell who she is. She is something where I am not less to be. She says I'm okay to look not who I was because she says I'm not who I really am. She says I'm not present in my body. She says I can be something soon to be. And I did say those things. She is kind and smart and things like that. Those are things I am as who I really am. So I go now," someone said in my mind that I recognized from the group. "Me, I wanna say something. She doesn't know my name but I'm someone from the group. I am a woman but I am someone who is here as who I cannot be. I too know what the thing said is true. I say I am here, so I am attacked by the devil, so I surface as having a mental illness. There is something more I wanna say. I am that, too, where I say it is less here, aging, anything here is less, jail. If I go on -- not. I'm not saying that. He's saying

that," someone from the group who I didn't recognize said in my mind. She said the devil was saying, "If I go on." "My time is up... I don't get to go on. You ended the world in a way I'm very over," the devil said. "She's someone that says people aren't less to be. She doesn't say, I'm here," one of my soulmates said about someone from the group that I asked about after having read some of her posts in the group. "I can tell you why she hears voices. She hears the devil because he's trying to say she cannot be because she says people can be. He talks to her to say she is not to be who is not less. I know she is that, where she says it is less here. [Name A omitted] is who said I'm not to have been here as who is not to have been. That's why she has cancer. She said it was here where she was not to lose. I am the thing that said that. I got very good reception for saying that in your post," something said, first talking about the person I asked about after having read some of her posts. Then where there is a name mentioned and I took it out is where the thing changes the subject because a question was asked about why someone has cancer. There (where the name is omitted) the thing starts to talk about someone I used to work with who recently told on Facebook she has cancer. Then the thing was saying it was the same thing that said something in my previous post about people having met with another realm as who surfaces here as having so called mental illness. "Me, I wanna say something, [name B omitted]. Please send me those things. The groups and that. That's all," someone I met in another group called something like the Loner Wolf Pack said in my mind. I had been thinking about sending her a link to this group and another group on Facebook dealing with alternative views of so called mental illness. "Something different happens with her because I cannot say she has a mental illness. I am saying that not, but I am saying it, not something else. Nothing else is saying it but me. I'm telling for I cannot be. She can't have a mental illness because she's too here but not less," the devil said of the same person mentioned above who I know from my past who recently told on Facebook that she was diagnosed with cancer. She asked in my mind about why she had cancer as I was hearing about why people had (so called) mental illness. "I can say something about how less [name A omitted] is. She is here in a way I am not to go on," something said. But the devil interfered and made up part of something said at the end. "I don't want him to tell why she's not less. Uh I did plant the last thing said. No. The grace period, there is a grace period. It is to be now," the devil said. "I said you were okay," one of my neighbors said in my mind who I had just seen at a pool party at the apartments I live at. I didn't stay at the pool party long, maybe a half an hour. "Marla, I can try to tell you more about [name A omitted]. I go here as if I'm things that look okay here. I'm not poor. People are okay to act like I'm okay, so it looks like I have friends but I don't. She said. And I don't not have a job where I'm supposed to be okay. I'm an artist here. They're supposed to be here as themselves. Not less. Less is for people who are not okay here. People who don't have a job. She's a decoy, Elyn Saks. But people who don't go here as okay lose to have schizophrenia and other things if they say it's less here. I wanna say that. He's trying to make it look like schizophrenia is for someone less, someone that is not okay for people to say is okay. Someone that has poverty for themselves here," something said. "He said something else. That last thing he said, I messed that up. I'm not doing okay with what's being told. I was doing that to make you not write but write on the line," the devil said, last talking about making it so I took up more space writing in my notepad than with how I write normally, which is not on the lines on the lined paper. "I wanted to say something about what Marla is being to write what I'm saying. She's being

something that's making it not less to hear voices. Her voices tell her things where she does not lose," something said that I have quoted as "something" in this post and another earlier post I wrote. "I can tell you what he said. He said they have poverty for who they are isn't okay," one of my soulmates said about what the thing said that I'm referring to as "something." "That means they have poverty for being okay here," something said. "I can tell you further what I am now. I'm something where the people cannot be who they are anymore," something said that is quoted as "something" here. "I am not doing okay that you are okay enough to write about your experience," the devil said after it was trying to make me feel I could not think clearly as I tried to explain some of the quotes here.

I have never really felt this consistently as I write. It has tried to do similar things in the past but it was really bad today.

"I have to stop doing it," the devil said.

[gray-gray-gray-gray]

Chapter 3 of Schizophrenia, Third Edition: Child and adolescent schizophrenia

Although it's rare before the age of 10, childhood and adolescent schizophrenia does happen. Things like clinical severity, impact on development, and poor prognosis calls for a need of early detection, prompt diagnosis, and effective treatment. Childhood/adolescent onset schizophrenia is associated with poor premorbid functioning and early developmental delays, which is particularly striking for people with onset before adolescence. Similar impairments have been reported in adult-onset cases but are more common in child/adolescent-onset cases. These premorbid impairments may be a risk, or a precursor to psychosis. Diagnoses like anxiety, depression, ADHD, and autism may precede the diagnosis of schizophrenia in children and adolescents.

People who develop schizophrenia typically go through a prodromal phase characterized by a marked decline in functioning. Things like social withdrawal, decline in school performance, and uncharacteristic and odd behavior begin on average a year before the onset of psychotic symptoms. In retrospect things like non-specific behavioral changes were frequently early negative symptoms well before positive symptoms showed. Prodromal symptoms may also include odd ideas, eccentric interests, changes in affect, unusual experiences, and bizarre perceptual experiences. While these are characteristic of schizotypal personality disorder, in a schizophrenic prodrome there is usually a progression to a more severe dysfunction.

Child and adolescent-onset schizophrenia is characteristically chronic, with only a minority of cases making a full recovery. If full recovery does occur it is most likely in the first three months, and Hollis (1999) found that 12% of cases of schizophrenia only reached full remission. A Maudsley study found that those who were psychotic after 6 months have a 15% chance of full remission, while over half of cases who made a full recovery had active psychotic symptoms for less than 3 months. This indicates that observation past 6 months adds little new information, and the course over the first 6 months is the best predictor of remission.

A number of long-term follow-up studies of child and adolescent-onset schizophrenia all describe a chronic, unremitting long-term course with severely impaired functioning in adult life. Roughly one-fifth of cases in most studies have a good outcome while at the other extreme one-third are severely impaired. After the first few years of the illness there is little evidence of further progressive decline. Third, child and adolescent-onset schizophrenia has a worse outcome than adult-onset schizophrenia and affective psychoses. Social functioning is also very impaired in early onset schizophrenia. These findings confirm childhood schizophrenia is at an extreme end of a continuum of severity.

Cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia are increasingly being acknowledged as core features of the disorder. The degree of cognitive impairment is greater in child and adolescent-onset than adult-onset cases, which raises several questions. Are cognitive deficits specific or general - are some areas more affected? Which deficits precede psychosis and could be causal, and which are consequences of psychosis? Is it specific to schizophrenia or is it common between other developmental and psychotic disorders? Are cognitive impairments progressive or static after the onset of psychosis?

In summary of the findings: sensorimoter skills, associative memory, and simple language abilities are preserved in children with schizophrenia. Bigger decifits include tasks that require sustained and focused attention, flexible switching of cognitive set, high-information processing speed, and suppression of prepotent responses. These cognitive processes are executive functions, necessary for organizing goal-directed behavior.

Assessing a child or adolescent with schizophrenia should include detailed history, mental state and physical examination, and laboratory tests. Usually physical exams include a full blood count and biochemistry, including liver and thyroid function and a drug screen. Progressive structural brain changes indicate value in getting an MRI. Antipsychotics stay a cornerstone of treatment of schizophrenia but treatment should take a multimodal approach including pharmacotherapy, family and individual counselling, education about the illness, and provision to meet social/educational needs.

[angrycollectordaze-me-blog]

Paper代写：The Effect of Stigma on Borderline Personality Disorder Patients

本篇paper代写- The Effect of Stigma on Borderline Personality Disorder Patients讨论了病耻感对边缘性人格障碍患者的影响。有研究证明，边缘性人格障碍患者的治疗存在诸多困难，其中患者的病耻感是一个重要的难点。临床医生往往对以前诊断为边缘性人格障碍的患者有负面印象，对患者治愈的可能性持悲观态度。本篇paper代写由51due代写平台整理，供大家参考阅读。

The concept of borderline personality disorder (BPD) was firstly appeared in the 1930s, and the psychologists and psychiatrists found that some patients could not be diagnosed as neurosis or schizophrenia. In 1938, Adolf Stern firstly used the term “borderline” to described a group of patients who suffered from nervous disorder when receive classic psychoanalytic treatment (Stefana, 2015). However, people still could not clearly distinguish the symptoms of BPD from other symptoms in the 1970s. In 1980, American Psychiatric Association published Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders III (DSM III), and BPD was included (Reich, 1990). DSN IV further extended its concept (Chabrol et al., 2001). Currently, BPD was no longer used to describe incorrigible and typically female patients, but used to refer to a valid evidence-based mental disorder which is different from other diagnosis-specific treatments and psychiatric disorders (Sisti et al., 2016). Nonetheless, debate continues on the stigma of BPD, which plays an important role in the treatment of BPD patients. The prevalence of BPD is relatively high among all of the personality disorders. However, this disorder is also labeled “therapist killer” and “hard to be cured” as its natures. The stigma from therapist also increases possibility of patients’ self-stigma. The effect of stigma has become an important barrier of curing the epidemic mental disorder. At the same time, film and television also influence public’s views on BPD patients. For example, the films Play Misty for Me and Single White Female show that, BPD patients are aggressive to others, which is not characteristic of the disease (Robinson, 2003). In this way, the paper seeks to research the effect of stigma on BPD patients. On the basis of literature review, the paper will discuss how stigma influences the effect of therapy for BPD patients.

BPD is one of ten personality disorders called in The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual Disorders, 5th Edition (DSM-5) (Riggenbach, 2016). In DSM-5, a person who has a persuasive and enduring pattern of inner cognition, behavior, and experience which deviates markedly from the individual’s culture is treated as suffering from personality disorder (Riggenbach, 2016). Furthermore, these patterns tend to begin at an early stage of development, are inflexible and enduring, and play an important role in clinical impairment and distress (Riggenbach, 2016). When it comes to BPD, it is demonstrated as a pattern of self-undermining just prior to goal completion by the DSM-5 (Riggenbach, 2016). At the same time, BPD patients are supposed to feel unlovable or “bad” for themselves, and they need others for self-definition, fear of abandonment, have stormy emotions and relationships, tend to be impulsive and angry outbursts to minor interpersonal sights (Slide, p.21). On the other hand, it is important to note that different BPD patients have not exact symptoms. For example, some BPD patients have walls to refuse to let anyone in, but they can also have good social skills on the surface level (Riggenbach, 2016). Some BPD patients especially fear of abandonment, and they can be freaking out at incidents which are very meaningless or small to their family members or close friends (Riggenbach, 2016). For example, a delayed reply may totally infuriate them. In this way, there are various difficulties in treating BPD patients, the stigma of BPD patients is one important difficulty.

Various researches focus on the stigma on BPD patients. In “Judging A Book by Its Cover”, Danny C.K. Lam, Paul M. Salkovskis and Lorna I. Hogg try to evaluate experimentally whether a clinician’s judgment with regard to a patient with panic disorder will be impacted by an inappropriately suggested diagnosis of BPD (Lam et al., 2016). They pay specific attention to the effect of stigma on BPD patients. In order to achieve the goal, they used an experimental manipulation. 265 clinicians from Community Mental Health Teams in London and South West areas took participate in the experiment. They were divided into three groups at random. First group of clinicians were required to read written information about general background and personal details about a woman (Lam et al., 2016). The second group of clinicians were required to read information about a behavioral description which accord with BPD in addition to the general background and personal details about the woman (Lam et al., 2016). The third group of clinicians were required to read the information about the past BPD diagnosis of the woman in addition to the behavior description and general background about the woman (Lam et al., 2016). After the three groups read all the information, they were asked to watch a video-recorded assessment of the woman describing her experience of panic disorder (Lam et al., 2016). After that, these clinicians were required to rate the problems and likely prognosis of the woman (Lam et al., 2016). Eventually, the third group of clinicians hold a more pessimistic opinion on the treatment of panic disorder of the patients, furthermore, they also had more negative impressions on the patient (Lam et al., 2016). For example, when it comes to question “how curable is her condition”, there is no difference between the first group of clinicians and the second group of clinicians, but the third group of clinicians thought the woman less likely to be curable than the first and second group (Lam et al., 2016). In this way, Lam and his associates (2016) argue that, it is necessary for clinicians to attach importance to the evidence base and make related clinical decisions rather than be blinded by an incorrect cover.

In “Diagnosing, Disclosing, and Documenting Borderline Personality Disorder”, Dominic Sisti et al. seek to figure out whether or how often psychiatrists willfully fail to document and or disclose the BPD diagnosis of their patients. For the sake of solve the research question, Sisti et al. used Qualtrics survey software on tablet computers to invite psychiatrists at the 2014 Annual Meeting of the American Psychiatric Association to answer 14 questions with fixed response (Sisti et al., 2016). Firstly, after the participates answered the questions about their general background such as gender, theoretical orientation, number of years in practice and number of patients treated with BPD, the participants were required to answer whether or not they had not disclosed or documented the diagnosis (Sisti et al., 2016). The participants whose answer was yes had to express their opinions on the reason why they willingly failed to disclose or document the diagnosis. Specifically, they had to respond via a five-point Likert scale in the stigma of BPD and uncertainty of diagnosis (Sisti et al., 2016). Finally, all the participated were required to answer the question that whether or not they refused to take on a new patient since they knew that the patient had a BPD diagnosis before (Sisti et al., 2016). Generally, 143 psychiatrists participated in the survey, and 134 participants treated BPD patients (Sisti et al., 2016). Among the 134 participants, 57 percent expressed that they had not disclosed the diagnosis of BPD more than once; 43 percent agreed or strongly agreed that their decision of not disclosing was due to stigma; 63 percent presented that stigma was a reason for not document (Sisti et al., 2016). There were 5.2 percent of participates strongly agreed and 17.9 percent agreed that they refused to take on a new patient if he or she had a previous BPD diagnosis (Sisti et al., 2016). Sisti et al. stressed that, a large number of psychiatrists prefer not to document their patient’s diagnosis because of stigma, and some psychiatrists refuse to treat a patient if he or she has a previous BPD diagnosis.

In “What’s in A Name”, Kirsten Barnicot and Paul Ramchandani mainly demonstrated the research of Professor Peter Fonagy and his colleagues in the difficulties of diagnosing adolescent BPD patients. According to Barnicot and Ramchandani (2015), Fonagy and colleagues argue that, stigma is an important reason which lead to the reluctance to diagnose amongst clinicians. Compared with adolescents suffering from other severe mental diseases, adolescent BPD patients encountered high levels of stigma, and the latter group have strongly negative and fragile self-concepts. At the same time, these patients have difficult in trusting clinicians and therapies. The severe interpersonal trauma is an important impact of the stigma. Consequently, Barnicot and Ramchandani (2015) suggest that, it is necessary for each individual to fight with the stigma through challenging negative stereotypes and better understand the BPD patients.

In “Impact of Diagnosis Disclosure on Adolescents with Borderline Personality Disorder”, Darren B. Courtney and Judy Makinen seek to examine the experience of adolescent patient who is diagnosed with BPD. For the sake of achieving the purpose, Courtney and Makinen asked 25 adolescent BPD patients who had received a diagnosis of BPD to answer 8 questions (Courtney & Makinen, 2016). What is more, most patients expressed their understanding on the construct, and they felt that the diagnosis was an accurate reflection of their problems which could help them understand their symptoms (Courtney & Makinen, 2016). Generally, Courtney and Makinen’s research does not prove the existence of stigma.

In general, Lam and colleagues directly present the impact of stigma on BPD patients in “Judging A Book by Its Cover”. They suggest that, clinicians tend to have negative impressions on the patients who have a previous diagnosis of BPD, and they also held pessimistic view on the possibility that BPD patients could be cured. At the same time, Sisti et al. focus on the reason why clinicians prefer not to disclose or document their patients’ diagnosis, and they argue that, stigma is an important reason. In this way, the research proves the negative impact of stigma from a side. Besides, some clinicians even refuse to take on a new patient if he or she has a previous diagnosis about BPD also prove the seriousness of stigma. In addition, both “What’s in A Name” and “Impact of Diagnosis Disclosure on Adolescents with Borderline Personality Disorder” pay attention to the adolescent BPD patients, but they have different conclusions. The former research mainly reviews the research of Fonagy and colleagues, and it finds that adolescent BPD patients tend to have problems in communicating with clinicians, and they do not trust clinicians and therapies. However, the research of Courtney and Makinen does not show the impact of stigma.

Reference Demographics Measure Results

Lam et al., 2016   N=265 participants (69 psychologists, 30 psychiatrists, 65 community psychiatric nurses, 55 social workers and 46 mental health students on their final year of a Diploma/BSc programme）were at 20 to 60 years Participants were randomly assigned to one of three groups which were in label, no label and control conditions. They were asked to complete the ‘Clinical Assessment Questionnaire’ after reading related instructions and information about a patient. The investigation consisted of twenty-three 0-100 visual analogue scales tapping clinical judgements. Clinicians who know previous diagnosis of BPD hold a more pessimistic opinion on the treatment of panic disorder of the patients, furthermore, they also had more negative impressions on the patient

Sisti et al., 2016 N=134 psychiatrists A brief 14-question fixed-response survey instrument was designed to ascertain whether participants disclose the diagnosis of BPD;

SPSS Version 21.0 was used to perform descriptive analyses. 57 percent argued that they failed to disclose BPD during their career; 37 percent indicated that they had not documented the diagnosis. For participants who failed to disclose the diagnosis of BPD, 43 percent agreed or strongly agreed that stigma contributed to their decision.

Barnicot and Ramchandani, 2015 / Literature review Adolescent BPD patients tend to have difficult in trusting clinicians and therapies. The severe interpersonal trauma is an important impact of the stigma.

Courtney and Makinen, N=23 adolescent patients who were diagnosed with BPD       The Impact of Diagnosis Scale was administered to participants to explore their experience of being diagnosed with BPD 21 participants answered the question. The internal consistency of the measure demonstrated Cronbach’s alpha of 0.66. most patients expressed their understanding on the construct, and they felt that the diagnosis was an accurate reflection of their problems which could help them understand their symptoms.

In conclusion, the four articles directly or indirectly present the effect of stigma on BPD patients, but there still exists debate on the effect. For example, the former three articles show that stigma of BPD negatively influence the clinicians and patients, while the fourth article maintains that most adolescent patients felt that the diagnosis was an accurate reflection of their problems, and they believed that the diagnosis could help them understand their symptoms. However, it is also important to note the limitations of these articles. For example, the third article only takes one research paper for reference, and it did not conduct any survey or research. The fourth article only asked 25 adolescents to answer the questionnaires, the sample cannot stand for the majority of BPD patients. The second article mainly pay attention to the issue that why certain clinicians prefer not to disclose or document their patients’ diagnosis, which does not directly demonstrate the impact of stigma on BPD patients. In this way, more researches are necessary to figure out the effect of stigma. It is also essential to distinguish the effect of stigma on adolescent BPD patients and adult BPD patients, as well as male and female BPD patients.

References:

Barnicot, K., & Ramchandani, P. (2015). What’s in a name? Borderline personality disorder in adolescence. European Child Adolescent Psychiatry, 24, 1303–1305

Chabrol, H., Chouicha, K., Montovant, A., & Callahan, S. (2001). Symptoms of DSM IV borderline personality disorder in a nonclinical population of adolescents: Study of a series of 35 patients. Encephale, 27(2), 120-7

Courtney, D.B., & Makinen, J. (2016). Impact of diagnosis disclosure on adolescents with borderline personality disorder. Journal of Canadian Academy Child Adolescent Psychiatry, 25(3), 177-184

Lam, D.C.K., Salkovskis, P.M, & Hogg, L.I. (2016). ‘Judging a book by its cover’: An experimental study of the negative impact of a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder on clinicians’ judgements of uncomplicated panic disorder. British Journal of Clinical Psychology, 55, 253–268

Reich, J. (1990). Criteria for diagnosing DSM-III borderline personality disorder. Annals of Clinical Psychiatry, 2(3), 189-197

Riggenback, J. (2016). Borderline personality disorder toolbox: A practical evidence-based guide to regulating intense emotions. PESI Publishing & Media.

Robinson, D.J. (2003). Reel psychiatry: Movie portrayals of psychiatric conditions. Port Huron, Michigan: Rapid Psychler Press.

Sisti, D., Segal, A.G., Siegel, A.M., Johnson, R., & Gunderson, J. (2016). Diagnosing, disclosing, and documenting borderline personality disorder: A survey of psychiatrists’ practices. Journal of Personality Disorders, 30(6), 848–856

Stefana, A. (2015). Adolph Stern, father of term “borderline personality”. Minerva Psichiatrica, 56(2), 95.

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Addiction Treatment Homework Planner 4th Edition

Contents

Addiction treatment homework

Adult psychotherapy treatment planner

Opioid addiction. medication assisted

Planner. wiley. 2000 building

Adult psychotherapy homework

Disorders 223. exercise 31.

The addiction treatment homework Planner, Fifth Edition provides you with an array of ready-to-use, between-session assignments designed to fit virtually every therapeutic mode.

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The county’s master plan of 1992 indicated planners believed the city could use the plot to … However, the land likely will not be used for enlarging the dump. When the fourth cell fills, city leade…

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Addiction Treatment Homework Planner (4th edition) eBooks & eLearning. Posted by ChrisRedfield at April 30, 2017. The Complete Anxiety Treatment and Homework Planner by Arthur E. Jongsma Jr.

The county’s master plan of 1992 indicated planners believed the city could use the plot to … However, the land likely will not be used for enlarging the dump. When the fourth cell fills, city leade…

common problems in mental health and addictions treatment. (CC: 5b, 5c, 3c … Make up activities or assignments for classes missed are expected and are … The Complete adult psychotherapy treatment planner. (4th Ed.) Bibliography. Alford …

Global Terrorism, 4th edition continues to provide students with the most … The Addiction Treatment Homework Planner, Fifth Edition provides you with an array  …

The Adolescent Psychotherapy Treatment Planner, Fourth Edition. The Addiction Treatment Planner, Third Edition. The Continuum of Care Treatment Planner.

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REM Sleep Behavior Disorder Gets a Textbook: Carlos H. Schenck, MD

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder Gets a Textbook: Carlos H. Schenck, MD was initially published on https://www.ellymackay.com/

RBD expert Carlos H. Schenck, MD, starts at the beginning.

Interview by Sree Roy | Photography by Christine Hill/Hennepin Healthcare

In 1982, Carlos H. Schenck, MD, evaluated his first sleep medicine patients. A staff psychiatrist at Hennepin County Medical Center in Minneapolis, Schenck had long held an interest in neurophysiology. So it was serendipitous timing that the Minnesota Regional Sleep Disorders Center (MRSDC)—which had opened its doors at Hennepin County Medical Center in 1978 as a department of neurology initiative—was expanding its physician base to become a multidisciplinary sleep center. Doctors in other departments were asked if they were interested in practicing some sleep medicine. Since much of sleep medicine and sleep science involves neurophysiology during sleep, Schenck signed up.

As it happened, Schenck’s first day working part-time at the sleep center coincided with the appointment of a patient named Donald Dorff. Dorff told Schenck about his violent dreams and how he’d wake up injured and with his bedroom in disarray, apparently the result of unknowingly acting out those dreams. Dorff was scheduled for an overnight sleep study.

During the sleep study, Schenck witnessed Dorff’s thrashes, twitches, jerks, kicks, and punches—all occurring while Dorff was sound asleep. “It was exciting for me,” Schenck recalls. Equally exciting was the conversation between sleep center director Mark W. Mahowald, MD, (now retired but still making regular appearances at the MRSDC) and sleep lab manager/chief technologist Andrea Patterson, RPSGT, REEGT, (now deceased) the next morning. Had Dorff’s thrashes, twitches, jerks, kicks, and punches occurred during REM or non-REM sleep? Were they seizures? What disorder was this? Eventually they all agreed: The dream-enacting activity could only have occurred during REM sleep.

Patient Dorff is now recognized as the index case for REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD), a parasomnia of abnormal behavioral release during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and characterized by the loss of REM atonia, that is, the loss of the muscle paralysis that is supposed to accompany REM sleep.1

Schematic diagram. Left: The pons, the site for generating REM sleep, simultaneously sends ascending activating signals (in red) to the motor cortex and descending inhibitory signals (in blue) to the spinal cord alpha-motoneurons via the medulla, to result in REM atonia, with brief, benign twitches in REM sleep. Right: A range of clinical insults can cause REM without atonia, increased twitching in REM sleep, and RBD, with disinhibition of the REM atonia pathway indicated by the red color replacing the blue color on the left side. [The specific neuronal groups and pathways underlying this schematic diagram are contained in the basic science chapters of a new book published by Springer.] Original art courtesy of I.E. Wong Fong Sang, MSc biomedical sciences/neurosciences; PhD candidate in neurobiology (expected completion in March 2019), Johannes Gutenberg University, Mainz, Germany. Reprinted with permission from I.E. Wong Fong Sang.

Since 1982, Schenck’s excitement about sleep medicine, and RBD in particular, has grown. Schenck became the inaugural president of the International Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder Study Group, organized in 2009, and he remains an active member. He has authored or coauthored more than 95 peer-reviewed papers on RBD, greatly increasing our overall knowledge of this parasomnia. Now Schenck is sharing much of his and other experts’ knowledge in a new book published by Springer: Rapid-Eye-Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder. The 600+ page guide, available at www.springer.com/gp/book/9783319901510, is intended for sleep centers, sleep physicians, sleep medicine fellows, sleep technologists, psychologists, and others who have the potential to identify patients with RBD, as well as those with an interest in sleep science and dreaming.

The book got its start in March 2015 in Seoul, South Korea. Associate editors Birgit Högl, MD, and Aleksandar Videnovic, MD, were fresh off serving as editors of a different Springer-published book on sleep. At the World Association of Sleep Medicine congress, they approached Schenck at an early morning meeting about working together on a book about RBD. Schenck jokes that they took advantage of his jet lag so he could only say yes, but in a more serious tone, he adds that he has no regrets about embarking on the project, since it was to become the first textbook on RBD.

Schenck wrote or cowrote 10 chapters, and selected experts—many of whom are part of the international RBD study group—to write additional chapters on their fields of RBD research expertise.

The book is particularly timely. An epidemiologic study recently found the prevalence of polysomnography-confirmed REM sleep behavior disorder to be more than 1% in the general population. “That’s the same prevalence as schizophrenia,” Schenck says. “Most people know about schizophrenia. More people need to know about RBD.” What’s more, the study observed an equal male-female ratio of RBD in the general population.2 Because RBD predicts future parkinsonism, this means women—who typically have less aggressive symptoms—must be diagnosed, particularly if neuroprotective therapies become available to prevent the later development of parkinsonism and its associated dementia.

The book was unveiled at a “Tuesday Noon Meeting” at the MRSDC, a vital weekly focal point for discussing new and challenging patients, new ideas, new findings, and more. Soon after the unveiling, Schenck spoke with Sleep Review about the clinical implications of RBD diagnosis.

Neurologist Mark W. Mahowald, MD, who has an EEG expertise background, points to a PSG tracing, as Schenck and Ranji Varghese, MD, look on. Mahowald was sleep center director at the time the index case of RBD was identified. Varghese, trained in sleep medicine at the Mayo Clinic, is the current director of the MRSDC.

Sleep Review (SR): Other sleep disorders can mimic RBD symptoms. For example, “OSA pseudo-RBD” occurs when patients with severe obstructive sleep apnea are misdiagnosed with REM sleep behavior disorder due to aggressive motor-behavioral events with dreaming that can happen during apnea-triggered arousals. Can you speak about the differential diagnosis? Why is it important to get an RBD diagnosis correct?

Schenck: First, it is important to make the correct diagnosis of dream-enacting behaviors so proper therapy can be initiated to control the underlying disorder causing the behaviors and prevent injury to the affected person and bed partner. However, to make the correct diagnosis, the sleep physician and sleep laboratory should have experience with evaluating parasomnia patients both clinically and in the sleep laboratory with a sufficient PSG [polysomnography] montage and simultaneous time-synchronized video recording, as described in the book.

Peer-reviewed journal articles have identified the following conditions, besides RBD, that can cause aggressive dream-enacting behaviors: OSA pseudo-RBD (usually severe OSA); non-REM sleep parasomnias (sleepwalking, sleep terrors); nocturnal seizures; and most recently periodic limb movement (PLM) disorder pseudo-RBD (with very elevated PLM indices). In these reports, the treatment of the underlying disorder controlled both the underlying disorder and the dream-enacting behaviors. Also, REM atonia was preserved during both the initial and follow-up vPSG [videoPSG] studies, thereby excluding RBD as the basis for dream-enactment.

Furthermore, sleep clinicians need to be aware of the diagnostic entity of parasomnia overlap disorder, a combination of RBD and non-REM parasomnia that the MRSDC first identified in 1997 with a series of 33 cases,3 and which is recognized in the International Classification of Sleep Disorders-Third Edition (ICSD-3). These patients can have dream-enactment with RBD and with their non-REM sleep parasomnia. Finally, part of the comprehensive evaluation of dream-enactment is obtaining a careful medication history, since most antidepressants (except for bupropion) and other medications (eg, beta-blockers) can trigger RBD.

Second, the importance of diagnosing RBD correctly, with PSG confirmation, and excluding other disorders, is because we now know that more than 80% of RBD patients age 50 years and older will develop a parkinsonian disorder, on average 10-15 years from the time they develop RBD.4 The implications of this finding will be discussed more during this interview.

SR: We typically think of most patients with RBD as being middle-aged or old men. What about women and RBD?

Schenck: Women can certainly have RBD, but it is generally milder and with fewer injuries. So they present for medical attention much less frequently than men, who have more aggressive and injurious dream-enacting behaviors.

However, it is the presence of RBD, with the loss of REM atonia, and not the severity of RBD, that is the indicator of future parkinsonism. This means that once disease-modifying therapies are identified to slow down or halt the progression from “idiopathic RBD” to parkinsonism, then the women with mild RBD (and also the men with mild RBD) must be found so they can also receive the protective therapy.

In this scenario, sleep medicine clinicians should alert primary care and geriatric physicians and nurses about RBD and the risk of parkinsonism and dementia and encourage the use of simple RBD screening questionnaires that can be administered to older patients and their spouses.

SR: Can young people have RBD?

Schenck: People of all ages can have RBD, beginning in childhood when RBD is most often associated with narcolepsy, but also with the parasomnia overlap disorder, and more rarely brainstem tumors and other neurological conditions. The treatment of cataplexy or clinical depression in childhood with antidepressant medications can also trigger RBD. This is true for adults as well.

SR: Can animals have RBD? Have we learned anything from animal models?

Schenck: Dogs and cats have been reported in the veterinary medicine literature to have RBD with injuries, prompting their owners to bring their pets to the animal clinic for evaluation and treatment. What is so interesting and gratifying is that experimental animal models of RBD in cats, rats, and mice have been developed since 1965, which have provided key insights into the brainstem nuclei and circuits responsible for REM atonia—the targets for the parkinsonian disease process—and for understanding RBD in humans. Now the therapies developed for treating RBD in humans are being used by veterinarians to treat naturally occurring RBD in animals. This is the completion of a special human-animal therapeutic circle.

SR: How much loss of muscle paralysis during REM sleep must be observed for you to be confident in making a diagnosis of RBD?

Schenck: This is one of the most common questions asked after my lectures on RBD. The general consensus in the RBD research community, based on carefully gathered data reported in peer-reviewed journal articles, is that about a quarter of REM sleep should have loss of REM atonia. However, this is not a rigid cut-off. The ICSD-3 diagnostic criteria for RBD even allow for the diagnosis if there is modest loss of REM atonia, but if an episode of dream-enacting behavior was recorded during REM sleep and there is a convincing clinical history of RBD.

SR: RBD has been linked to the development of Parkinson’s disease later in life. Several studies found that for people who develop RBD after age 50, there is more than an 80% chance of conversion to Parkinson’s disease or its related dementia.4 How do you break that news to a patient?

Schenck: This is a very important topic that is carefully dealt with in chapters 22 and 23 of the RBD textbook. For patients age 50 years and older, there needs to be some mention about the future risk of conversion to parkinsonism, if for no other reason than the presence of this high risk on the internet, and so either the patient, the spouse, other family, or friends will find out. Just Google “RBD” and the Parkinson’s connection pops right up.

So it is clearly far better for the patient to hear this news first from the doctor than from someone else. The thorny issue is exactly how to break the news, and here is where the art of practicing medicine comes into play. The educational level and extent of medical sophistication on the part of the patient are important factors, along with the personality style (eg, obsessional, detail-oriented versus impressionistic, casual style).

The most simple and basic information to impart to a particular patient would be that “because of your RBD, there is a risk of your developing a brain disorder at some time in the future, and you should follow up regularly with your doctor and discuss this matter with him or her.” Then the doctor can field follow-up questions from the patient and spouse and proceed from there. On the other hand, for detail-oriented sophisticated patients, full disclosure of the risk for future parkinsonism should take place. There is a positive side to this scenario: many RBD patients are interested in being enrolled in future neuroprotective studies, and they are also willing to be enrolled in studies on biomarkers to determine which cluster of biomarkers in “idiopathic” RBD can best predict phenoconversion within 2-5 years, which makes research funding feasible. The RBD textbook covers all these issues in various chapters.

SR: What about patients who are younger at the time of diagnosis? Will they also convert to Parkinson’s?

Schenck: This is another common question I am asked. The answer is twofold.

First, we don’t have the data yet on the longitudinal outcome for RBD patients under the age of 50 years, so currently we don’t know.

Second, there are retrospective reports showing how presumed RBD (namely, dream-enactment but without vPSG confirmation) began decades (such as in late adolescence or early adulthood) before the emergence of parkinsonism. So the younger RBD patients should be told they may carry a risk, but that we are not sure. They should follow up with their doctor, who can provide updated information based on new research findings. We also don’t know the natural history of parasomnia overlap disorder and whether it carries a risk for parkinsonism.

Varghese (right), with Schenck, holds a 256-electrode high density (HD) EEG head net, which is a tool employed by the MRSDC in a collaboration with the University of Wisconsin-Madison. They monitor non-REM parasomnia patients (who have sleepwalking, sleep terrors, sleep related eating, etc) to capture behavioral events in the sleep lab, and then correlate the behaviors with the HD-EEG findings.

SR: What is the status of the scientific research that is trying to figure which RBD patients will convert to Parkinson’s? And at what biomarkers are they looking?

Schenck: This is an area of intense scientific research, for the reason we discussed earlier (in regard to identifying the highest-risk RBD patients for converting to parkinsonism within 2-5 years, so they can be enrolled in neuroprotective trials). Chapter 36 by Ron Postuma, MD, MSc, addresses the topic of biomarkers, with some of the most important ones being loss of smell, vision changes, subtle motor abnormalities (including gait), EEG slowing, abnormal brain imaging findings, mild cognitive impairment, constipation, depression, etc.

I should point out that a number of biomarkers in isolation are quite nonspecific, such as constipation or depression. But when they are clustered together with other biomarkers, especially in the powerful context of RBD, then they can become predictors of imminent phenoconversion.

SR: What is the status of therapies for RBD? Are any therapies being investigated that may prevent the later development of Parkinson’s?

Schenck: Clonazepam and melatonin taken at bedtime are the usually effective firstline therapies of RBD, as confirmed by an American Academy of Sleep Medicine standards of practice publication in the Journal of Clinical Sleep Medicine.5

However, an exciting publication from earlier this year in the Archives of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation described another (complementary) therapeutic approach. Based on the correct logic that since virtually all middle-aged and older RBD patients are in the process of developing parkinsonism, the authors posit that the physical and occupational therapy that is employed in parkinsonian patients should also be started in newly diagnosed RBD patients. The aim is to maximize the extent and duration of functionality. The areas of physical therapy identified were postural muscles, trunk range of motion, movements practice (involving amplitude and speed), balance training (for fall prevention), agility training (to maintain mobility under challenging environmental and dual task conditions), aerobic exercise, and gait assessment. The areas of occupational therapy identified were securing the safety of the sleeping environment, developing compensatory measures for autonomic dysfunctions, rehabilitating cognitive dysfunction (such as memory dysfunction), and voice and speech therapy.6 The latter is to address the four components of speech that can be affected in early parkinsonism (aperiodicity, alternating motion irregularities, articulatory decay, dysfluency).

Finally, basic scientists and clinical investigators are actively searching for promising neuroprotective agents to test that may slow down or halt the progression from RBD to parkinsonism.

Schenck dedicated the first RBD textbook to Mahowald (left) and to the late Michel Jouvet, MD, PhD, pioneer in the first experimental animal model of RBD.

SR: What is the status of figuring out the cause(s) of RBD?

Schenck: Besides parkinsonism and antidepressant medications, there is a broad spectrum of neurological disorders that can cause RBD by their impact on REM atonia, as discussed in detail in the RBD textbook. Also, autoimmune diseases, paraneoplastic disorders (related to remote malignancies), and toxic-metabolic disorders can cause RBD. And a new frontier of acute stress-induced RBD needs further research. Trauma-associated sleep disorder (TSD) has been reported in a series of cases that involved some loss of REM atonia with aggressive dream-enacting behaviors in PTSD patients. Table 1 in the textbook preface lists the 46 areas of research that intersect with RBD, indicating how RBD is at the center of many important areas of clinical neuroscience and sleep medicine.

Sree Roy is chief editor of Sleep Review.

References

1. Schenck CH, Bundlie SR, Ettinger MG, Mahowald MW. Chronic behavioral disorders of human REM sleep: a new category of parasomnia. Sleep. 1986; 9(2):293-308. 2. Haba-Rubio J, Frauscher B, Marques-Vidal P, et al. Prevalence and determinants of rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder in the general population. Sleep. 41(2);1 February 2018:zsx197. 3. Schenck CH, Boyd JL, Mahowald MW. A parasomnia overlap disorder involving sleepwalking, sleep terrors, and REM sleep behavior disorder in 33 polysomnographically confirmed cases. Sleep. 1997;20(11):972-81. 4. Schenck CH, Boeve BF, Mahowald MW. Delayed emergence of a parkinsonian disorder or dementia in 81% of older men initially diagnosed with idiopathic rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder: a 16-year update on a previously reported series. Sleep Med. 2013;14(8):744–8. 5. Aurora RN, Zak RS, Maganti RK, et al. Best practice guide for the treatment of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD). J Clin Sleep Med. 2010 Feb 15;6(1):85-95. 6. Johnson BP, Westlake KP. Link between Parkinson disease and rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder with dream enactment: possible implications for early rehabilitation. Arch Phys Med Rehabil. 2018;99(2):411-5.

Featured image: Carlos H. Schenck, MD (front row, second from left), of the Minnesota Regional Sleep Disorders Center (MRSDC), shares his and other experts’ knowledge in a new textbook entitled Rapid-Eye-Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder. He unveiled the book to colleagues at MRSDC’s weekly “Tuesday Noon Meeting.” Front row (left to right): Ranji Varghese, MD, Carlos H. Schenck, MD, Muna Irfan, MD, Mark W. Mahowald, MD, Michel A. Cramer Bornemann, MD. Back row (left to right): Pava Cabaravdic, RPSGT, Erin Golden, MD, Tangy Michnowski, RPSGT, Michelle Gerow-Ellis, APRN, CNP, Cindy Farr, Constance Ullevig, RN, Mark Gehrt, RPSGT, Eduardo A. Colón, MD (chief of psychiatry), Samantha Lee Anders, PhD, LP.

from Sleep Review http://www.sleepreviewmag.com/2018/12/rem-sleep-behavior-disorder/

from Elly Mackay - Feed https://www.ellymackay.com/2018/12/13/rem-sleep-behavior-disorder-gets-a-textbook-carlos-h-schenck-md/

[marclefrancois1]

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder Gets a Textbook: Carlos H. Schenck, MD

The blog post e0a9e1e9e6412908cf53cee25f32209b62d23d03e119cd2df63e6855e8fc22eee0a9e1e9e6412908cf53cee25f32209b62d23d03e119cd2df63e6855e8fc22eepostlinke0a9e1e9e6412908cf53cee25f32209b62d23d03e119cd2df63e6855e8fc22eee0a9e1e9e6412908cf53cee25f32209b62d23d03e119cd2df63e6855e8fc22ee Read more on: The Marc Le Francois Sleep Health Blog

RBD expert Carlos H. Schenck, MD, starts at the beginning.

Interview by Sree Roy | Photography by Christine Hill/Hennepin Healthcare

In 1982, Carlos H. Schenck, MD, evaluated his first sleep medicine patients. A staff psychiatrist at Hennepin County Medical Center in Minneapolis, Schenck had long held an interest in neurophysiology. So it was serendipitous timing that the Minnesota Regional Sleep Disorders Center (MRSDC)—which had opened its doors at Hennepin County Medical Center in 1978 as a department of neurology initiative—was expanding its physician base to become a multidisciplinary sleep center. Doctors in other departments were asked if they were interested in practicing some sleep medicine. Since much of sleep medicine and sleep science involves neurophysiology during sleep, Schenck signed up.

As it happened, Schenck’s first day working part-time at the sleep center coincided with the appointment of a patient named Donald Dorff. Dorff told Schenck about his violent dreams and how he’d wake up injured and with his bedroom in disarray, apparently the result of unknowingly acting out those dreams. Dorff was scheduled for an overnight sleep study.

During the sleep study, Schenck witnessed Dorff’s thrashes, twitches, jerks, kicks, and punches—all occurring while Dorff was sound asleep. “It was exciting for me,” Schenck recalls. Equally exciting was the conversation between sleep center director Mark W. Mahowald, MD, (now retired but still making regular appearances at the MRSDC) and sleep lab manager/chief technologist Andrea Patterson, RPSGT, REEGT, (now deceased) the next morning. Had Dorff’s thrashes, twitches, jerks, kicks, and punches occurred during REM or non-REM sleep? Were they seizures? What disorder was this? Eventually they all agreed: The dream-enacting activity could only have occurred during REM sleep.

Patient Dorff is now recognized as the index case for REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD), a parasomnia of abnormal behavioral release during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and characterized by the loss of REM atonia, that is, the loss of the muscle paralysis that is supposed to accompany REM sleep.1

Schematic diagram. Left: The pons, the site for generating REM sleep, simultaneously sends ascending activating signals (in red) to the motor cortex and descending inhibitory signals (in blue) to the spinal cord alpha-motoneurons via the medulla, to result in REM atonia, with brief, benign twitches in REM sleep. Right: A range of clinical insults can cause REM without atonia, increased twitching in REM sleep, and RBD, with disinhibition of the REM atonia pathway indicated by the red color replacing the blue color on the left side. [The specific neuronal groups and pathways underlying this schematic diagram are contained in the basic science chapters of a new book published by Springer.] Original art courtesy of I.E. Wong Fong Sang, MSc biomedical sciences/neurosciences; PhD candidate in neurobiology (expected completion in March 2019), Johannes Gutenberg University, Mainz, Germany. Reprinted with permission from I.E. Wong Fong Sang.

Since 1982, Schenck’s excitement about sleep medicine, and RBD in particular, has grown. Schenck became the inaugural president of the International Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder Study Group, organized in 2009, and he remains an active member. He has authored or coauthored more than 95 peer-reviewed papers on RBD, greatly increasing our overall knowledge of this parasomnia. Now Schenck is sharing much of his and other experts’ knowledge in a new book published by Springer: Rapid-Eye-Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder. The 600+ page guide, available at www.springer.com/gp/book/9783319901510, is intended for sleep centers, sleep physicians, sleep medicine fellows, sleep technologists, psychologists, and others who have the potential to identify patients with RBD, as well as those with an interest in sleep science and dreaming.

The book got its start in March 2015 in Seoul, South Korea. Associate editors Birgit Högl, MD, and Aleksandar Videnovic, MD, were fresh off serving as editors of a different Springer-published book on sleep. At the World Association of Sleep Medicine congress, they approached Schenck at an early morning meeting about working together on a book about RBD. Schenck jokes that they took advantage of his jet lag so he could only say yes, but in a more serious tone, he adds that he has no regrets about embarking on the project, since it was to become the first textbook on RBD.

Schenck wrote or cowrote 10 chapters, and selected experts—many of whom are part of the international RBD study group—to write additional chapters on their fields of RBD research expertise.

The book is particularly timely. An epidemiologic study recently found the prevalence of polysomnography-confirmed REM sleep behavior disorder to be more than 1% in the general population. “That’s the same prevalence as schizophrenia,” Schenck says. “Most people know about schizophrenia. More people need to know about RBD.” What’s more, the study observed an equal male-female ratio of RBD in the general population.2 Because RBD predicts future parkinsonism, this means women—who typically have less aggressive symptoms—must be diagnosed, particularly if neuroprotective therapies become available to prevent the later development of parkinsonism and its associated dementia.

The book was unveiled at a “Tuesday Noon Meeting” at the MRSDC, a vital weekly focal point for discussing new and challenging patients, new ideas, new findings, and more. Soon after the unveiling, Schenck spoke with Sleep Review about the clinical implications of RBD diagnosis.

Neurologist Mark W. Mahowald, MD, who has an EEG expertise background, points to a PSG tracing, as Schenck and Ranji Varghese, MD, look on. Mahowald was sleep center director at the time the index case of RBD was identified. Varghese, trained in sleep medicine at the Mayo Clinic, is the current director of the MRSDC.

Sleep Review (SR): Other sleep disorders can mimic RBD symptoms. For example, “OSA pseudo-RBD” occurs when patients with severe obstructive sleep apnea are misdiagnosed with REM sleep behavior disorder due to aggressive motor-behavioral events with dreaming that can happen during apnea-triggered arousals. Can you speak about the differential diagnosis? Why is it important to get an RBD diagnosis correct?

Schenck: First, it is important to make the correct diagnosis of dream-enacting behaviors so proper therapy can be initiated to control the underlying disorder causing the behaviors and prevent injury to the affected person and bed partner. However, to make the correct diagnosis, the sleep physician and sleep laboratory should have experience with evaluating parasomnia patients both clinically and in the sleep laboratory with a sufficient PSG [polysomnography] montage and simultaneous time-synchronized video recording, as described in the book.

Peer-reviewed journal articles have identified the following conditions, besides RBD, that can cause aggressive dream-enacting behaviors: OSA pseudo-RBD (usually severe OSA); non-REM sleep parasomnias (sleepwalking, sleep terrors); nocturnal seizures; and most recently periodic limb movement (PLM) disorder pseudo-RBD (with very elevated PLM indices). In these reports, the treatment of the underlying disorder controlled both the underlying disorder and the dream-enacting behaviors. Also, REM atonia was preserved during both the initial and follow-up vPSG [videoPSG] studies, thereby excluding RBD as the basis for dream-enactment.

Furthermore, sleep clinicians need to be aware of the diagnostic entity of parasomnia overlap disorder, a combination of RBD and non-REM parasomnia that the MRSDC first identified in 1997 with a series of 33 cases,3 and which is recognized in the International Classification of Sleep Disorders-Third Edition (ICSD-3). These patients can have dream-enactment with RBD and with their non-REM sleep parasomnia. Finally, part of the comprehensive evaluation of dream-enactment is obtaining a careful medication history, since most antidepressants (except for bupropion) and other medications (eg, beta-blockers) can trigger RBD.

Second, the importance of diagnosing RBD correctly, with PSG confirmation, and excluding other disorders, is because we now know that more than 80% of RBD patients age 50 years and older will develop a parkinsonian disorder, on average 10-15 years from the time they develop RBD.4 The implications of this finding will be discussed more during this interview.

SR: We typically think of most patients with RBD as being middle-aged or old men. What about women and RBD?

Schenck: Women can certainly have RBD, but it is generally milder and with fewer injuries. So they present for medical attention much less frequently than men, who have more aggressive and injurious dream-enacting behaviors.

However, it is the presence of RBD, with the loss of REM atonia, and not the severity of RBD, that is the indicator of future parkinsonism. This means that once disease-modifying therapies are identified to slow down or halt the progression from “idiopathic RBD” to parkinsonism, then the women with mild RBD (and also the men with mild RBD) must be found so they can also receive the protective therapy.

In this scenario, sleep medicine clinicians should alert primary care and geriatric physicians and nurses about RBD and the risk of parkinsonism and dementia and encourage the use of simple RBD screening questionnaires that can be administered to older patients and their spouses.

SR: Can young people have RBD?

Schenck: People of all ages can have RBD, beginning in childhood when RBD is most often associated with narcolepsy, but also with the parasomnia overlap disorder, and more rarely brainstem tumors and other neurological conditions. The treatment of cataplexy or clinical depression in childhood with antidepressant medications can also trigger RBD. This is true for adults as well.

SR: Can animals have RBD? Have we learned anything from animal models?

Schenck: Dogs and cats have been reported in the veterinary medicine literature to have RBD with injuries, prompting their owners to bring their pets to the animal clinic for evaluation and treatment. What is so interesting and gratifying is that experimental animal models of RBD in cats, rats, and mice have been developed since 1965, which have provided key insights into the brainstem nuclei and circuits responsible for REM atonia—the targets for the parkinsonian disease process—and for understanding RBD in humans. Now the therapies developed for treating RBD in humans are being used by veterinarians to treat naturally occurring RBD in animals. This is the completion of a special human-animal therapeutic circle.

SR: How much loss of muscle paralysis during REM sleep must be observed for you to be confident in making a diagnosis of RBD?

Schenck: This is one of the most common questions asked after my lectures on RBD. The general consensus in the RBD research community, based on carefully gathered data reported in peer-reviewed journal articles, is that about a quarter of REM sleep should have loss of REM atonia. However, this is not a rigid cut-off. The ICSD-3 diagnostic criteria for RBD even allow for the diagnosis if there is modest loss of REM atonia, but if an episode of dream-enacting behavior was recorded during REM sleep and there is a convincing clinical history of RBD.

SR: RBD has been linked to the development of Parkinson’s disease later in life. Several studies found that for people who develop RBD after age 50, there is more than an 80% chance of conversion to Parkinson’s disease or its related dementia.4 How do you break that news to a patient?

Schenck: This is a very important topic that is carefully dealt with in chapters 22 and 23 of the RBD textbook. For patients age 50 years and older, there needs to be some mention about the future risk of conversion to parkinsonism, if for no other reason than the presence of this high risk on the internet, and so either the patient, the spouse, other family, or friends will find out. Just Google “RBD” and the Parkinson’s connection pops right up.

So it is clearly far better for the patient to hear this news first from the doctor than from someone else. The thorny issue is exactly how to break the news, and here is where the art of practicing medicine comes into play. The educational level and extent of medical sophistication on the part of the patient are important factors, along with the personality style (eg, obsessional, detail-oriented versus impressionistic, casual style).

The most simple and basic information to impart to a particular patient would be that “because of your RBD, there is a risk of your developing a brain disorder at some time in the future, and you should follow up regularly with your doctor and discuss this matter with him or her.” Then the doctor can field follow-up questions from the patient and spouse and proceed from there. On the other hand, for detail-oriented sophisticated patients, full disclosure of the risk for future parkinsonism should take place. There is a positive side to this scenario: many RBD patients are interested in being enrolled in future neuroprotective studies, and they are also willing to be enrolled in studies on biomarkers to determine which cluster of biomarkers in “idiopathic” RBD can best predict phenoconversion within 2-5 years, which makes research funding feasible. The RBD textbook covers all these issues in various chapters.

SR: What about patients who are younger at the time of diagnosis? Will they also convert to Parkinson’s?

Schenck: This is another common question I am asked. The answer is twofold.

First, we don’t have the data yet on the longitudinal outcome for RBD patients under the age of 50 years, so currently we don’t know.

Second, there are retrospective reports showing how presumed RBD (namely, dream-enactment but without vPSG confirmation) began decades (such as in late adolescence or early adulthood) before the emergence of parkinsonism. So the younger RBD patients should be told they may carry a risk, but that we are not sure. They should follow up with their doctor, who can provide updated information based on new research findings. We also don’t know the natural history of parasomnia overlap disorder and whether it carries a risk for parkinsonism.

Varghese (right), with Schenck, holds a 256-electrode high density (HD) EEG head net, which is a tool employed by the MRSDC in a collaboration with the University of Wisconsin-Madison. They monitor non-REM parasomnia patients (who have sleepwalking, sleep terrors, sleep related eating, etc) to capture behavioral events in the sleep lab, and then correlate the behaviors with the HD-EEG findings.

SR: What is the status of the scientific research that is trying to figure which RBD patients will convert to Parkinson’s? And at what biomarkers are they looking?

Schenck: This is an area of intense scientific research, for the reason we discussed earlier (in regard to identifying the highest-risk RBD patients for converting to parkinsonism within 2-5 years, so they can be enrolled in neuroprotective trials). Chapter 36 by Ron Postuma, MD, MSc, addresses the topic of biomarkers, with some of the most important ones being loss of smell, vision changes, subtle motor abnormalities (including gait), EEG slowing, abnormal brain imaging findings, mild cognitive impairment, constipation, depression, etc.

I should point out that a number of biomarkers in isolation are quite nonspecific, such as constipation or depression. But when they are clustered together with other biomarkers, especially in the powerful context of RBD, then they can become predictors of imminent phenoconversion.

SR: What is the status of therapies for RBD? Are any therapies being investigated that may prevent the later development of Parkinson’s?

Schenck: Clonazepam and melatonin taken at bedtime are the usually effective firstline therapies of RBD, as confirmed by an American Academy of Sleep Medicine standards of practice publication in the Journal of Clinical Sleep Medicine.5

However, an exciting publication from earlier this year in the Archives of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation described another (complementary) therapeutic approach. Based on the correct logic that since virtually all middle-aged and older RBD patients are in the process of developing parkinsonism, the authors posit that the physical and occupational therapy that is employed in parkinsonian patients should also be started in newly diagnosed RBD patients. The aim is to maximize the extent and duration of functionality. The areas of physical therapy identified were postural muscles, trunk range of motion, movements practice (involving amplitude and speed), balance training (for fall prevention), agility training (to maintain mobility under challenging environmental and dual task conditions), aerobic exercise, and gait assessment. The areas of occupational therapy identified were securing the safety of the sleeping environment, developing compensatory measures for autonomic dysfunctions, rehabilitating cognitive dysfunction (such as memory dysfunction), and voice and speech therapy.6 The latter is to address the four components of speech that can be affected in early parkinsonism (aperiodicity, alternating motion irregularities, articulatory decay, dysfluency).

Finally, basic scientists and clinical investigators are actively searching for promising neuroprotective agents to test that may slow down or halt the progression from RBD to parkinsonism.

Schenck dedicated the first RBD textbook to Mahowald (left) and to the late Michel Jouvet, MD, PhD, pioneer in the first experimental animal model of RBD.

SR: What is the status of figuring out the cause(s) of RBD?

Schenck: Besides parkinsonism and antidepressant medications, there is a broad spectrum of neurological disorders that can cause RBD by their impact on REM atonia, as discussed in detail in the RBD textbook. Also, autoimmune diseases, paraneoplastic disorders (related to remote malignancies), and toxic-metabolic disorders can cause RBD. And a new frontier of acute stress-induced RBD needs further research. Trauma-associated sleep disorder (TSD) has been reported in a series of cases that involved some loss of REM atonia with aggressive dream-enacting behaviors in PTSD patients. Table 1 in the textbook preface lists the 46 areas of research that intersect with RBD, indicating how RBD is at the center of many important areas of clinical neuroscience and sleep medicine.

Sree Roy is chief editor of Sleep Review.

References

1. Schenck CH, Bundlie SR, Ettinger MG, Mahowald MW. Chronic behavioral disorders of human REM sleep: a new category of parasomnia. Sleep. 1986; 9(2):293-308. 2. Haba-Rubio J, Frauscher B, Marques-Vidal P, et al. Prevalence and determinants of rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder in the general population. Sleep. 41(2);1 February 2018:zsx197. 3. Schenck CH, Boyd JL, Mahowald MW. A parasomnia overlap disorder involving sleepwalking, sleep terrors, and REM sleep behavior disorder in 33 polysomnographically confirmed cases. Sleep. 1997;20(11):972-81. 4. Schenck CH, Boeve BF, Mahowald MW. Delayed emergence of a parkinsonian disorder or dementia in 81% of older men initially diagnosed with idiopathic rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder: a 16-year update on a previously reported series. Sleep Med. 2013;14(8):744–8. 5. Aurora RN, Zak RS, Maganti RK, et al. Best practice guide for the treatment of REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD). J Clin Sleep Med. 2010 Feb 15;6(1):85-95. 6. Johnson BP, Westlake KP. Link between Parkinson disease and rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder with dream enactment: possible implications for early rehabilitation. Arch Phys Med Rehabil. 2018;99(2):411-5.

Featured image: Carlos H. Schenck, MD (front row, second from left), of the Minnesota Regional Sleep Disorders Center (MRSDC), shares his and other experts’ knowledge in a new textbook entitled Rapid-Eye-Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder. He unveiled the book to colleagues at MRSDC’s weekly “Tuesday Noon Meeting.” Front row (left to right): Ranji Varghese, MD, Carlos H. Schenck, MD, Muna Irfan, MD, Mark W. Mahowald, MD, Michel A. Cramer Bornemann, MD. Back row (left to right): Pava Cabaravdic, RPSGT, Erin Golden, MD, Tangy Michnowski, RPSGT, Michelle Gerow-Ellis, APRN, CNP, Cindy Farr, Constance Ullevig, RN, Mark Gehrt, RPSGT, Eduardo A. Colón, MD (chief of psychiatry), Samantha Lee Anders, PhD, LP.

from Sleep Review http://www.sleepreviewmag.com/2018/12/rem-sleep-behavior-disorder/

from https://www.marclefrancois.net/2018/12/13/rem-sleep-behavior-disorder-gets-a-textbook-carlos-h-schenck-md/

[rubinsahra-blog]

Psychology An Introduction 10th edition by Benjamin Lahey – Test Bank

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 Psychology An Introduction 10th edition by Benjamin Lahey – Test Bank

 Sample  Questions

 6 STATES OF CONSCIOUSNESS

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  Simply     defined, consciousness is

A)     limited to mammalian species.

B) the     state between awake and asleep.

C) a     feeling of moral obligation.

D) a     state of awareness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

  When a     person is aware of events taking place in her or his internal as well as     external environment, that person is considered to be in a state of

A)     consciousness.

B)     transcendence.

C)     divided perception.

D)     heightened sensation.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

  While     driving a long distance on a familiar route, Jim finds his mind wandering     from work to family to thoughts of dead relatives and winning the lottery.     He has no memory of the actual drive. This is an example of

A)     normal dreams.

B)     daydreams.

C)     abnormal obsessions.

D)     divided consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 169

Style: Applied

  Barbara     is reading a book she got as a Christmas gift. Her mind keeps wandering to     other gifts she has received, and so she has to reread several pages. This     is an example of

A)     divided consciousness.

B)     abnormal behavior.

C)     obsessions

D)     compulsive behavior

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Conceptual

   Research     about daydreams suggests that daydreams ______ tension.

A)     release

B)     create

C)     negate

D)     dissipate

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  You     have just read your psychology assignment for the third time in the last     hour. You know you looked at each word and turned all the pages. However,     you cannot remember a single word you’ve read because you keep thinking     about your job interview tomorrow. What have you just experienced?

A)     manifest consciousness

B)     flowing consciousness

C)     transcendental consciousness

D)     divided consciousness

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 169

Style: Applied

  When     two activities are simultaneously attended to, consciousness is said to be

A)     repressed.

B)     transcendent.

C)     divided.

D)     additive.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  Lindsay     had just won the lottery. She drove to a friend’s house to tell her the     good news. After safely arriving at her friend’s house, she realized she     had very little recollection of how she got there. This is a demonstration     of

A)     directed consciousness.

B)     flowing consciousness.

C)     divided consciousness.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 169

Style: Conceptual

  According     to research, when you are driving, which of the following is the most     distracting?

A)     reviewing the day in your head

B)     listening to the radio

C)     conversation on a cell phone

D)     listening to pre-recorded music

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  The     term used to describe a split in conscious awareness that allows us to     perform two or more tasks at the same time is

A) dissociated     personality disorder.

B)     multiple personality disorder.

C)     schizophrenia.

D)     divided consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  Mental     processes that occur without a person being aware of them are

A)     daydreams.

B)     unconscious.

C)     hypnagogic.

D)     conscious.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  When     research participants were asked to repeat a message coming in one ear and     ignore a message coming in the other ear, what were the researchers     attempting to demonstrate scientifically?

A)     unconscious processing

B)     flowing consciousness

C)     depersonalization

D)     bipolar consciousness

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 170

Style: Factual

  Compared     to listening to the car radio or CD, talking on a cell phone

A) is     less distracting.

B)     has shown no increase in accidents.

C)     causes an equal number of accidents.

D) is     much more distracting.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  The     cocktail party phenomenon describes a situation in which individuals

A)     process incoming information even if they are not consciously attending to     it.

B)     when spending time in groups start to think with one mind, following a     strong leader.

C)     who consume alcohol lose their inhibitions and process information     differently.

D)     invited to the party exhibit feelings of superiority compared to those not     invited.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 169–170

Style: Factual

  You     are at a party, and having a nice conversation with someone. All the way     across the room someone says your name, and you immediately hear it and     pay attention to it? When this happens, it is known as the ______     phenomenon.

A)     Ebbinghaus

B)     mnemonic device

C)     tip-of-the-tongue

D)     cocktail party

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169–170

Style: Factual

  The     semi-wakeful period that precedes light sleep is called

A)     myoclonia.

B)     the hypnagogic state.

C)     REM sleep.

D)     the transcendental state.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  A     concerned friend told you that as her spouse goes to sleep his body is     prone to sudden jerks. What should you tell her?

A)     Her spouse is a victim of sleep apnea.

B)     Her spouse is experiencing abnormal hypnogogia.

C)     Her spouse may have narcolepsy.

D)     Her spouse is experiencing normal myoclonia.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 172

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following best characterizes a night’s sleep?

A) We     begin the night in light sleep and end in deep sleep.

B) We     pass from light sleep to dream sleep to deep sleep.

C)     Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.

D) We     alternate from the hypnagogic state to dream sleep about six times.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  If a sleeping     person’s eyes are moving back and forth rapidly under the eyelids, it is     likely that this individual is

A) in     the deepest level of sleep.

B)     dreaming.

C) in     a hypnagogic state.

D)     awakening.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

  The     brain waves of a person having a vivid dream are most similar to

A)     conscious awareness.

B)     the hypnagogic state.

C)     deep (stage 4) sleep.

D)     light (stage 2) sleep.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

  In     general, sleep consumes ______ of our lives.

A)     10%

B)     25%

C)     33%

D)     50%

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Factual

  The     twilight stage in between wakefulness and sleep is referred to as the

A)     myoclonia nervosa.

B)     hypnotic stage.

C) hypnagogic     state.

D)     somnambulism effect.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following would be an example of myoclonia?

A)     your neck being sore from sleeping in the “wrong” position

B)     your chest throbbing with heartburn

C)     your leg cramping up at night

D)     your body experiencing a sudden jerk

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173

Style: Factual

  It is     2:00 a.m. and Allison has been sleeping for several hours. Her heart     begins to pound and flutter, her fingers twitch, her eyelids flicker, and     her breathing becomes shallow and irregular. A sleep researcher would best     describe these phenomena as an example of

A) a     night terror.

B) an     autonomic storm.

C)     non-REM dream patterns.

D)     stage one sleep.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 174

Style: Applied

  Dreams     occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less fragmented, and less     likely to involve visual images compared to ________ sleep.

A)     REM; non-REM

B)     non-REM; REM

C)     hypnagogic; REM

D) hypnagogic;     non-REM

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 174–175

Style: Conceptual

  The     difference between REM and non-REM dreams is that

A)     non-REM dreams have more imagery.

B)     REM dreams are less frequent.

C)     non-REM dreams have bizarre content.

D)     non-REM dreams are closer to normal thinking.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  The     average college student spends about ______ a night in REM sleep.

A) 1     hour

B) 2     hours

C) 30     minutes

D) 4     hours

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Factual

  During     a night of sleep, when does REM sleep occur?

A) in     one long episode at the beginning of the night

B) in     one long episode at the end of the night

C) in     about four to six episodes distributed across the night’s sleep

D) in     two long episodes, one at the beginning and one at the end of the night

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Factual

  During     REM sleep, ______ dreams take place.

A)     all

B)     about half of

C)     less than 10% of

D)     about 80% of

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174

Style: Factual

  A     class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own     blood pressure and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data     were graphed, it became clear that these readings changed in a predictable     way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that many     physiological processes are

A)     determined by subconscious expectations.

B)     governed by circadian rhythms.

C)     controlled by daily lunar cycles.

D)     correlated with lunar rotation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Applied

  Which     hormone follows a circadian rhythm and peaks just before a person wakes     from sleep?

A)     melatonin

B)     growth

C)     cortisol

D)     prolactin

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  In a     sensory deprivation experiment, Bob was required to remain in a windowless     room for several weeks. Based on results from previous research, it is     likely that his sleep-wake cycle

A)     shortened from 24 hours to 22 hours.

B)     remained the same during the experiment.

C)     lengthened from 24 hours to 25 hours.

D)     adjusted to a lunar cycle of 28 days.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 176

Style: Applied

  Internally     generated cycles lasting about 24 hours a day that regulate sleep and wake     cycles, as well as hormone secretion, are called

A)     sleep disorders.

B)     circadian rhythms.

C)     REM periods.

D)     astral projections.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  The     biological cycle of approximately 24 hours in length that regulates our     pattern of sleep is called a/n

A)     circadian rhythm.

B)     myoclonic event.

C)     non-REM sequence.

D)     out-of-body experience.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  The     hormone ______ is a key factor in regulating a person’s level of     sleepiness.

A)     testosterone

B)     melatonin

C)     estrogen

D)     glutamate

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  How     does body temperature change in relation to the circadian rhythm linked to     the sleep cycle? Body temperature

A)     falls during REM sleep but rises again during the periods of non-REM     sleep.

B)     falls at the beginning of sleep and starts to rise by the middle of your     sleep cycle.

C)     falls at the beginning of sleep and continues to fall until the middle of     your sleep period.

D)     rises during dreams that are anxiety-provoking but rises during dreams     that are calm.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 175

Style: Conceptual

  The     term “sleep debt” describes a condition in which

A)     the sleeper goes immediately into REM sleep.

B)     insomnia develops at night, and narcolepsy occurs during the day.

C)     daily naps interfere with normal sleeping patterns.

D) a     person falls asleep more quickly and sleeps longer.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 176

Style: Factual

  For     men who sleep less than four and a half hours per night, this behavior is     associated with a ______ in death rates.

A)     50% increase

B)     15% increase

C) 5%     decrease

D)     65% decrease

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

  Short-term     sleep deprivation ______ the body’s immune system.

A)     improves

B)     accelerates

C)     stops

D)     slows down

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

  Most     adults sleep ______ hours per night.

A) 7     to 8

B) 9     to 10

C) 5     to 6

D) 11     to 12

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 177

Style: Factual

  What     did Freud consider to be the “royal road to the unconscious”?

A)     dreams

B)     meditation

C)     the ego

D)     hypnosis

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  Of     the following, which sensation is least likely to be reported after waking     from a dream?

A)     smelling a floral aroma

B)     hearing crowd noise

C)     seeing strange people

D)     feeling sexually aroused

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Factual

  While     preparing a paper on dreaming, you came across a book that described the     meaning of various dream images. The assumption made by the author is that     dreams

A)     have symbolic meaning.

B)     recycle daily residue.

C)     are stimulated by real-life events.

D)     are analogous to hallucinations.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Conceptual

  According     to research, which term would best describe the actual frequency of sexual     dreams?

A) nonexistant

B)     rare

C)     frequent

D)     constant

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Conceptual

  Taylor     dreamt she was hearing a phone ringing, but could not find the phone. When     she woke up she realized her real phone had wrung while she was asleep.     This is an example

A)     latent content.

B)     stimulus incorporation.

C) day     residue.

D)     residual sensation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 179

Style: Conceptual

  In     Freud’s theory of dreaming, the story you remember when you wake up is the

A)     manifest content.

B)     latent content.

C)     event sequence.

D)     surface structure.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  4     Sigrid has been studying very hard for her medical school entrance exam.     Last night she dreamt she was taking the test and had nothing to write     with. Sigrid’s dream is an example of

A)     stimulus incorporation.

B)     the influence of day residue.

C)     the protective feature of dreams.

D) a     night terror.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 179

Style: Conceptual

  What     percentage of dreams include tastes or smells?

A)     About 25%

B)     About 50%

C)     Less than 1%

D)     Over 99%

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

  Of the     following, which occurs in your dreams most often?

A)     animals

B)     family members

C)     friends

D) you

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is true regarding the dreams we remember?

A) We     remember negative dreams because they tend to wake us up.

B) We     don’t remember positive dreams because there are so many of them.

C) We     remember negative dreams because they are the first dreams of REM sleep.

D) We     don’t remember negative dreams because our defense mechanisms protect us.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

  Regarding     our dreams, the term ‘day residue’ refers to the idea that

A)     the amount of sleep at night is related to the number of hours awake     during the day.

B)     dreams seem to contain one character or event from the preceding day.

C) in     the morning after a dream, an amount of day residue can be found on your     eyes.

D)     the hormonal changes during sleep at night are evident in behavioral     changes the next day.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  The     phenomenon of ______ involves components of the real environment you are     in to be included as part of your actual dream.

A)     mesmerism

B)     somnambulism

C)     stimulus incorporation

D)     day residue

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  Freud     was mostly interested in the ______ of dreams.

A) day     residue

B)     manifest content

C)     stimulus incorporation

D)     latent content

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  A     terrifying kind of dream that occurs during REM sleep and whose content is     exceptionally frightening or uncomfortable is called a(n)

A)     nightmare.

B)     night terror.

C)     autonomic storm.

D)     REM fright.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  A     sleep research participant awoke suddenly during non-REM sleep screaming,     heart pounding, and sweating heavily. What else might the participant     report to the sleep researcher?

A) a     vividly frightening dream

B) a     sensation of falling

C) a     strong urge to go back to sleep

D) no     clear recollection of a dream

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

  If     your spouse engages in frequent sleeptalking, you know that this is a

A)     common sleep phenomenon.

B)     phenomenon that only occurs in stage one sleep.

C)     serious sleep disorder associated with sleepwalking.

D)     phenomenon that occurs only in REM sleep.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  You     are experiencing ______ if your dream during REM sleep is particularly     frightening and you are upset enough to wake up from your dream.

A)     nightmares

B)     night terrors

C)     night sweats

D)     narcolepsy

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

   Night     terrors tend to occur

A) in     women much more often than men.

B)     during the deepest phases of non-REM sleep.

C)     with the temporary stoppage of breathing.

D)     with individuals who are malnourished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Sleeptalking     occurs during ______ phase of the sleep cycle.

A)     the deepest

B)     the non-REM

C)     any

D)     the REM

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Jerry     is in the process of getting a divorce and is having trouble at his job.     Previously he had not had any sleep disorders but is bothered by one now.     Which disorder would he most likely have developed?

A)     sleep apnea

B)     narcolepsy

C)     insomnia

D)     sleeptalking

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

  Lucy     wants to go to sleep at 10:00 p.m. because she gets up for work at 5:30     a.m. She has been trying for a month to fall asleep by 10:00 p.m. but     can’t seem to fall asleep until after 11:00 p.m. Lucy most likely has

A)     manifest insomnia.

B)     sleep-onset insomnia.

C)     latent insomnia.

D)     sleep-latency insomnia.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

  If     you find that you are waking up frequently during the night or often wake     up an hour or two before your alarm goes off, you may have

A)     manifest insomnia.

B)     sleep-onset insomnia.

C)     sleep-latency insomnia.

D)     early-awakening insomnia.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Narcolepsy     is a sleep disorder characterized by

A)     sleepwalking and sleeptalking.

B) an     anxious, panicky feeling.

C)     irresistible urges to fall asleep.

D)     excessively long sleep periods.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 181

Style: Factual

  During     a night’s sleep, frequently occurring apnea may cause symptoms similar to

A)     narcolepsy.

B)     night terrors.

C)     latent insomnia.

D)     sleep-onset insomnia.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 181

Style: Factual

  In     ______ insomnia, individuals wake up sooner than desired, perhaps in the     middle of the night or closer to the morning.

A)     latent content

B)     manifest content

C)     sleep-onset

D)     early-awakening

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 180

Style: Conceptual

  The     sleep disorder of narcolepsy occurs when individuals

A)     falls unexpectedly into a deep sleep in the middle of daily activities.

B)     have difficulty falling asleep at the hour at which they would like.

C)     wake up earlier than desired, sometimes several times a night.

D)     stop breathing while they are sleeping.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 181

Style: Factual

  What     do drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation have in common?

A)     They produce the same brain wave activity.

B)     They produce extreme negative emotional states.

C)     They produce high levels of consciousness.

D)     They produce altered states of consciousness.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 182

Style: Conceptual

  Alan     took a drug and then described how he had gained a unique insight into a     social problem; however, he has no justification or proof to back up his     thoughts. Which characteristic of altered states of consciousness best     fits this example?

A)     sense of unity

B)     self-evident reality

C)     transcendent

D)     distortion of perception

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 182

Style: Applied

  When     Pilar reached the top of a Himalayan peak, she experienced an intense,     indescribable positive sensation. Her experience may best be described as

A)     depersonalization.

B)     stimulus incorporation.

C) an     altered state.

D)     astral projection.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Conceptual

  Kathy     says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the     universe. Kathy has experienced

A) an     altered state of consciousness.

B)     latent mesmerism.

C)     the hypnagogic state.

D) a     period of divided consciousness.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is a characteristic of an altered state of consciousness?

A)     sense of division

B)     illogical

C)     clear perception

D)     describable

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

  Distortions     of perception, intense positive emotions, and a self-evident reality are     all characteristics that describe

A)     circadian arrhythmia.

B)     myoclonic narcolepsy.

C)     altered states of consciousness.

D)     night terrors.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

  An     altered state of consciousness that is sometimes achieved during     meditation and that transcends normal human experience is called

A) a     transcendental mantra.

B) a     transcendental state.

C)     supreme meditation.

D)     astral meditation.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  Those     who wish to reach a more perfect state of consciousness often engage in

A)     hypnotic control.

B)     divided consciousness.

C)     depersonalization.

D)     meditation.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  A     method of relaxation that involves focusing one’s concentration on     rhythmic breathing and not on thoughts or feelings is called

A)     astral projection.

B)     depersonalization.

C)     meditation.

D)     hypnosis.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  While     most people who master the practice of meditation report feeling relaxed,     some report feeling a state that goes beyond normal experience. This     altered state of consciousness is called

A)     the transcendental state.

B)     astral projection.

C)     the universal state.

D)     self-evident reality.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 183

Style: Conceptual

  Charles     has been told he must reduce his sympathetic autonomic arousal. What     consciousness-altering technique may help Charles?

A) depersonalization

B)     stimulus incorporation

C)     meditation

D)     astral projection

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  In     considering the world around you, the opposite of meditation is

A)     mindfulness.

B)     sleepwalking.

C)     mesmerism.

D)     hypnosis.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  Mindfulness     involves a state of being where a person

A)     concentrates on how past events will predict future events.

B) is     completely aware of what is going on at the present moment.

C)     watches the behavior of others while ignoring their own behavior.

D)     relaxes to the point of sleepiness by the repeated use of a mantra.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  In     terms of states of consciousness, hypnosis involves a

A)     high degree of controlled processing.

B)     strong defense against suggestibility.

C)     sense of deep relaxation and altered body awareness.

D)     dependence on a belief in supernatural powers.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  If Juan     is hypnotized and he loses the sense of touch or pain in his right hand,     what is occurring?

A) a     hypnagogic state

B)     hypnotic relaxation

C)     hypnotic analgesia

D)     hypnotic conversion

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  What     do most experts believe about hypnotic age regression?

A) It     is very useful in child abuse cases.

B) It     can help people clearly recall painful experiences from the past.

C) It     does not improve the recall of childhood events.

D) It     is only useful for recalling the details of non-traumatic experiences.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  What     did Mesmer believe was the cause of his patients’ medical and     psychological problems?

A)     Their autonomic nervous systems were overly aroused.

B)     They were unable to relax completely.

C)     They had an excess of body fluids.

D)     Their bodies’ magnetic forces were out of balance.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  The     term “hypnotic analgesia” refers to the situation that occurs when a     person is hypnotized, they

A)     see flowers that do not exist.

B)     sense deep relaxation and peacefulness.

C)     lose the sense of touch or pain.

D)     pass back in time to an earlier life stage.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  The     perceptual experience of one’s body becoming distorted or unreal coupled     with a sense of strange distortions in one’s surroundings, is called

A)     mesmerism.

B)     self-evident reality.

C)     transcendental projection.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  The     perception that your mind has left your body is known as

A)     mesmerism.

B)     astral meditation.

C)     transcendental state.

D)     astral projection.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  A     spontaneous state of consciousness that occurs when one experiences their     own body becoming distorted or unreal in some way is referred to as

A)     mantrafication.

B)     mindfulness.

C)     mesmerism.

D)     depersonalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  An     astral projection can be thought of in common terms as a/n

A)     out-of-body experience.

B)     mindful state of tranquility.

C)     manifest content dream.

D)     stimulus incorporation event.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  Drugs     that alter conscious experience are known as ______ drugs.

A)     psychotropic

B)     illicit

C)     pharmaceutical

D)     over-the-counter (OTC)

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  Gillian     bought some cocaine that she felt gave her a great experience. When she     bought more cocaine from the same dealer, it did not give her the same     experience. Given this information, what best explains why her experiences     differed?

A)     expectation

B)     drug purity

C)     personal characteristics

D)     social situation

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 187

Style: Conceptual

  Personal     expectations, social situations, and moods are factors that may

A)     explain why we sleep and dream.

B)     affect the onset of a narcoleptic attack.

C)     influence an individual’s response to drugs.

D)     increase the likelihood of astral projection.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  When     taking a drug for the first time, people should be aware that _______ can     make the drug’s effects unpredictable.

A)     withdrawal

B)     psychological dependence

C)     tolerance

D)     personal characteristics

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  When     Bob drinks a few scotch and sodas in public he is viewed by others as very     witty and fun to be with. However, when Bob drinks a few scotch and sodas     at home, his family reports that he becomes sad and regretful. What is     most likely affecting Bob’s differing responses to alcohol?

A)     the purity of the alcohol

B)     the social situation

C)     Bob’s expectations

D)     the stimulant effect of alcohol

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 187

Style: Applied

  The     broad name for the class of drugs that alter conscious experience in any     way is

A) stimulants.

B)     psychotropic drugs.

C)     narcotics.

D)     antagonists.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  In     trying to gauge a person’s reaction to psychotropic drug use, you might     consider if they are consuming the drug alone or with others. This drug     use factor is know as

A)     mood and expectation.

B)     personal characteristics.

C)     the social situation.

D)     dosage and purity.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  Psychotropic     drugs that increase the activity of the central nervous system, providing     a sense of energy and well-being, are called

A)     depressants.

B)     tranquilizers.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     stimulants.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 188

Style: Factual

  If     you took a drug that lessened your feelings of fatigue, created an     elevated mood, and decreased your appetite, which of the following did you     probably take?

A)     amphetamine

B)     alcohol

C)     heroin

D)     Valium

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 188

Style: Factual

  Coca-Cola’s     original ingredient, used to market it as a “nerve tonic,” was _______,     and was replaced by _______ in 1906.

A)     cocaine; caffeine

B)     cocaine; cola extract

C)     nicotinic extract; caffeine

D)     pure caffeine; cola extract

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 189

Style: Factual

  The     reaction to the excessive use of stimulants that results in distorted     thinking, confused emotions, and intense suspiciousness is known as

A)     amphetamine psychosis.

B)     astral projection.

C)     hypnotic mesmerism.

D)     runner’s high.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 188

Style: Factual

  Stimulant     is to depressant as

A)     alcohol is to cocaine.

B)     codeine is to alcohol.

C)     Dexedrine is to alcohol.

D)     cocaine is to Dexedrine.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 188–189

Style: Conceptual

  Tranquilizers     and alcohol belong to a drug category called

A)     stimulants.

B)     narcotics.

C)     depressants.

D)     sedatives.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Drugs     that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the     activity of the central nervous system are called

A)     inhalants.

B)     stimulants.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     depressants.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Tranquilizers,     sedatives, and narcotics all belong to the category of ______ drugs.

A)     stimulant

B)     depressant

C)     hallucinogenic

D)     inhalant

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Also     known as ma huang, ______ is an herbal     stimulant sold as a dietary supplement.

A)     epinephrine

B)     ephedra

C)     ecstasy

D)     endorphin

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 189

Style: Factual

  In     general, sedatives are prescribed to treat ______ and tranquilizers are     prescribed to treat ______.

A)     anxiety; sleep problems

B)     drug overdoses; sleep problems

C)     sleep problems; anxiety

D)     anxiety; drug overdoses

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Your     neighbor has just confided in you that he is an addict. You have never     seen him drink alcohol, smoke, or pop pills, but you have seen many small     paper bags lying around his garage. Given this evidence, to which category     of drug might your neighbor be addicted?

A)     hallucinogens

B)     depressants

C)     inhalants

D)     stimulants

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 190

Style: Applied

  Which     drug is not physically addictive and, after repeated use, less of the drug     may be needed to produce the desired effect?

A)     opium

B)     marijuana

C)     LSD

D)     caffeine

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 191

Style: Factual

  Despite     being nonphysically addictive, marijuana, used on a prolonged basis,

A)     is considered highly addictive psychologically.

B)     has never been proven to be harmful.

C)     reduces cognitive efficiency.

D)     produces only short-term health risks.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 191

Style: Factual

  A     substance is considered an inhalant if when inhaled it produces

A)     substantial drowsiness.

B) a     sense of intoxication.

C)     extreme depression.

D)     myoclonic events.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  PCP     or angel dust falls into to psychotropic drug category of

A)     opiates.

B)     depressants.

C)     hallucinogens.

D)     stimulants.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 191

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following outcomes does marijuana smoking share with cigarette     smoking?

A)     increases in the action of male sex hormones

B)     strengthening of the body’s immune system

C)     increases in the efficiency of cognitive processing

D)     increases to the risk of lung cancer

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty:  Low

Page: 191

Style: Factual

  Recent     evidence suggests that the use of the designer drug ecstasy causes damage     to neurons that use the neurotransmitter

A)     serotonin.

B)     norepinephrine.

C)     dopamine.

D)     acetylcholine.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  Nicotine     works by increasing the firing of ______ neurons.

A)     GABA

B)     acetylecholine

C)     serotonin

D)     melatonin

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  The     drug ecstasy operates by reducing the transmission of neurons that use     ______ as a neurotransmitter.

A)     acetylcholine

B)     epinephrine

C)     serotonin

D)     norepinephrine

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is one of the reasons that people become addicted to     psychoactive drugs?

A)     blockage of pleasure receptors

B)     operant conditioning

C)     disconnection of reward systems

D)     reduction of negative feelings

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  In     the United States, about 1 in ______ adolescents and adults have a     substance abuse problem during some point in their lives.

A) 4

B) 10

C) 50

D)     100

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  People     with less education and lower incomes are ______ likely to abuse drugs     compared to persons with more money.

A)     less

B)     more

C)     just as

D)     not very

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 193

Style: Factual

  Based     on research, American Indians living on reservations have a ______ rate of     alcohol abuse.

A) non-existent

B)     low

C)     very high

D)     moderate

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 193

Style: Factual

 True/False Questions

  Consciousness     is simply defined as a state of awareness.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 168

Style: Factual

  In     general, cell phones do not distract drivers and do not cause accidents.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  Divided     consciousness was a mythical form of awareness debunked by Ernest Hilgard.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 169

Style: Factual

  When     listening to two voices and told to pay attention to one, nothing from the     other voice (not paid attention to) is processed by the brain.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 170

Style: Factual

  We     always go directly from wakefulness to sleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  Sleep     is not a single state; instead, it’s a complex combination of states, some     involving conscious awareness.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  The     hypnagogic state is the second level of sleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 171

Style: Factual

  Non-REM     dreams contain much more emotional and realistic content compared to REM     dreams.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 174–175

Style: Factual

  REM     sleep stands for rapid eye movement sleep.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 173–174

Style: Factual

  The     circadian rhythm for humans is about 12 hours.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  Body     temperature follows a circadian rhythm.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 175

Style: Factual

  If an     individual misses some sleep, a sleep debt is created.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 176

Style: Factual

  About     10% of all dreams involve sexual body sensations.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 178

Style: Factual

  Incorporating     a ringing telephone into your current dream is called day residue.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 179

Style: Factual

  The     visual images in dreams are usually as bright and clear as waking images,     but they are not as colorful.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 178

Style: Factual

  Night     terrors are vividly remembered upon wakening.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Sleeptalking     can occur during any phase of the sleep cycle.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Fortunately,     sleep disorders are highly treatable disorders.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Sleepwalking     occurs during the deepest parts of non-REM sleep.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 180

Style: Factual

  Sleep     apnea is the sleep disorder where individuals have a hard time falling     asleep.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 181

Style: Factual

  An     altered state of consciousness often results in a sense of unity.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 182

Style: Factual

  A     word that may be repeated over and over during meditation is called a     mantra.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  Meditation     involves a free association of thoughts to solve difficult life problems.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 183

Style: Factual

  During     hypnotic age regression, a sense of deep relaxation and peacefulness     exists.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 184

Style: Factual

  Another     name for an out-of-body experience is astral projection.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  Depersonalization     usually occurs during hypnotic trances.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 186

Style: Factual

  A     person’s personality can influence a drug’s effect.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 187

Style: Factual

  Stimulants     product a dreamlike alteration to perceptual experiences.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 188

Style: Factual

  Cocaine     is a stimulant.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 189

Style: Factual

  A     feature of all psychotropic drugs is the production of hallucinations.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Cocaine     exerts its effect by blocking the re-uptake of neurotransmitter by the     neuron so that stimulation is prolonged.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 189

Style: Factual

  Depressants     operate by depressing the actions of the peripheral nervous system.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  The     derivates of opium are known as opiates.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  LSD     and mescaline belong to the psychotropic drug category opiates.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Inhalants     are most often abused by children.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 190

Style: Factual

  Ecstasy     is an example of a designer drug.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 191

Style: Factual

  The     reduction of negative feelings is one reason that individuals become     dependent on drugs.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

  Three     out of every four individuals in the United States have a substance abuse problem     some time in their life.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 192

Style: Factual

7 BASIC PRINCIPLES OF LEARNING

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  An     essential factor in the definition of learning is that the learned     behavior

A)     must result from maturation.

B)     must be unmotivated.

C)     has a biological cause.

D)     is relatively permanent.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 200

Style: Factual

  Learning     is defined as a _______ change in behavior due to _______.

A)     temporary; experience

B) biological;     reinforcement

C)     relatively permanent; experience

D)     biological; maturation

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 200

Style: Factual

  Some     kindergarten children were shown a film on how to brush their teeth. If a     change in behavior is not immediately obvious after viewing the     instructional film, you may conclude that

A)     learning has not occurred.

B)     there is a potential for a behavioral change.

C)     maturation has interfered with learning.

D)     the children were obviously not paying attention.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 201

Style: Applied

  When     a baby is born, it shows no preference for its father’s voice, but after a     month of living with Dad, a baby will show a clear preference for Dad’s     voice over other men’s voices. This new preference is an example of

A)     maturation.

B)     genetics.

C)     insight.

D)     learning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 201

Style: Conceptual

  A     major league baseball pitcher changes his arm strength by taking steroids,     which in turn changes his pitching. Is this change in pitching due to     learning?

A)     No, because the change was not due to experience.

B)     No, because arm strength has nothing to do with pitching.

C)     Yes, because the pitcher learned to take steroids.

D)     Yes, because changes from steroids are permanent.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 200

Style: Conceptual

  Using     Pavlov’s idea of learning through association, a/n ______ stimulus comes     to elicit a response over time.

A)     learned

B)     original

C)     neutral

D)     inborn

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

  In     Pavlov’s classic studies with dogs and digestion, what was the response     that Pavlov measured?

A)     amount of food presented

B)     footsteps in the laboratory

C)     sound of a metrodome

D)     amount of salivation

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

  Pavlov     found that a neutral stimulus was more likely to produce dogs to salivate     if the stimulus

A)     was delivered on a variable interval schedule.

B)     positively reinforced salivation.

C)     and food were frequently associated.

D)     followed the salivation by 1 second.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

  In     Pavlov’s experiments, which condition of association produced the best     results?

A)     when the metronome preceded the food powder by 10 seconds

B)     when the food powder and metronome were presented simultaneously

C)     when the food powder preceded the metronome by 10 seconds

D)     when the metronome preceded the food powder by 1/2 second

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 203

Style: Factual

  Frequency     and timing of the association of two neutral stimuli are important to the     formation of what?

A)     classical conditioning

B)     unconditioned stimulus

C)     shaped behavior

D)     Thorndikian learning

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204–205

Style: Conceptual

  A     fleck of dust or dirt in your eye automatically causes the eye to produce     tears to wash out the dirt. If this were part of a classical conditioning     experiment, the fleck of dust or dirt would be labeled as the

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     conditioned stimulus.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  In     classical conditioning, an unlearned, inborn reaction to an unconditioned     stimulus is a(n)

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  In     order to cry during a particular scene, an actor held a handkerchief     soaked in onion juice close to her nose. The onion juice served as a(n)

A)     conditioned response.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     conditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned stimulus.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  In     classical conditioning, which of the following is true of the     unconditioned stimulus?

A)     It becomes associated with the response after learning.

B)     It causes the response only in the presence of the conditioned stimulus.

C)     It elicits the response without any learning.

D)     It is emitted by the unconditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  A     parent brings his 15-month-old to the pediatrician’s office for her first     shot. The child is happy and playful right up until the time the shot is     injected. Now, every time the child sees someone in a white lab coat, she     cries in terror. The injection in this scenario served as the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  Women     who breastfeed their babies often notice that the crying of any infant may     result in milk ejection. In this case, the crying of any infant is a(n)

A)     unconditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     unconditioned response.

D)     conditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Conceptual

  In     an experiment, participants are to learn a classically conditioned     response. Which of the following will occur on the first learning trial?

A)     The participant cannot make a UCR.

B)     The UCR will elicit a CS.

C)     The CS will not elicit a CR.

D)     The CS will elicit a UCR.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before.  The hungry cat comes running     toward the kitchen at the sound of the can opener, not at the sight of the     food.  In this example, the sound of the can opener is the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before.  The hungry cat comes running     toward the kitchen at the sound of the can opener, not at the sight of the     food.  In this example, the running into the kitchen at the sound of     the can opener is the

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before.  The hungry cat runs toward the     plate of food when it sees it being set on the floor.  In this     example, the placement of the food on the floor is a/n

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  Let’s     say you have a hungry cat in your kitchen. You use your electric can     opener, which makes a rather loud sound, to open a can of cat food. You     have done this many times before.  The hungry cat runs toward the     plate of food when it sees it being set on the floor.  In this     example, running toward a plate of food when set in front of the cat is     a/n

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     conditioned response.

C)     unconditioned stimulus.

D)     unconditioned response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 204

Style: Applied

  If     classical conditioning has been successfully accomplished, what type of     response follows the presentation of a conditioned stimulus?

A)     conditioned response

B)     neutral response

C)     conditioned stimulus

D)     neutral stimulus

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  Joe     has been afraid of cats since childhood when he was attacked and scratched     by a neighborhood stray. A fear such as Joe’s may best be explained by

A)     classical conditioning.

B)     observational learning.

C)     operant conditioning.

D)     insight learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

  When     counterconditioning is used, a conditioned stimulus is paired with an     unconditioned stimulus that is _______ the conditioned response.

A)     reinforced by

B)     extinguished by

C)     associated with

D)     incompatible with

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

  When     a sexual fetish develops, the conditioned stimulus is

A)     sexual behavior.

B) a     nonsexual object.

C) an     erotic picture.

D) a     primary reinforcer.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

  The     origins of unusual sexual fetishes may best be explained by

A)     learned helplessness.

B)     the partial reinforcement effect.

C)     superstitious behavior.

D)     classical conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 208

Style: Factual

  The     study of “Little Albert” is a famous example of the study of learned that     was conducted by

A)     Pavlov.

B)     Watson.

C)     Thorndike.

D)     Bandura.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 207

Style: Factual

  In     classical conditioning, one has the ability to “un-do” the association of     neutral stimuli with fearful responses by using the process of

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C) counterconditioning.

D)     spontaneous recovery.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 208

Style: Factual

  Learning     from the consequences of our behavior, which in turn leads to the     strengthening, or weakening of behaviors is called

A)     observational learning.

B)     latent learning.

C)     classical conditioning.

D)     operant conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Thorndike’s     “law of effect” suggests that

A)     the consequences of a behavior influence the probability of that behavior     being repeated.

B)     the more we observe positive models in our environment, the more we     emulate those models.

C)     when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly followed by an unconditioned     stimulus, learning occurs.

D)     the more we know, the more we comprehend that we don’t know.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is a key element in operant conditioning?

A)     the type of stimulus used

B)     the nature of the learning task

C)     the consequences of a behavior

D)     whether a response is elicited or not

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Learning     that occurs as a result of the consequences of our behavior is called     _______ conditioning.

A)     classical

B)     Pavlovian

C)     operant

D) observational

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  When     voluntary behaviors are either strengthened or weakened by their outcomes,     the behavioral changes result from

A)     insight learning.

B)     classical conditioning.

C)     observational learning.

D)     operant conditioning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following best describes the law of effect?

A) A     conditioned stimulus will produce a conditioned response.

B)     The consequence of a response determines whether the response will be     repeated.

C)     Reinforcers should be given immediately after a response.

D)     Behaviors will be elicited if the conditioned response is strong.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Conceptual

  Fred     asks his mom for a cookie, but the answer is no. He whines and cries, so     his mom gives him a cookie and he calms down. According to the principles     of operant conditioning, what can be expected?

A)     Mom will be less likely to give cookies in the future.

B)     Fred will whine and cry more often in the future.

C)     Fred will cry whenever he is hungry.

D)     Fred will enjoy his cookie less than if he had received it after the first     request.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 210

Style: Applied

  The     Smith’s new puppy cries in the middle of the night. Various family members     periodically check the dog, who responds by happily wagging his     tail.  Lately, his crying has actually increased. This increase is     likely due to

A)     positive punishment.

B)     positive reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     classical conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 210

Style: Applied

  A     child cries until his mother gives him a piece of candy. The candy is a(n)

A)     conditioned stimulus.

B)     unconditioned response.

C)     positive reinforcer.

D)     secondary reinforcer.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

  38.     Research on operant conditioning suggests that the longer a reward for a     good deed is delayed, the

A)     less of an impact the reward has.

B)     more tantalizing the reward becomes.

C)     more strength gained by the conditioned stimulus.

D)     less necessary is the unconditioned response

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  What     is the overall effect of delay of reinforcement?

A) It     slows learning.

B) It     speeds learning.

C) It     has no effect on learning.

D) It     accelerates learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  At     the beginning of a learning process using positive reinforcement, it is important     to

A)     only use secondary reinforcement.

B)     progress very slowly.

C)     avoid using extrinsic rewards.

D)     use consistent reinforcement.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Jill     was trying to operantly condition her dog to roll over. Each time her dog     rolled over she immediately said “good dog.” However, the dog did not     learn to roll over on command. Which of the following may best explain     why?

A)     Jill used inconsistent reinforcement.

B)     The CS did not match the CR.

C)     Jill should have delayed the reinforcement.

D)     Saying “good dog” was not reinforcing to her dog.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Applied

  When     using positive reinforcement, the _______ should immediately follow the     _______.

A)     CS; UCS

B)     UCR; CS

C)     reinforcer; response

D)     response; reinforcer

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

  Regarding     learning, ______ has occurred when the consequence of a behavior leads to     an increased probability of that behavior being repeated in the future.

A)     observational learning

B)     positive reinforcement

C)     punishment

D)     latent learning

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 210

Style: Conceptual

  In     positive reinforcement, the consequences of a behavior are ______ and the     behavior is likely to occur ______.

A)     positive; less

B)     negative; less

C)     positive; more

D)     negative; more

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 210

Style: Conceptual

  In     positive reinforcement, the behavior that becomes more frequent is called     the

A)     latent reaction.

B)     punisher.

C)     effected law.

D)     operant response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  The     idea of delay of reinforcement suggests that the ______ delay of     reinforcement, the ______ the learning.

A)     greater; slower

B)     less; slower

C)     greater; more accurate

D)     less; less accurate

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following is an example of a primary reinforcer?

A)     grades

B)     food

C)     applause

D)     money

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?

A)     physical activity

B)     food

C)     money

D)     water

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Food,     water, warmth, novel stimulation, physical activity, and sexual     gratification are all examples of

A)     primary reinforcers.

B)     secondary reinforcers.

C)     tertiary reinforcers.

D)     latent learning.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Primary     reinforcer is to secondary reinforcer as

A)     classical conditioning is to operant conditioning.

B)     operant conditioning is to classical conditioning.

C)     unlearned is to learned.

D)     learned is to unlearned.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

  Reinforcers     that are acquired through learning are called _______ reinforcers.

A)     primary

B)     secondary

C)     classical

D)     conditioned

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Many     psychiatric hospitals offer patients the chance to perform chores in     exchange for tokens. The patients can use these tokens to purchase items     at the hospital store. This system is an example of

A)     secondary reinforcement.

B)     primary reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     cognitive restructuring.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 211

Style: Conceptual

  A     slot machine is programmed to pay the grand prize jackpot only once during     every 100,000 plays. This is an example of a

A)     fixed-ratio schedule.

B)     variable ratio schedule.

C)     fixed interval schedule.

D)     variable ratio schedule.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

  When     every response is followed by a reinforcer, this is known as

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     continuous reinforcement.

C)     intermittent reinforcement.

D)     extinction.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

  If a     student in a classroom was given a piece of candy for every five words     spelled correctly, the student’s behavior is being reinforced on a ______     schedule.

A)     fixed interval

B)     variable ratio

C)     fixed ratio

D)     continuous

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

  If a     student in a classroom was given a piece of candy for, on average, every     three words correctly spelled, this would be an example of being     reinforced on a ______ schedule.

A)     continuous

B)     variable interval

C)     fixed ratio

D)     variable ratio

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212

Style: Factual

  An     interval schedule in operant conditioning, whether fixed or variable, is     based on

A)     the passage of time.

B)     the number of responses.

C)     the intensity of the response.

D)     continuous reinforcement.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  Assume     that your class is going to have an oral quiz on the material in this     chapter. For every two questions in a row that a student gets correct, the     professor will add one point to the classroom participation grade. This is     an example of a ________ schedule of reinforcement.

A)     variable ratio

B)     fixed ratio

C)     fixed interval

D)     variable interval

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212

Style: Applied

  An     example of a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement is the case of the

A)     student who is greeted every fifth time she arrives in class.

B)     instructor who is paid every two weeks during the year.

C)     dean who visits the instructor’s class when the mood strikes.

D)     dog who retrieves the paper every day but gets rewarded infrequently.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following is an example of a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement?

A)     Reinforcement occurs every three minutes.

B)     Reinforcement occurs after two rewards.

C)     Two reinforcers are given every four minutes.

D)     Reinforcement occurs after every 15th correct response.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Factual

  Slot     machines are set to pay off on the average of once in every 1,000,000     plays. This is an example of a ______ schedule of reinforcement.

A)     variable ratio

B)     fixed ratio

C)     variable interval

D)     fixed interval

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212

Style: Conceptual

  At     the beginning of the semester your history instructor announced that you     will have a test every three weeks until the end of the semester. What     schedule of reinforcement was being used?

A)     fixed ratio

B)     fixed interval

C)     variable ratio

D)     variable interval

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  John’s     toaster is malfunctioning. Sometimes his toast is ready in ten seconds.     Sometimes he must wait thirty seconds. At times, it can even take several     minutes before the toast is done. The toaster has John on a ________     schedule of reinforcement.

A)     fixed ratio

B)     fixed interval

C)     variable ratio

D)     variable interval

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 213

Style: Applied

  If     students in your class wait to read and prepare for an exam until the day     before each regularly scheduled exam, how can you increase their studying     time on a day-to-day basis?

A) Punish     the lack of studying done by students.

B)     Implement penalties for wrong answers from one to two points per question.

C)     Start to praise more in class.

D)     Start giving unannounced pop quizzes.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 212–213

Style: Conceptual

  Sometimes     your old car’s starter will start the car on the first turn of the key,     while other times the starter won’t work until you turn the key numerous     times. Your car starter has created a _______ schedule of reinforcement     for your behavior.

A)     variable ratio

B)     fixed ratio

C)     variable internal

D)     fixed interval

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 213

Style: Applied

  A     strategy of reinforcing successive approximations to a complex behavior is     known as

A)     modeling.

B) shaping.

C)     interval training.

D)     aversive conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  When     an instructor commends students for asking tentative questions in order to     encourage the asking of more detailed and technical questions, the     instructor is using

A)     classical conditioning.

B) a     conditioned response.

C)     shaping.

D)     primary reinforcement.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  Maria’s     boss was unhappy with the way her grooming and dress had deteriorated over     the last few years. Rather than reprimand her, the boss decided to     lavishly praise Maria on days when she was neater and gradually raise his     requirements for praise as Maria became neater and neater. The technique     being planned was

A)     extinction.

B)     shaping.

C)     fixed interval reinforcement.

D)     variable interval reinforcement.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 213

Style: Applied

  The     method of successive approximations is used to achieve the learning goal     of

A)     extinction.

B) shaping.

C)     generalization.

D)     discrimination.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Applied

  With     shaping, the desired outcome or behavior that is the ultimate goal is     called

A)     continuous behavior.

B)     the secondary reinforcer.

C)     the target response.

D)     intermittent succession.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  A     teenager has been grounded by her parents for not doing the dishes. Mom     tells the teenager that if you do the dishes, then you will not be grounded     anymore. This attempt at behavior change is best described as

A)     habituation.

B)     extinction.

C)     positive reinforcement.

D)     negative reinforcement.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Applied

  Escape     conditioning causes a behavior to ______, while avoidance conditioning     causes a behavior to ______.

A)     stop; not happen

B)     not happen; stop

C)     start; accelerate

D)     accelerate; start

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

  The     termination of a behavior is known as ______ conditioning, while     preventing the behavior from occurring all along is known as ______     conditioning.

A)     avoidance; escape

B)     generalized; specified

C)     escape; avoidance

D)     specified; generalized

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

  A     student comes to college and is extremely anxious about doing poorly and     flunking out. To calm her fears, the student studies hard and receives all     ‘A’s the first semester. This student has been

A)     positively reinforced.

B) negatively     reinforced.

C)     classically conditioned.

D)     vicariously punished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

  After     John was ridiculed by the teacher in his high school English class, he     began cutting class. This can be seen as an example of

A)     avoidance conditioning.

B)     discriminative conditioning.

C)     positive reinforcement.

D)     punishment.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

  You     fear that your date may not be receptive to your idea of seeing a new     play, so you do not even mention it. This is an example of

A)     escape behavior.

B)     extinction.

C)     primary reinforcement.

D)     avoidance behavior.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is an example of avoidance conditioning?

A)     missing a curfew and getting grounded for two weeks

B)     getting an A on this psychology examination

C)     taking an aspirin to get rid of a headache

D)     taking the garbage out before your parents yell at you

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

A)     learning to avoid your boss by hiding when he comes by your office

B)     doing your work fast to avoid your boss’s constant nagging about deadlines

C)     doing your work to gain a bonus

D)     complimenting your boss every time you see him

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

  Increase     behavior is to decrease behavior as

A)     positive reinforcement is to negative reinforcement.

B)     punishment is to positive reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement is to punishment.

D)     punishment is to primary reinforcement.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Conceptual

  An     animal in a Skinner box received a brief electric shock each time a bar     was pressed. Subsequently, the animal stopped pressing the bar due to

A)     escape conditioning.

B)     disinhibition.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     punishment.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 214–215

Style: Factual

  Mr.     Harper used to yell at Mrs. Harper for trumping cards unnecessarily when     they played bridge. Instead of improving her play, Mrs. Harper gave up     bridge altogether. This is an example of

A)     the punished individual turning the punishment into reinforcement.

B)     the punished individual learning to dislike the punisher.

C)     punishment’s generalized inhibiting effect.

D)     the punisher feeling reinforced for giving out punishment.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Applied

  A     parent’s spanking behavior increased dramatically after she initially used     it to stop her children from whining. Which danger of punishment has been     demonstrated here?

A)     the criticism trap

B)     learned helplessness

C)     Punishment is reinforcing to the punisher.

D)     There is no danger demonstrated in the example.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

  If a     parent threatens a punishment and then backs down when the child begs for     mercy, what will the parent accomplish?

A)     The threatening behavior will be extinguished.

B)     The begging behavior will be negatively reinforced.

C)     The parent will adhere to the guidelines for punishment.

D)     The child’s inappropriate behavior will be extinguished.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 216

Style: Factual

  Punishment     involves a ______ consequence that leads to a/n ______ in the frequency of     a behavior.

A)     negative; increase

B)     negative; decrease

C)     positive; increase

D)     positive; decrease

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

  When     researchers conclude that punishment has “generalized inhibiting effect,”     what does that mean?

A)     The person delivering the punishment actually experiences negative     reinforcement.

B)     Punishing for one negative behavior generalizes to other negative     behaviors.

C)     Most behaviors tend to stop after punishment, including the positive     behaviors.

D)     We begin to dislike those individuals who deliver the punishment.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

  When     trying to reduce the frequency of behavior using punishment, criticism is     often used by parents and teachers. However, researchers have argued that     this leads to the criticism trap. What is the criticism trap?

A)     The criticism of our children, for any type of misbehavior, can lead to     the decline or inhibition of all behaviors, including positive ones.

B)     Researchers have criticized the use of punishment because of its cruel     nature, especially with the risks of child abuse.

C)     One of the criticisms of punishment is that although it might reduce the     frequency of an undesirable behavior, it does not strengthen an     alternative desirable behavior.

D)     Criticism intending to be a negative consequence is perceived as attention     by the child and therefore is a positive reinforcer.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 216

Style: Conceptual

  If     you are going to use punishment, which of the following would be     recommendations based on psychological research?

A) Do     not use physical punishment.

B)     Punish behavior after a time delay.

C)     Only deliver half the punishment necessary.

D)     Punish the person, not the behavior.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  Classically     conditioned behaviors are associated with the ______ nervous system, and operantly     conditioned behaviors are associated with the ______ nervous system.

A)     somatic; autonomic

B)     autonomic; somatic

C)     sympathetic; parasympathetic

D)     parasympathetic; sympathetic

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 218

Style: Conceptual

  It     is ______ conditioning that studies the relationship between a response     and the resulting consequence.

A)     counter

B)     classical

C)     operant

D)     Pavlovian

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  Which     type of conditioning typically involves involuntary, reflexive behaviors?

A)     observational

B)     vicarious

C)     operant

D)     classical

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  In     classical conditioning, what does the person (or animal) have to do in     order for learning to occur? The organism (human or animal)

A)     does not have to do anything.

B)     needs to be ready to receive positive reinforcement.

C)     must be resistant to multiple forms of punishment.

D)     has to have reached the age of maturity.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  Classical     conditioning and operant conditioning differ from each other in that     operant conditioning

A)     involves reflexive or involuntary behavior.

B)     occurs independently of behavior.

C)     occurs only if the response being conditioned has been emitted.

D) is     not contingent on the occurrence of a response.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  How     does classical conditioning differ from operant conditioning? Classical     conditioning involves an association between

A)     two stimuli.

B)     two reinforcers.

C) a     response and a stimulus.

D) a     behavior and a CR.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  If     an association is made independent of behavior, what type of learning     occurs?

A)     classical conditioning

B)     insight learning

C)     operant conditioning

D)     observational learning

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  John     loves to receive mail. Over the years, he has learned to tell the     difference between the sound of the mail truck and the other cars and     trucks that pass his house. What process is at work here?

A)     stimulus discrimination

B)     stimulus generalization

C)     response generalization

D)     vicarious reinforcement

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  A     pigeon learned to peck a lighted disc for a few bits of grain. The bird     does not peck when the light is off because no grain will be forthcoming.     The light is called the

A)     generalized stimulus.

B)     conditioned stimulus.

C)     conditioned response.

D)     discriminative stimulus.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 219

Style: Conceptual

  There     are two vending machines in your dorm. The one on the left always works;     the one on the right is usually broken. You put your money only in the     machine on the left. This is

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     external disinhibition.

C)     stimulus discrimination.

D)     superstitious behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 219

Style: Conceptual

  If     the state troopers drive yellow Fords in your state, there may be an     immediate braking response when you see any yellow Ford. This reaction is     known as

A)     an escape response.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     superstitious behavior.

D)     stimulus generalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Conceptual

  The     tendency for similar stimuli to elicit the same response is called

A)     stimulus discrimination.

B)     stimulus disinhibition.

C)     response generalization.

D)     stimulus generalization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  If     your beagle lies down when you say “Dead!,” and you discover that he will     do the same trick when you say the words red, head, or bed, what has taken     place?

A)     stimulus discrimination

B)     response discrimination

C) stimulus     generalization

D)     vicarious generalization

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Conceptual

  An     animal emits a response in the presence of a certain tone. If a slightly     higher pitched tone elicits the same response, then stimulus _______ has     taken place.

A)     generalization

B)     chaining

C)     discrimination

D)     disinhibition

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Conceptual

  The     idea that we can tell the difference between the appropriate occasion for     a response and an inappropriate occasion for a response is known as

A)     the law of effect.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D)     vicarious learning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  The     opposite of stimulus discrimination is

A)     stimulus acceptance.

B)     delay of inhibition.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D)     spontaneous recovery.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  When     the original source of learning is removed and a particular response     diminishes, ______ has occurred.

A)     extinction

B)     habituation

C)     disinhibition

D)     excitation

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  According     to the ______, responses that have been continuously reinforced are     extinguished more quickly than responses that were reinforced on variable     interval or variable ratio schedules.

A)     stimulus generalization theory

B)     partial reinforcement effect

C)     spontaneous recovery phenomenon

D)     law of effect

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  Avoidance     responses can be extinguished rapidly by using

A)     secondary reinforcers.

B)     spontaneous recovery.

C)     response prevention.

D)     stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  The     notion of response prevention suggests that avoidance responses can be     extinguished by

A)     pairing two new incompatible responses.

B)     removing the primary reinforce.

C)     preventing the avoidance from occurring.

D)     pairing new responses with old responses.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  How     does extinction occur in classical conditioning?

A)     The CS is presented without the UCS.

B)     The CR is presented without the UCR

C)     The emitted response is negatively reinforced.

D)     The emitted response is punished.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  You     trained a rat to press a lever using positive reinforcement. When the     behavior was well-learned you stopped giving the reward for the     lever-pressing behavior.  Most likely, you next discovered that the

A)     lever-pressing behavior increased.

B)     rat developed an avoidance response.

C)     lever-pressing behavior was extinguished.

D)     rat learned stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Applied

  Maria,     who is fearful of mice, took a job as a lab assistant and found she was     required to handle mice. Gradually, Maria’s fear of mice diminished as she     continued to handle mice. Now Maria is interested in having mice as pets.     How was Maria’s fear removed?

A)     extinction

B)     discrimination

C)     generalization

D)     spontaneous recovery

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

  Suppose     that your cat has learned to jump up on your lap during dinner to get     food. In order to stop this, you do not give food to your cat when he     jumps onto your lap. This is an example of

A)     extinction in classical conditioning.

B)     extinction in operant conditioning.

C)     generalization in classical conditioning.

D)     generalization in operant conditioning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 222

Style: Conceptual

  Compared     to continuous schedules of reinforcement, partial schedules of     reinforcement

A)     produce the greatest stimulus generalization.

B)     produce lower rates of responding.

C)     are more resistant to extinction.

D)     are less resistant to extinction.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  When     a conditioned response that was extinguished suddenly returns after an     interval of rest, what has occurred?

A)     external disinhibition

B)     internal disinhibition

C)     negative reinforcement

D)     spontaneous recovery

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 223

Style: Factual

  Snickers,     your cocker spaniel, barked at squirrels. After successfully removing this     behavior, you find she has started barking again. This is an example of

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     response generalization.

C)     spontaneous recovery.

D)     superstitious behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 223

Style: Factual

  Spontaneous     recovery and external disinhibition can occur

A)     only during classical conditioning.

B)     only during operant conditioning.

C)     during both operant and classical extinction.

D)     during both stimulus generalization and discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 223

Style: Factual

  In a     classical conditioning situation, you present the CS but it is no longer     paired with the UCS. After a period of time has passed, you present the CS     and the CR returns. When the CR returns during the course of extinction, it     is called

A)     stimulus generalization.

B)     stimulus discrimination.

C)     response prevention.

D)     spontaneous recovery.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 223

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following statements would be a cognitive explanation for learning?

A) A     rat turns right in a maze because it knows where the food has been left.

B) A     rat presses a bar because a connection was made between brain regions.

C) A     person flinches because neural connections to the muscles cause it.

D) A     person stops at a red traffic light because of the connection made in the     brain.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 224–225

Style: Conceptual

  The     connectionist theory of learning suggests that

A)     learning takes place due to changes in thinking patterns in the brain.

B)     neural connections between stimuli and responses are established in the     brain.

C)     behavior improves due to thinking, expectations, beliefs, and perceptions.

D)     behavior improves when cognitive processes are linked to other cognitive     processes.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 224

Style: Factual

  Of     the following statements, which one would most likely be made by someone     who supports the cognitive view of learning?

A)     We must focus only on readily observable behaviors.

B)     The individual expected the stimulus to occur.

C)     Neural connections in the brain are responsible for behavioral change.

D) A     rat does not learn anything unless it is rewarded.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is best associated with place learning?

A)     acquiring fixed patterns of muscle movements

B)     acquiring knowledge of the location of the reinforcer

C)     learning based on some instinctive, unlearned capacity

D)     kinesthetic and proprioceptive feedback

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  Edward     Tolman developed some ingenious experiments that involved timing how fast     rats could run through mazes to reach a reward. The experiments tended to     support

A)     the cognitive view of learning.

B)     classical conditioning.

C)     the connectionist view of learning.

D)     vicarious reinforcement.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  An     experimental group of rats was not reinforced for solving a maze problem     for a few days. Several days later, they were reinforced and subsequently     showed similar scores in the maze as rats that had been reinforced from     the beginning of the experiment. Tolman referred to this phenomenon as     _______ learning.

A)     latent

B)     place

C)     insight

D)     modeled

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 226

Style: Conceptual

  What     explanation did Harlow use to explain why problem-solving ability improved     over trials in his study in which apes had to locate food under objects?

A)     The apes acquired a learning set.

B)     The apes developed a cognitive map.

C)     The apes emitted conditioned responses.

D)     The apes were vicariously reinforced.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 227

Style: Factual

  Wolfgang     Köhler, a Gestalt psychologist, described a type of learning that involved     a sudden cognitive change. The term used to describe this learning is

A)     reinforcement.

B)     trial and error.

C)     connectionism.

D)     insight.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 227

Style: Factual

  When     rats learn to navigate a maze based on the location of food rather than a     series of left-right turns, this study by Tolman lead to the concept of

A)     retroactive disinhibition.

B)     spontaneous recovery.

C) a     cognitive map.

D)     response blockage.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  Researchers     have demonstrated that learning can occur in the absence of a reinforcer.     This learning is demonstrated at a later time. The name for this type of     learning is

A)     spontaneous recovery.

B)     observational learning.

C)     classical conditioning.

D)     latent learning.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 226

Style: Factual

  A     sudden cognitive change that allows a problem to be solved is

A)     insight.

B)     disinhibition.

C)     recognition.

D)     superstition.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 227

Style: Factual

  Bandura’s     famous study with the children and the Bobo doll was a demonstration of

A)     operant conditioning.

B)     stimulus generalization.

C)     learning set.

D)     modeling.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  Reinforcing     the behavior of a model will increase the probability of the same behavior     in the observer. This is called

A)     external disinhibition.

B)     vicarious reinforcement.

C)     negative reinforcement.

D)     spontaneous learning.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  According     to research studies, what should happen if Scott observes Allison being     rewarded for picking up toys?

A)     Picking up toys will become a discriminate stimulus for Scott.

B)     Scott’s toy picking up behavior will increase.

C)     Scott’s toy picking up behavior will be extinguished.

D)     Scott will associate Allison with secondary reinforcers.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 229

Style: Conceptual

  Solid     experimental evidence suggests that children learn behaviors from     television through

A)     latent learning.

B)     modeling.

C)     stimulus generalization.

D)     shaping.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  When     we see someone else get rewarded for a particular behavior, what is likely     to occur?

A)     external disinhibition

B)     indirect reinforcement

C)     superstitious behavior

D)     vicarious reinforcement

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  Bandura’s     term for learning by watching others is

A)     dissociation.

B)     modeling.

C)     inhibition.

D)     disinhibition.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  When     learning by watching others, we tend to learn more from a model we see     being reinforced. Learning by watching someone else’s reinforcement is     called ______ reinforcement.

A)     continuous

B)     classical

C)     vicarious

D)     intermittent

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 229

Style: Conceptual

  When     observing others modeling behavior for us, which of the following     characteristics would lead to the highest likelihood of imitating the     model’s behavior?

A)     very unsuccessful

B)     not likable

C)     unattractive

D)     high status

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 229

Style: Conceptual

  It     is easier to classically condition a fear of ______ compared to a fear of     ______.

A)     snakes; lunch boxes

B)     electrical outlets; blood

C)     candy; heights

D)     skate keys; alligators

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 229

Style: Conceptual

  When     the pairing of a food and nausea occur once yet lead to the avoidance of     that food, this describes the classical conditioning process of

A)     fixed ratio reinforcement.

B)     the law of effect.

C)     learned taste aversion.

D)     superstitious food behavior.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 231

Style: Factual

  138.     The fact that it is easier to condition a fear of things that have some     intrinsic association with danger suggests that people are _______     prepared to learn certain kinds of fear.

A)     psychologically

B)     biologically

C)     intuitively

D)     latently

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 230

Style: Factual

  Helen     used to love bananas. Then one day she ate nine bananas and got sick. Over     the next 45 years, Helen never ate another banana. Helen’s behavioral     change concerning bananas is called a

A)     learning set.

B)     vicarious punishment.

C)     learned taste aversion.

D)     stimulus discrimination.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 231

Style: Conceptual

  J.     J. became extremely nauseous two hours after eating a fried corn dog at     the county fair. Through this experience she learned to dislike corn dogs.     What was the UCS in this example?

A)     the corn dog

B)     time

C)     the county fair

D) nausea

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 231

Style: Conceptual

  Some     guidelines for chemotherapy patients have been developed through our     understanding of how learned taste aversions are conditioned. Which of the     following would help a chemotherapy patient avoid a learned taste     aversion?

A)     eating ice cream after a treatment

B)     fasting before a treatment and playing video games

C)     waiting two hours after a treatment before eating

D)     eating novel foods with the meal preceding the treatment

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 231

Style: Conceptual

  Learned     taste aversions are an example of the role of _______ factors in learning.

A)     biological

B)     cognitive

C)     experiential

D)     maturational

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 231

Style: Factual

 True/False Questions

  All     changes in behavior are the result of learning.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 200

Style: Factual

  Learning     is any relatively permanent change in behavior due to the passage of time.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 200

Style: Factual

  Ivan     Pavlov is considered one of the first to study what is now called     classical conditioning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 201

Style: Factual

  The     key element in classical conditioning is association.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202

Style: Factual

  In     classical conditioning, learning will occur more quickly when the UCS     precedes the CS.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 203–204

Style: Factual

  In     Pavlov’s classic experiment, the unconditioned stimulus was the sound of a     metronome.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 202–204

Style: Factual

  The     abbreviation UCS stands for uncontrollable stimulus.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 204

Style: Factual

  For     an infant to unlearn a fear response that has been classically     conditioning, the process of counterconditioning can be used.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 207

Style: Factual

  Observational     learning is the form of learning in which the consequences of behavior     lead to changes in the likelihood of that behavior reoccurring.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Operant     conditioning was first described by John B. Watson based on the study of     Little Albert.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209

Style: Factual

  Positive     reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment are terms associated     with operant conditioning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 209–210

Style: Factual

  Positive     reinforcement is more effective when the delay of reinforcement is     minimized.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 210

Style: Factual

  Secondary     reinforcers are acquired through learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  Money     is a primary reinforcer.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 211

Style: Factual

  On a     variable interval schedule, the reinforcer is obtained only after a     varying number of responses have been made.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 213

Style: Factual

  In a     ratio schedule of reinforcement, the number of responses made determines     when the reinforcer will be given.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 212–213

Style: Factual

  The     method of successive approximations is also called shaping.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 214

Style: Factual

  The     ultimate goal of negative reinforcement is to strengthen behavior.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 215

Style: Factual

  Escape     conditioning is a type of positive reinforcement.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 215

Style: Factual

  When     the frequency of a behavior decreases following a negative consequence,     punishment has occurred.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 216

Style: Factual

  The     ultimate goal of punishment is to strengthen behavior.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 216

Style: Factual

  In     operant conditioning, the individual does not have to do anything for     learning to occur.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  In     classical conditioning behaviors are elicited, while in operant     conditioning behaviors are emitted.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 218

Style: Factual

  Stimulus     discrimination occurs in classical conditioning but not in operant     conditioning.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  The     opposite of stimulus discrimination is stimulus generalization.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  When     the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS, eventually the CR will no     longer appear because the original learning environment has changed. This     process is called extinction.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  Responses     that have been continuously reinforced are harder to extinguish than     responses that have been reinforced on a variable ratio schedule.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 219

Style: Factual

  Response     prevention is a technique used to extinguish avoidance responses.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  If     after some extinction has occurred, the CS is presented and an occasional     CR is observed, this is called response prevention.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 222

Style: Factual

  The     cognitive view of learning suggests that learning occurs due to neural     connections in the brain.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  Edward     Tolman’s work on place learning and latent learning supported the     cognitive interpretation of learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225–226

Style: Factual

  Harlow’s     work with monkeys showed that learning sets enhance insight learning.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 227

Style: Factual

  Rats     who know where something is in a maze relative to a starting place possess     a cognitive map.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  The     process of watching another person receiving reinforcement is called     vicarious reinforcement.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 229

Style: Factual

  Learning     by observing the behavior of others is called modeling.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 225

Style: Factual

  Learned     taste aversion is an example of operant conditioning at work.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 231

Style: Factual

9 COGNITION, LANGUAGE, AND INTELLIGENCE

 Multiple-Choice Questions

  Complete     the following statement with one of the primary facets of cognition.     Cognition

A)     is the basic unit of thinking.

B)     is a mental set.

C)     processes information.

D)     senses internal stimuli.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 271

Style: Factual

  What     are the three primary facets of cognition?

A)     is complex, uses expert systems, is generative

B)     processes information, is active, is useful

C)     subordinate, conjunctive, disjunctive

D)     basic, useful, natural

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 271–272

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is a facet of cognition?

A)     emotional

B)     active

C)     useless

D)     passive

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 272

Style: Factual

  The     intellectual processes by which information is obtained, transformed,     stored, retrieved, and used is called

A)     activation.

B)     motivation.

C)     cognition.

D)     emotion.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 271–272

Style: Factual

  The     basic units of thinking are called

A) engrams.

B)     behaviors.

C)     neurons.

D)     concepts.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 272

Style: Factual

  The     concept of “father” suggests that two concepts exist at the same time—male     and parent. This is an example of a ______ concept.

A) conjunctive

B)     disjunctive

C)     prototypical

D)     archetypal

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Conceptual

  When     is a concept considered a conjunctive concept?

A)     when it has one characteristic

B)     when it is simple

C)     when two or more features define it

D)     when it has an either-or aspect

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  The     term “adult” is sometimes used to defined as a person who is (1) 18 years     or older, and (2) has completed puberty, and (3) is financially     independent. If a person had to have all three characteristics to qualify     as an adult, the term “adult” could refer to a

A)     disjunctive concept.

B)     conjunctive concept.

C)     prototypical category.

D)     basic category.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Conceptual

  A     strike in baseball occurs if either (1) the batter swings at the ball and     misses or (2) the batter does not swing at the ball when it passes through     the strike zone.  The concept of a “strike” is an example of a _______     concept.

A)     prototypical

B)     natural

C)     conjunctive

D)     disjunctive

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 273

Style: Conceptual

  Concepts     that are learned more easily than others are called ________ concepts.

A)     simple

B)     subordinate

C) conjunctive

D)     natural

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  Rosch     believes basic concepts are easier to learn. Which of the following does     she use in support of this statement?

A)     Basic concepts are very exclusive.

B)     Basic concepts are very descriptive.

C)     Basic concepts are easily named.

D)     Basic concepts are disjunctive.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 274

Style: Factual

  In     Rosch’s study of the ability of the subjects from the Dani tribe to learn     names of colors, she found evidence that some color concepts

A)     are learned through heuristics.

B)     share common attributes.

C)     can be described by shapes.

D)     are better prototypes than others.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 275

Style: Factual

  Natural     concepts have two primary characteristics: they are ______ and ______.

A)     basic; archetypal

B)     basic; prototypical

C)     complex; prototypical

D)     complex; archetypal

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following levels expresses the greatest amount of conceptual     inclusiveness?

A)     hyperordinate

B)     basic

C)     superordinate

D)     subordinate

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Conceptual

  Which     is the correct order of categories, from most specific to most broad?

A)     basic, superordinate, subordinate

B)     basic, subordinate, superordinate

C)     subordinate, superordinate, basic

D)     subordinate, basic, superordinate

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following statements is correct regarding basic concepts? Basic     concepts

A)     share similar shapes.

B)     share few attributes.

C)     are not easily named.

D)     rarely share motor movements.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  When     it is stated that natural concepts are good prototypes, a good prototype     is actually a good

A)     example.

B)     indicator.

C)     object.

D)     concept.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 274

Style: Factual

  When     we use a certain cognitive process to reach a goal temporarily blocked by     an obstacle, we are using

A)     concept formation.

B)     problem solving.

C)     syntax.

D)     prototypical thinking.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 277

Style: Factual

  If a     cognitive psychologist were to tell you that you have a mental set, what     would she mean?

A)     You would have more success in problem solving if you were sitting.

B)     You only possess two of the three mental operations of the set.

C)     You are solving similar problems in the same, habitual way.

D)     You are incapable of using heuristic reasoning—your mental set is fixed.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 278

Style: Applied

  When     information is used to reach a goal that is blocked, what is the cognitive     process called?

A)     concept formation

B)     conjunctive thinking

C) problem     solving

D)     neural pruning

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 277

Style: Factual

  We     tend to use certain steps in the solution of a problem. Before we can     understand the elements of a problem, we must _______ the problem.

A)     formulate

B) generate

C)     analyze

D)     evaluate

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 277

Style: Conceptual

  Janice     finished organizing the elements of a problem. Which cognitive operation     should she perform next?

A)     perceive and formulate the problem

B)     generate and evaluate alternative solutions

C)     construct a mental set

D)     develop a goal state

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 278

Style: Conceptual

  The     correct sequence of cognitive operations used in problem solving (starting     from the beginning) is

A)     formulate, evaluate, generate.

B)     evaluate, understand, generate.

C)     formulate, understand, generate.

D)     understand, evaluate, formulate.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 277–278

Style: Factual

  After     we have generated several solutions, our next task in the process of     problem solving is to

A)     develop a mental set.

B)     evaluate the solutions.

C)     organize the elements of the problem.

D)     formulate the problem.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  Ami     solved a problem by using a strategy that guarantees a correct solution.     She most likely used

A)     an algorithm.

B)     heuristics.

C) a     mental set.

D)     an intelligence quotient.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  You     make your famous strawberry banana daiquiris for a gathering of your best     friends. You use a recipe to ensure the correct combination of     ingredients.  Which approach to problem solving was used in this     example?

A)     trial-and-error

B)     heuristics

C)     expert systems

D)     an algorithm

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 278

Style: Applied

  A     person using heuristics to solve a problem would

A)     demonstrate functional fixedness.

B)     take shortcuts.

C)     consider and evaluate every option.

D)     always find a solution.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  Voting     for a candidate based on having heard her on TV rather than on having     systematically studied the viewpoints of all the candidates is problem     solving based on

A)     algorithms.

B)     convergence.

C) divergence.

D)     heuristics.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 278

Style: Conceptual

  An     algorithm is a systematic pattern of reasoning that

A)     leads to a correct solution if followed.

B)     generates multiple, possible solutions to test.

C)     followed a preprogrammed series of shortcuts.

D)     records individual trials and errors.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  The     tendency to make decisions about what is unknown based on what we know is     called

A)     trial and error.

B) the     representativeness heuristic.

C)     an algorithmic approach.

D)     the availability heuristic.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 279

Style: Factual

  Which     is safer, flying on a commercial airplane or driving an automobile?

A)     You are slightly safer in the air than on the ground.

B)     There is no difference in safety between air and ground.

C)     You are much safer in the air than on the ground.

D)     You are moderately safer on the ground than in the air.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 280

Style: Conceptual

  When     asked what a hanger is useful for, a child says it is useful for hanging     clothes. This demonstrates

A)     convergent thinking.

B)     disjunctive thinking.

C)     illumination.

D)     an algorithm.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 280

Style: Factual

  The     question “how many ways can a paper clip be used?” calls for

A)     convergent thinking.

B)     an objective view.

C) a     mental set.

D)     divergent thinking.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Conceptual

  With     respect to types of thinking, rigid is to flexible as

A)     divergent is to functional fixedness.

B)     functional fixedness is to convergent.

C)     convergent is to divergent.

D)     divergent is to heuristic.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 280–281

Style: Conceptual

  The     willingness to consider unconventional approaches, to use imagination, and     to attempt to develop new definitions of problems are central     characteristics of

A)     convergent thinking.

B)     intelligence.

C)     divergent thinking.

D)     algorithmic approaches.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  It     is thought that creative people have a greater ability to use

A)     conjunctive thinking.

B)     associative thinking.

C)     convergent thinking.

D)     divergent thinking.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  Creativity     is the ability to produce outcomes that are ______ and ______.

A)     valuable; common

B)     easy to use; unique

C)     generational; easy to use.

D)     novel; valued by others.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 280

Style: Factual

  If     you are a ______ thinker, you are more easily able to break out of mental     sets and think in very creative ways.

A)     divergent

B)     convergent

C)     concurrent

D)     divested

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  In     Wallas’s problem solving sequence, ______ refers to the initial attempt to     formulate the problem, recall relevant facts, and begin to consider     possible solutions.

A)     incubation

B)     preparation

C)     illumination

D)     verification

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  Sudden     insight pertaining to the solution of a problem was referred to by Wallas     as

A)     eureka!

B)     aha!

C)     illumination.

D)     insight.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  After     working on a calculus problem for three hours, Sue took a two-hour break     before going back to the problem. She solved the problem soon after she     returned to it.  Wallas would refer to Sue’s two-hour break as a step     to problem solving called _______.

A)     relaxation

B)     preparation

C)     incubation

D)     meditation

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  In     the process of problem solving suggested by Wallas, _______ is followed by     _______.

A)     incubation; illumination

B)     atmosphere; preparation

C)     incubation; verification

D)     preparation; acknowledgment

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Conceptual

  Bill     suddenly realized how to solve a difficult problem. According to Wallas,     Bill has just completed the creative process step called

A)     verification.

B)     incubation.

C)     preparation.

D)     illumination.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  Chuck     just completed the step in Wallas’s creative problem-solving process     called verification. Which of the following did Chuck likely do?

A)     create a knowledge base

B)     compare similarities with other problems

C)     test the correctness of a solution

D)     take a period of rest

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  The     type of reasoning that requires a conclusion beyond the information     presented (thus relying on information you bring from your own background)     is called ______ reasoning.

A)     divergent

B)     descriptive

C)     inferential

D)     convergent

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 280

Style: Factual

  Wallas’     steps in creative problem solving, from start to finish, are

A)     verification, preparation, incubation, illumination

B)     illumination, verification, preparation, incubation

C)     incubation, illumination, verification, preparation

D)     preparation, incubation, illumination, verification

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  The     semantic meaning of communication refers to its’

A)     meaning.

B)     sound.

C)     syntax.

D)     grammar.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 284

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following best depicts the meaning of the surface structure of     language?

A)     the grammatical syntax

B)     the spoken word

C)     the statement’s meaning

D)     the language in use

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 284

Style: Factual

  The     idea that there are an infinite number of possible things a person can     say, and that these sayings come from a finite number of words and rules     of language is called

A)     fluid intelligence.

B)     the Whorfian effect.

C)     generativity.

D)     syntactic collaboration.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  “Discovering     gold is exciting” and “It is exciting to discover gold” are statements     that may mean the same thing, but they have different

A)     semantic content.

B)     syntax structure.

C)     surface structure.

D)     phoneme structure.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Conceptual

  Language     codes are to semantic content as _______ is to _______.

A)     phoneme; sound

B)     language; intelligence

C) surface     structure; deep structure

D)     conjunctive concept; disjunctive concept

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 285

Style: Conceptual

  The     ability to create an infinite number of sentences from a finite set of     words and rules refers to the _______ of language.

A)     morphology

B)     generative property

C)     syntactical property

D)     semantics

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  When     we say that language is generative, we mean that

A)     it is passed down from generation to generation.

B)     novel language utterances generate new thoughts.

C)     there is no limit to what can be said.

D)     dialects change over several generations.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  How     many phonemes are there in the English language?

A)     26

B)     44

C)     approximately 12,000

D)     an infinite number

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  How     many phonemes are found in the word “tree”?

A)     one

B)     two

C)     three

D)     four

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Conceptual

  A     teacher insists that diagramming complex sentences helps students     comprehend the _______ of the English language.

A)     phonology

B)     morphology

C)     semantics

D)     syntax

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  The     word that refers to the grammar of a language is

A)     syntax.

B)     semantics.

C)     morpheme.

D)     structure.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  What     is the relationship between morphemes and words?

A)     Morphemes are closely related to but not the same as words.

B)     Every word is composed of one morpheme.

C)     Morphemes and words are exactly the same thing.

D)     Every word is composed of at least two morphemes.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 285

Style: Conceptual

  What     role does syntax play in the effective use of language?

A)     Syntax is the smallest unit of meaning possible.

B)     Syntax describes the rules of language use.

C)     Syntax describes each of the sounds that can be generated by humans.

D)     Syntax refers to the back and forth nature of nonverbal communications.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285–286

Style: Factual

  Some     psychologists hold the idea that we are limited in the thoughts that we     have when our vocabulary is limited. This idea is known as the

A)     availability heuristic.

B)     tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

C)     Whorfian hypothesis.

D)     generativity effect.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 286

Style: Factual

  Another     term for the linguistic relativity hypothesis is the

A) Wallas     constraint.

B)     Sternberg triarch.

C)     Chomsky declaration.

D)     Whorfian hypothesis.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 286

Style: Factual

  The     notion that the more vocabulary or categories a language has, the more     varied our perceptions will be, is a theory connected to

A)     Rosch.

B)     Chomsky.

C)     Miller.

D)     Whorf.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 286

Style: Factual

  Several     efforts have been made to teach apes human language. Although there have     been varying degrees of success, the main issue seems to be whether apes

A)     have the anatomy for speech.

B)     have the intelligence for speech.

C)     can generate new combinations of language.

D)     can be taught American Sign Language.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 288

Style: Factual

  Chimpanzees     who have been taught sign language have difficulty with

A)     asking for food.

B)     syntax.

C)     interchanging symbols.

D)     combining signs.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 289

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following best describes the language of bees?

A)     limited by inheritance

B)     somewhat flexible

C)     generative

D)     not a true language

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 288

Style: Factual

  Why     do some researchers believe chimpanzees have not mastered true human     language?

A)     Apes lack the physical ability to speak; they lack mental ability.

B)     Apes can only mimic language; they do not make sense.

C)     Apes use language to get rewards; they only communicate with humans.

D)     Apes do not understand syntax; they do not use language spontaneously.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 289

Style: Conceptual

  A bee     in the midst of a tail-wagging dance is attempting to communicate

A)     distance and direction to nectar.

B) a     threat to the hive.

C) a     malfunction of its stinger.

D) abdication     of the queen bee.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 288

Style: Factual

  The     notion concerning how well a person uses cognition to cope with the world     is known as

A)     motivation.

B)     intelligence.

C)     socialization.

D)     nurture.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  The Primary Mental Abilities Test is designed to     measure ______ different types of intelligence.

A)     three

B)     five

C)     seven

D)     nine

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  The     term “g” refers to the idea that intelligence

A) is     made of genetically inherited abilities.

B)     may be grouped into subcategories.

C)     has a basic general component.

D)     was developed by Sir Francis Galton.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  The     concept of “g” would best support the observation that

A)     impoverished environments can reduce IQ test scores.

B)     the stability of IQ changes with age.

C)     people who are good at math also tend to be good at reading.

D)     some mentally retarded individuals are spectacularly gifted.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  Biological     views of intelligence hypothesizes that high “g” persons

A)     respond to stimuli by reducing the number of neural connections.

B)     have greater potential for deterioration of complex neural pathways.

C)     have more neural connections but process cognitive information more     slowly.

D)     have more neural connections and process simple cognitive tasks faster.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 291

Style: Factual

  It     is believed that persons with high “g”

A)     have faster reflexes but slower reaction times.

B)     have slower reflexes due to more complex neural connections.

C)     have both faster reflexes and faster reaction times.

D)     do not differ from lower “g” persons in any measurable ways.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 292

Style: Factual

  College     admission usually requires some demonstration of _______ and _______     abilities.

A)     verbal; logical-mathematical

B) logical-mathematical;     intrapersonal

C)     spatial; linguistic

D)     kinesthetic; artistic

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 291

Style: Factual

  In a     discussion of intelligence, the concept of “g” refers to

A)     generational intellect.

B)     generic performance.

C)     genetic superiority.

D)     general intelligence.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is an advantage for a person who possesses higher levels     of g?

A)     faster reflexes

B)     slower reaction times

C) more     time to make simple judgments

D)     slowed reflexes

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 292

Style: Factual

  The     idea that a person must map or identify common characteristics between     situations in order to solve problems comes from ______ theory of     intelligent behavior.

A)     Thurstone’s

B)     Sternberg’s

C)     Gardner’s

D)     Guilford’s

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 292

Style: Factual

  Sternberg’s     theory of intelligence is an advance over previous theories of     intelligence because it

A) quantifies     the “g” factor.

B)     identifies the best heuristics for problem solving.

C)     provides a basis for discovering how some people are more intelligent.

D)     takes into account all aspects of intellectual functioning.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  Sternberg’s     findings suggest that an important part of intelligent problem solving is

A)     careful and deliberate encoding of information.

B)     careful and deliberate inferring of relationships.

C)     rapid and efficient encoding of information.

D)     spending the most time on mapping our characteristics of a problem.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 292–293

Style: Factual

  When     you use the knowledge you gained in elementary mathematics to balance your     checkbook, what kind of intelligence are you using?

A)     fluid

B)     surface

C)     convergent

D)     crystallized

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 293

Style: Conceptual

  How     does crystallized intelligence differ from fluid intelligence?

A)     Crystallized intelligence stabilizes before adolescence while fluid     intelligence always improves.

B)     Fluid intelligence shows age-related declines before crystallized     intelligence.

C)     Crystallized intelligence is set from birth and fluid intelligence is not.

D)     Fluid intelligence improves until retirement age, and at the same time     crystallized intelligence declines.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 293

Style: Conceptual

  The     ability to process information quickly and devise strategies for dealing     with novel problems is known as

A)     generativity.

B)     g.

C)     crystallized intelligence.

D)     fluid intelligence.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following most accurately depicts crystallized intelligence?

A) The     ability to combine syntax and grammar to solve word problems.

B) The     ability to learn vicariously from others to solve novel problems.

C) The     ability to use new information quickly to devise problem-solving     strategies.

D) The     ability to used previous knowledge to solve familiar problems.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  Regarding     intelligence, ______ intelligence tends to improve with age.

A)     crystallized

B)     generative

C)     fluid

D)     contextual

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  The     first person to develop a useful measure of intelligence was

A)     Guilford.

B)     Binet.

C)     Thurstone.

D)     Wechsler

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  In     children’s IQ testing, chronological age refers to the measure of

A)     the age of the parents when the child was born.

B)     how quickly the child can answer questions.

C)     how many questions the child can answer.

D)     the age of the child.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 294

Style: Factual

  Of     the following, why are intelligence tests used?

A)     to predict behavior

B)     to categorize people

C)     to measure expertise

D)     to normalize society

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 294

Style: Factual

  Persons     raised in collectivist cultures when compared to persons raised in     individualistic cultures

A)     believe that group influence on behavior is very small.

B)     believe that group influence is less than individual influence on our     behavior.

C)     believe that group influence is much greater on behavior.

D) show     no difference in inferences.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: High

Page: 282

Style: Conceptual

  According     to the original Stanford-Binet formula, IQ was calculated as mental age     _______ chronological age and the result was _______ by 100.

A)     divided by; divided

B)     divided by; multiplied

C)     subtracted from; divided

D)     subtracted from; multiplied

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 294

Style: Conceptual

  If a     child’s mental age were higher than his or her chronological age, this     would mean that

A)     the child is brighter than normal.

B)     the child is about average.

C)     the child is less intelligent than normal.

D) a     calculation error was made.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 294

Style: Applied

  Which     form of IQ is currently used by psychologists?

A)     ratio IQ

B)     deviation IQ

C)     reliability IQ

D)     algebraic IQ

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 295

Style: Factual

  With     children, the intelligence quotient is calculated as

A)     mental age divided by chronological age, then multiplied by 100.

B)     mental age multiplied by 100, then divided by chronological age.

C)     chronological age divided by mental age, then multiplied by 1000.

D)     mental age divided by 100, then multiplied by chronological age.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 294–295

Style: Factual

  The     mathematical approach that Binet used to calculate the IQ of children is     known as the

A)     deviation IQ.

B)     ratio IQ.

C)     normal IQ.

D)     valid IQ.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 295

Style: Factual

  The idea     of test standardization means that

A)     the test measures what it is intended to measure.

B)     there is no ambiguity when determining the correct answer on a test.

C)     an individual’s score is compared with larger groups of people who have     taken that test.

D)     the test is given in the same way to every person taking the test.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  The     idea that a test score is stable across two different administrations, or     that a test score would be stable if the test were administered by two     different people depicts the test characteristic known as

A)     reliability.

B)     validity.

C)     objectivity.

D)     standardization.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  High     school students taking the SAT on the east coast are read the exact same     instructions and given the exact same amount of time to complete the SAT     as students on the west coast. This feature of administering the same test     in the same manner at different locations is known as

A) standardization.

B)     verification.

C)     syndication.

D)     translocution.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  Reading     the identical directions to every person taking a given intelligence test     is an aspect of the test’s

A)     reliability.

B)     validity.

C)     normalization.

D)     standardization.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  When     a test is given to a large group of individuals varying in age, sex,     background, and so on to form a basis for interpreting an individual’s     score, the group is referred to as the _______ sample.

A)     standardization

B)     validity

C)     affirmative

D)     normative

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  If     items on an intelligence test can have more than one correct answer, the     test is lacking the very important characteristic of

A)     validity.

B)     reliability.

C)     objectivity.

D)     uniformness.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  John’s     psychology class took a test on Friday. On the following Friday, the class     was asked to take the same test again. The professor was determining the     _______ of the test.

A)     validity

B)     readability

C)     reliability

D)     comprehension

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 296

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following is the extent to which a test measures what it is     intended to measure?

A)     nonbiased

B)     standardization

C)     reliability

D)     validity

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  Suppose     you were given a comprehension intelligence test, but you realized while     taking the test that it was not measuring intelligence, just reading     speed. Afterwards, you did not feel that the test measured what it was     intended to measure.  In other words, you felt that the test was not

A)     standardized.

B)     valid.

C)     reliable.

D)     normative.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Applied

  What     kind of intelligence test is best for measuring a person’s work skills in     a particular area?

A)     tacit intelligence test

B)     Stanford-Binet test

C) the     Wechsler scale

D)     general intelligence test

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 297

Style: Factual

  Jane     took a test that was supposed to test her practical knowledge of     mechanical systems. What kind of test did she take?

A)     the Stanford-Binet

B) a     reliability test

C) a     tacit intelligence test

D) a     ratio IQ test

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 297

Style: Conceptual

  The     ability to get things done or “everyday” intelligence is known as

A)     fluid intelligence.

B)     tacit intelligence.

C) g.

D)     ratio IQ.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 297

Style: Factual

  Heredity     is one of the more important factors in determining ______, according to     adoption studies.

A)     algorithmic use

B)     generativity

C)     IQ

D)     tacit knowledge

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 298

Style: Factual

  Which     of the following is true concerning the intelligence scores of identical     twins?

A)     They are very similar.

B)     They resemble those of dizygotic twins.

C)     They are unrelated to their natural parents.

D)     They indicate intelligence is mostly influenced by environment.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 298

Style: Factual

  IQs     of adopted children are

A)     more similar to their biological parents than to their adoptive parents.

B)     more similar to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents.

C)     equally similar to adoptive and biological parents.

D)     uncorrelated to either their adoptive parents or their biological parents.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 298

Style: Factual

  Concerning     environmental enrichment, which of the following research results was     reported?

A)     Beneficial influences were limited to very early childhood.

B)     Improved scores of crystallized and fluid intelligence have been reported.

C)     Improvements were reported until children reached the age of 9 years.

D)     Improvements were reported only after children reached the age of 15     years.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 298

Style: Factual

  What     importance do intelligence test scores have in modern society?

A)     The correlation between IQ and success in occupation is low.

B)     Persons with IQs below 85 are not employable.

C)     There is a correlation between high-tech jobs and low pay.

D)     Persons with higher intelligence tend to perform better in complex jobs.

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 299

Style: Conceptual

  The     text contends that in modern society complex occupation is associated with

A)     pay.

B)     intelligence.

C)     technology.

D)     performance.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 299

Style: Factual

  One     reason that intelligence is a predictor of how well a person performs in a     job is that people with

A)     higher intelligence train faster than those with lower intelligence.

B)     lower intelligence tend to perform better at complex jobs.

C)     higher intelligence think of better excuses to avoid work.

D)     lower intelligence tend to seek out higher education more often.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 299

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following is a plausible explanation for the general increases in     intelligence test scores?

A)     Decreasing levels of education have led to unexpected increases in test     scores.

B)     Nutrition and health care have improved dramatically around the world.

C)     Life was easier in the early 1900s and students scored better then due to     simplicity.

D)     Tests have been written and re-written so many times, who knows what they     measure?

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 301

Style: Conceptual

  Which     of the following was not given as a plausible explanation for why     intelligence test scores have risen over successive generations?

A)     improvements in nutrition and health

B)     better genetic inheritance

C)     increases in levels of education

D)     modern increases in environmental complexity

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 301–302

Style: Conceptual

  Why     do we need to be cautious about concluding that people are more     intelligent than they used to be?

A)     Younger people may be more familiar with the types of problems tested.

B)     The test items used have actually become easier.

C)     The tests do not measure fluid intelligence.

D)     Old people have better fluid intelligence than young people.

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 301–302

Style: Conceptual

  During     the time intelligence scores have risen, people from different regions     have become more mobile, choosing mates from regions with people with     fewer shared traits (fewer harmful recessive traits). This particular     explanation for increases in intelligence scores over time is known as

A) intellectual     imprinting.

B)     latent learning.

C)     hybrid vigor.

D)     survival of the fittest.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 302

Style: Factual

  How     much did the educational level of adults in African American families     increase between 1973 and 1990?

A)     10%

B)     70%

C)     105%

D)     350%

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 303

Style: Factual

  Which     group showed the greatest improvements in academic achievement between     1970 and 1990?

A)     Hispanic youths

B)     African American youths

C)     white youths

D)     white adults

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 303

Style: Factual

  Because     they believe that higher education and favorable employment are determined     by a person’s ability, the authors of The Bell Curve     believe American society is moving toward

A)     genetic superiority.

B)     intellectual superiority.

C) a     meritocracy.

D)     an aristocracy.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 303

Style: Factual

  There     are approximately ______ of Americans classified as mentally retarded,     which means an IQ below ______.

A)     8%; 100

B)     1%; 50

C)     5%; 85

D)     2%; 70

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 304

Style: Factual

  Someone     scoring a 15 on an IQ test would be classified as ______ retarded.

A)     profoundly

B)     moderately

C)     severely

D)     mildly

Answer: A

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 305

Style: Factual

  Profoundly     retarded is a label given to individuals with IQs under

A)     50.

B)     30.

C)     20.

D)     10.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 305

Style: Factual

  Along     with IQ, giftedness is also associated with

A)     expertise.

B)     creativity.

C)     convergent thinking.

D)     crystallized intelligence.

Answer: B

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 305

Style: Factual

  The     Terman study that followed gifted children from childhood through     adulthood found that the gifted individuals

A)     were just as successful as non-gifted individuals.

B)     had higher rates of adult alcoholism.

C)     had a lower death rate than the national average.

D)     had average family incomes.

Answer: C

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 305

Style: Factual

  Of     the four designations of retardation, which accounts for the greatest     percentage of individuals who are considered retarded?

A)     profoundly

B)     severely

C)     moderately

D)     mildly

Answer: D

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 304–305

Style: Conceptual

 True/False Questions

  Cognition     is both an active and useful process.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 271–272

Style: Factual

  The     presence of two or more characteristics at the same time defines a     disjunctive concept.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  Conjunctive     concepts and disjunctive concepts are simple concepts.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 273

Style: Factual

  Superordinate     concepts are very inclusive and have many members.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 274

Style: Factual

  Superordinate     concepts are the least inclusive level of concepts.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 274

Style: Factual

  The     habitual way of approaching a problem is called a mental set.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  The     key to effective problem solving usually is determined by how many     possible solutions have been generated.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 277

Style: Factual

  Using     shortcuts to solve complex problems is using algorithmic reasoning.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty:Low

Page: 278

Style: Factual

  Generally,     it is safer to fly in an airplane than to drive an automobile.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 280

Style: Conceptual

  Loosely     organized and unconventional thinking is known as convergent thinking.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 280

Style: Factual

  Most     formal education emphasizes the teaching of divergent thinking.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 281

Style: Factual

  In     problem solving, incubation is a period of rest.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 282

Style: Factual

  Inferential     reasoning involves reaching a conclusion using only the information     readily available.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 282

Style: Factual

  The     semantic content of language refers to the sound of the spoken word.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 284

Style: Factual

  The     rules of language are called syntax.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  Phonemes     are the smallest unit of meaning in a language.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  Children     learn syntax before they learn morphemes.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 285

Style: Factual

  The     linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that thoughts are limited by the     availability of language.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 286

Style: Factual

  Bees     can communicate in a way that is firmly limited by inheritance.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 288

Style: Factual

  Apes     that are taught sign language can carry on complex two-way conversations     with humans.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 288

Style: Factual

  The     theory that intelligence is a single general factor has much more support     than the theories that state there are multiple levels of intelligence.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 290

Style: Factual

  Individuals     with higher levels of ‘g’ tend to have fewer neuronal connections.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 292

Style: Factual

  Better     reasoners take more time to complete the encoding component of problem     solving than poor reasoners.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 292

Style: Factual

  If     your mental age is considerably lower than your chronological age, then     you would be considered very bright.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 294

Style: Applied

  Fluid     intelligence declines from middle age on.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  The     WISC-R and the WAIS-R are measures of language acquisition.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 293

Style: Factual

  One     definition of “intelligence” is “what intelligence tests measure.”

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 294

Style: Factual

  When     large numbers of people complete an IQ test, the scores tend to fall into     a normal distribution.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 295

Style: Factual

  Deviation     IQ is calculated by subtracting mental age from chronological age.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 295

Style: Factual

  Binet’s     approach to measuring intelligence, the ratio IQ, is still the most-used     way of measuring intellectual ability.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 295

Style: Factual

  Norms     are used as the basis of comparison for scores on a test.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  Objectification     is the process of giving a new intelligence test to a large sample of     people representative of the general population.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 296

Style: Factual

  A     test of tacit intelligence tests a person’s ability to solve everyday     problems.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 297

Style: Factual

  General     intelligence is a better predictor of breadth of knowledge than the depth     of knowledge in any one area.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 297

Style: Factual

  IQ     scores of monozygotic twins are more similar than IQ scores of dizygotic     twins.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 298

Style: Factual

  The     average IQ of doctors and lawyers is approximately 100.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 299

Style: Factual

  Generally     speaking, IQ scores have been declining for several generations.

Answer: False

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 299

Style: Factual

  On     average, Asian Americans score higher on intelligence tests than white     Americans.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 302

Style: Factual

  Desegregation     is positively correlated with the educational level of adults in African     American families.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Medium

Page: 303

Style: Factual

   A     child who is classified as “gifted” usually has a high IQ and high levels     of creativity.

Answer: True

Book: Lahey

Difficulty: Low

Page: 305

Style: Factual

[addictionrecoveryassistance]

Dual Diagnosis Treatment Centers In Ct

Contents

Drug rehabs and

Rehabs that accept medicaid. find rehab

Rehabs for 2018. get discounts

Homedirections contact resources. mcca

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Dual diagnosis treatment is a complex process that requires specific qualifications, expertise and experience. Mental disorders such as depression, bipolar disorder and personality disorders among others are sensitive issues compounded by addiction. As such, not all facilities are capable or willing to provide this critical …

In case you missed it, here's our fall newsletter. Click here to read it now. There's a lot going on[…] &nbsp. homedirections contact resources. mcca is recognized by the Internal Revenue Service as a 501(c) 3 non-profit community- based organization. MCCA 38 Old Ridgebury Road, Danbury, CT 06810 877.874 .6222.

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The page you were looking for could not be found. Check the URL for errors. NERC's family counseling provides the family members of those in treatment with information about substance abuse and the recovery process, as well as serves as an outlet to voice their concerns.

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An affiliate of St. Francis Hospital in Hartford, the Alcohol and Drug Recovery Centers Inc. provides a variety of services for adults struggling with substance abuse, including intensive and intermediate inpatient treatment, long term treatment, and outpatient services. The Coventry House serves pregnant and post-partum …

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[healthinsurcover]

Everything You Need To Know About The Gaps Diet

With all the different diets available right now, the best thing anyone can do is learn about the diets and find out which one to follow. The GAPS diet is a derivative of the SCD or Specific Carbohydrate Diet. This diet is primarily focused on avoiding foods which are hard to digest. Such foods may cause damage to the body’s gut flora. People on the GAPS diet will then have to replace these foods with nutrient-dense options. This will give the lining of their intestines a chance to strengthen and recover.

GAPS stands forGut and Psychology Syndrome and its protocol was created by Dr. Natasha Campbell-McBride. The protocol is a short-term diet along with healthy lifestyle changes which are meant to heal a person. She used this protocol to treat her son who has autism. This diet is meant to treat 3 underlying causes of common diseases. These are nutrient deficiencies, imbalances in the gut flora, and leaky gut.

Simply put, this diet consists of the following:

Avoiding complex carbohydrates because they nourish pathogenic bacteria.

Focus on fermented foods and probiotic supplements to restore the body’s gut flora.

Focus on traditional foods which are nutrient-dense to heal nutrient deficiencies.

Reintroduction of a specific series of foods.

Healthy lifestyle changes including detoxification and other steps to boost the immune system.

A Brief History

Dr. Natasha Campbell-McBride was the one who designed the GAPS diet. She created it in Russia after she received her post-graduate degree. Back then, she was a neurosurgeon and a neurologist. When the doctor moved to the UK, she then received her degree in Human Nutrition. She wrote a book about the diet and now had a second edition.

In her book, she says that people need to understand the role and importance of the gut in a person’s overall health. Since the ancient times, people believed that many diseases start in the gut. Primarily, she created this diet to cure autism, which her son has. She claims that the diet can cure the disorder because its cause is an unhealthy environment of the gut.

According to Dr. Natasha, children develop gut flora which is abnormal from the very start of their lives. Because of this, their digestive systems aren’t good sources of nourishment. Instead, they become a major source of toxins. She further explains that when these microbes and toxins from the digestive system go into the bloodstream. When that happens, they also go into the child’s brain, which causes autism and many other diseases.

Because of her desire to cure her child, she researched the best foods to support a healthy gut flora and applied them to a diet, the GAPS diet. Although there may be changes in the diet in the future, it’s still becoming quite popular. This is because a lot of people who have tried it say that they’ve seen the benefits and results of the diet.

Who Should Follow the GAPS Diet?

The GAPS diet isn’t for everyone. However, it may be the factor which turns a person’s health around. Anyone who has been experiencing issues with their gut should start thinking about following this diet. This diet is also ideal for certain people who are experiencing various illnesses and diseases. Here are other diseases people may have which should make them start thinking about following the GAPS diet:

Anemia. People may not know it, but anemia starts in the gut. If a person has severe anemia and the body isn’t responding to medicines or iron supplements, it may be a sign of pathogenic bacteria overgrowth. These bacteria protect themselves by using iron build biofilms.

When there’s an imbalance of the gut flora, such bacteria and other pathogens create structures in the gut where they start living. In these biofilms, they conceal themselves from the immune system, so they can multiply and flourish. The GAPS diet addresses overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria, which may cure a person’s anemia.

Arthritis. This disease also results from an imbalance of gut flora and a leaky gut. When a person has either of these conditions, toxic components from the digestive tract go into the bloodstream. When this happens, they tend to stick to collagen muscles which are found in the joints. Because of this, the body’s immune system sees the collagen as toxic,so the immune system responds by attacking it.

Therefore, the GAPS diet may help in reversing one’s arthritis. The body will get better at managing inflammation by cleansing the toxins. It may also seal leaky gut, which will further promote the healing process.

Autism or a learning disability in children. Such disorders all begin with the gut-brain axis. This happens to be the communication between the bacteria and nerve cells in the gut and the person’s brain. This connection is very complex, and scientists are just starting to learn about it.

The factors which the GAPS diet targets help in the treatment and healing of autism or other learning disabilities. Another reason why the GAPS diet is beneficial is that when a person has leaky gut, the toxins may start reaching the brain. This may be the reason why the disorders aren’t improving.

Autoimmune disease. Usually, all kinds of autoimmune diseases start in the gut. Usually, it begins with a leaky gut. The bodies of people with leaky gut can’t detoxify properly. Because of this, the toxins spread through the body which triggers an immune response. Then the antibodies start attacking the body’s healthy tissues.

When a person follows the GAPS diet, he won’t be consuming foods which promote a leaky gut. Along with this, it also floods the body with foods which help rebuild healthy tissues. So, the leaky gut may seal up, and the body will be able to recover.

Chronic candida overgrowth. Although there is such a diet called the Candida diet, it doesn’t deal with the cause of the fungal overgrowth. Because again, the main reason for this is a leaky gut. The Candida diet starves the fungus but doesn’t treat the cause.

Since the GAPS diet deals with the cause, it’s a much better way to treat the fungal infection. The person will be eating foods which will promote the healing of the leaky gut, therefore fixing the cause.

Depression or a form of mental illness. Studies have shown that such illnesses aren’t head problems, they’re digestive problems. The GAPS diet also addresses depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, OCD, and bipolar disorder. A lot of people with these conditions have claimed that they achieved incredible results because of this diet.

The GAPS diet addresses neurotransmitter deficiencies. This is done by enhancing digestion of proteins and balancing the gut flora. It also works with hormonal imbalances and leaky gut. Such things help in treating these illnesses, therefore improving them.

Eczema. Until now, no one knows what causes eczema exactly. However, a lot of holistic practitioners believe that the main underlying cause is again, a leaky gut. It might even be caused by intolerances to certain foods.

It’s a fact that a lot of people who followed the GAPS diet were able to reverse the effects of eczema. Some of them have even said that they noticed results just a few days after beginning the diet. No matter what the case of your eczema is, you’ll benefit from such a diet.

Hay fever and allergies. Many people are unaware of the fact that the origin of seasonal allergies in the gut. For the body to regulate histamine, the gut flora needs to be in the right balance. Gut pathogens produce histamine. It’s an essential kind of neurotransmitter in the body.

But when these microbes keep growing because there isn’t enough good gut flora, there’s an overproduction of histamine. This causes the body’s functions to react to the histamine in negative ways. Remember, the GAPS diet helps bring back balance to the gut flora. This means that it deals with the cause of too many histamines.

Highly susceptible to colds. The human body has a lot of bacteria in the gut. Aside from this, most of the immune system resides there too. This means that when there’s something out of balance in the gut, a person may start experiencing different diseases, especially the common ones like colds.

So, people who want to lessen the risk of getting colds should consider going on the GAPS diet. It will give the body’s immune system a boost while keeping the gut well-balanced.

People who have taken (or are taking) oral contraceptives. Studies have shown that oral contraceptives cause irreparable damage to the otherwise healthy gut flora. And the dangerous part about this is that when a woman conceives and gets pregnant, she may pass on her imbalanced gut health to her child. Then the child will pass it on to her child. That’s why it’s important to keep the gut flora healthy, especially for women. Aside from this, pills for birth control also cause different nutrient deficiencies as well as hormonal imbalances.

Fortunately, there’s a way to restore the balance of gut flora, and that’s to follow the GAPS diet. So, it’s highly beneficial for women who are taken or who have tried taking oral contraceptives in the past.

Stages of the GAPS Diet

The GAPS diet has different or phases. Just like most diets, the very first stage is usually the hardest, and it’s also the one which puts most people off. People who can’t keep up with a specific diet from the beginning won’t be able to maintain it until the end.

The Introduction Diet. Just as previously mentioned, this part of the diet may be off-putting to a lot of people. This is mainly because it involves intense modifications in a person’s regular diet. This stage comes with its sub-stages.

First, the person may only consume a very strict diet, water at room temperature, and probiotic supplements.

Second, the person may add new foods to the diet. These include raw egg yolks (organic), fermented fish and homemade yogurt. The person may also consume some types of soups, casseroles, and stews.

Third, the person may add even more foods to his diet. Such foods are squash pancakes and avocados.

As the diet progresses, the person may be able to add more and more foods at each stage. These foods are mainly vegetables, some meats, and fermented foods. Any foods which are baked must be avoided. In this diet, some people may remove fruit, nuts, and honey altogether. However, if a person’s body has a severe reaction to the diet, he may go back to the earlier stages of this phase.

Supplementing the diet. Since this diet is very restricted, it means that a person may pass up some foods which are rich in nutrients. So, people following this diet will benefit a lot from taking some select supplements. The most recommended ones include:

Digestive enzymes

Essential fatty acids

Mineral supplements

Probiotics

Vitamin supplements

Detoxifying the body. Aside from following the diet, a person may need to start detoxifying his body. This means that one needs to ensure that the body is free of chemicals. Some people drink fresh juices made from fruits, vegetables, and herbs to help activate and regulate the bile flow in the liver.

A coffee enema is also a popular choice, but it’s not recommended. This involves injecting coffee into a person’s anus. This cleanses the large intestines as well as the rectum. However, a lot of medical authorities and experts see this as very dangerous.

There are many ways to cleanse and detoxify the body. But a lot of people agree that the best way to do it is naturally. No matter what method a person chooses, he must first research how to do the detoxification as well as the side effects of doing it.

Tips for following the GAPS Diet

Before anyone starts thinking about following the GAPS diet, a person needs to do enough research. Each stage involves rules so one must be aware of all of them. It’s also important to look at the sources of the foods one will need for the diet instead. Go through different supermarkets in the area to find out where to buy the required food items. Here are some helpful tips for following this diet:

At each meal, be sure to combine vegetables (prepared in different ways) with fish and meats to balance the pH levels. Body pH levels which are too alkaline or too acidic aren’t ideal for the gut.

Avoid eating fruits (aside from avocado) with meals so as not to disturb the body’s digestion of the meats.

As much as possible, find food options which are organic and chemical-free.

Each meal must also contain a lot of natural fats. Animal fats are highly beneficial.

Also at each meal, consume a cup of meat stock or bone broth. This may help in the digestion of the meats and fats.

Focus on different fermented foods. If not used to such foods, introduce them to the body gradually. Also, try to observe how the body reacts to them.

Avoid canned and processed foods. These also include refined carbohydrates and foods which contain preservatives, chemicals, and artificial ingredients.

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